IIMC Flashcards

1
Q

Spatial disorientation is defined as

a) The state of confusion due to misleading information being sent to the organs, resulting in a lack of awareness of the aircraft position in relation to a specific reference point.

b) An unintentional, unanticipated, or extreme aircraft attitude.

c) The state of complete awareness of the aircraft position in relation to a specific point due to proper instrument scanning techniques.

A

A) The state of confusion due to misleading information being sent to the organs, resulting in a lack of awareness of the aircraft position in relation to a specific reference point.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

IIMC could lead to

a) Spatial disorientation.

b) Unusual attitude.

c) All are correct.

A

C) All are correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

“Marginal VFR” is defined as

a) Ceilings 1,000 to 3,000 feet AGL and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles.

b) Ceilings 500 to 1,000 feet AGL and/or visibility 1 to 3 miles.

c) Ceilings below 500 feet AGL and visibility less than 1 mile.

A

A) Ceilings 1,000 to 3,000 feet AGL and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

“Instrument Flight Rules” is defined as

a) Ceilings 1,000 to 3,000 feet AGL and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles.

b) Ceilings 500 to 1,000 feet AGL and/or visibility 1 to 3 miles.

c) Ceilings below 500 feet AGL and visibility less than 1 mile.

A

B) Ceilings 500 to 1,000 feet AGL and/or visibility 1 to 3 miles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

“Visual Flight Rules” is defined as

a) Ceilings 1,000 to 3,000 feet AGL and/or visibility 3 to 5 miles.

b) Ceilings greater than 3,000 feet AGL and visibility greater than 5 miles.

c) Ceilings below 500 feet AGL and visibility less than 1 mile.

A

B) Ceilings greater than 3,000 feet AGL and visibility greater than 5 miles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

One of the most commonly misinterpreted instruments is the

a) Airspeed indicator.

b) Vertical speed indicator (VSI).

c) Standard altimeter.

A

C) Standard altimeter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the three fundamental skills of instrument flying?

a) Scan, interpret, and control.

b) Bank, pitch, and power.

c) Relax, control, and interpret.

A

A) Scan, interpret, and control.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Three basic scan techniques are selected radial cross-check, inverted-V cross-check, and rectangular cross-check. These instrument scanning techniques may need to be modified as needed based upon the arrangement of the instruments in your aircraft.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When entering IIMC conditions, the basic recovery procedure is

a) Attitude, heading, torque, trim, and airspeed.

b) Torque, airspeed, heading, and trim.

c) Airspeed, torque, attitude, and heading.

A

A) Attitude, heading, torque, trim, and airspeed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Each HAA base will have specific IIMC recovery procedures established for the base’s service area.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Each permanently assigned base pilot, and pilots conducting work-over, will become familiar with the IIMC procedures at the base.

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The sectional chart used for the hazards map at the base must be the most current chart.

a) True.

b) False.

A

B) False.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How often will the Hazards Map be reviewed and updated (as necessary)?

a) Every quarter.

b) Every month.

c) Every year.

A

B) Every month.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When weather conditions are deteriorating while en route, the PIC should consider

a) Reducing airspeed, but not less than 60 kts.

b) Initiating a 180-degree turn if appropriate.

c) All are correct.

A

C) All are correct.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Should a pilot encounter IIMC and is no longer VFR, the pilot will

a) Immediately execute a 180-degree turn to the right to attempt to return to VFR conditions.

b) Transition to flight by instruments remembering that aircraft control is paramount,

c) Immediately contact Tier I OCC for guidance for returning to VFR conditions.

A

B) Transition to flight by instruments remembering that aircraft control is paramount,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

If equipped with autopilot, it should never be used when encountering IIMC.

a) True.

b) False.

A

B) False

17
Q

When encountering IIMC, the NVGs will be raised and locked in the up position (when able).

a) True.

b) False.

A

A) True.

18
Q

According to the GOM, the first few steps when encountering IIMC are

a) Transition to instruments and level the aircraft; initiate a climb with power and airspeed; autopilot assist (ensure altitude and heading-hold are engaged).

b) Initiate autopilot ALT mode, raise and lock the goggles, and then transition to instruments.

c) Contact Tier I OCC, squawk 7700 on the transponder, then transition to instruments.

A

A) Transition to instruments and level the aircraft; initiate a climb with power and airspeed; autopilot assist (ensure altitude and heading-hold are engaged).

19
Q

(Refer to RNAV (GPS) RWY 8L KSUS approach plate.) The heading view of an approach plate includes

a) The approach course and chart identification.

b) The plan view and MSA circle.

c) Landing minimums.

A

A) The approach course and chart identification.

20
Q

(Refer to RNAV (GPS) RWY 8L KSUS approach plate.) The pilot brief portion of an approach plate includes

a) The plan view and MSA circle.

b) Landing minimums.

c) Frequencies.

A

C) Frequencies

21
Q

(Refer to RNAV (GPS) RWY 8L KSUS approach plate.) The approach course (APP CRS) is

a) 076°.

b) 079°.

c) 46.3°.

A

B) 079°.

22
Q

(Refer to RNAV (GPS) RWY 8L KSUS approach plate.) The frequency for St. Louis Approach Control is

a) 134.8.

b) 126.5.

c) 124.75.

A

B) 126.5

23
Q

(Refer to RNAV (GPS) RWY 8L KSUS approach plate.) The MSA for this approach is

a) 3000’.

b) 463’.

c) 3100’.

A

C) 3100’.

24
Q

(Refer to RNAV (GPS) RWY 8L KSUS approach plate.) The final approach fix (FAF) is

a) FTZ.

b) WIDNR.

c) EXESS.

A

B) WIDNR.

25
Q

(Refer to RNAV (GPS) RWY 8L KSUS approach plate.) The glide slope for this approach is

a) 3.00°.

b) 256°.

c) 076°.

A

A) 3.00°.

26
Q

Helicopters fall into which minimums category when conducting an instrument approach?

a) Category A.

b) Category B.

c) Category H.

A

A) Category A.

27
Q

(Refer to RNAV (GPS) RWY 8L KSUS approach plate.) When conducting the LPV approach, the DA is

a) 855’.

b) 1075’.

c) 1040’.

A

A) 855’.

28
Q

(Refer to RNAV (GPS) RWY 8L KSUS approach plate.) If the LPV is unavailable, the approach may be downgraded to LNAV+V. In this case, the decision altitude is

a) 855’.

b) 1075’.

c) 1040’.

A

B) 1075’.

29
Q

(Refer to RNAV (GPS) RWY 8L KSUS approach plate.) If no vertical guidance is available, the approach may be downgraded to LNAV. In this case, the minimum descent altitude is

a) 855’.

b) 1075’.

c) 1040’.

A

C) 1040’.

30
Q

(Refer to RNAV (GPS) RWY 8L KSUS approach plate.) Touchdown zone elevation is

a) 855’.

b) 1075’.

c) 463’.

A

C) 463’.