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2018 App Test > IFSTA 3RD ADDITION DPO/AAO > Flashcards

IFSTA 3RD ADDITION DPO/AAO Flashcards

1
Q

NFPA 1901

A

Standard for automotive Fire Apparatus

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2
Q

CAFS

A

Compressed Air Foam System

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3
Q

What is Maintenance?

A

Keeping equipment or apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness

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4
Q

What is a repair?

A

To restore or put together something that has become inoperable or out of place

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5
Q

NFPA 1902

A

Routine tests inspections and service of fire Apparatus

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6
Q

What NFPA standard covers Emergency Vehicles Technicians Professional Qualifications?

A

NFPA 1071

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7
Q

During the first 6 months of a new apparatus, you should wash it with hard soaps and hot water? T/F

A

False…should be a mild soap with cold water with no nozzle on the hose to help harden the paint.

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8
Q

Wheel chocks should always be placed when the vehicle is not parked inside a fire station bay?

A

True

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9
Q

Per NFPA 1911 all tires shall be replaced every how many years regardless of their condition?

A

Seven years

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10
Q

How much steering wheel play is said to be acceptable?

A

No more than approximately 10 degrees of play in either direction. (2 inches on a 20 inch wheel)

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11
Q

GVWR

A

Gross vehicle weight recommended. Maximum weight at which the vehicle can be safely operated

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12
Q

Collapse zone is?

A

1.5 times the building hight.

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13
Q

Safest place to park apparatus?

A

Building corners if possible

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14
Q

Position if ladder trucks at buildings less than 5 stories? More than 5 stories?

A

Less than on the outside of engine companies. Greater that park on the inside of engine companies

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15
Q

FDC?

A

Fire department connection

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16
Q

How much water should surround intakes when drafting?

A

24 inches unless using a low level strainer

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17
Q

A _______ should be with in how many feet of an FDC?

A

Hydrant/water source-100feet

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18
Q

Water turns to steam at what temperature?

A

212°F

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19
Q

What is the expansion ratio for water to steam?

A

1700 to 1

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20
Q

What is head pressure?

A

The height of water supply above the discharge

Hight÷2.304=pressure in psi

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21
Q

At what speed do you out run your siren?

A

50mph

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22
Q

What is the distance an engine has to come to a complete stop once the brake is applied from a speed of 5mph?

A

20 feet

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23
Q

What watches for additional electrical loads and sheds loads?

A

Load manager

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24
Q

What fluid do you check hot while the engine is at an idle?

A

Transmission fluid

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25
Q

What are two types of primer pumps?

A

Rotary and piston

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26
Q

When there is a side intake, where should the pumper be placed?

A

Close to the curb, just short of the hydrant

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27
Q

What should the margin of error be on a properly calibrated flowmeter?

A

Plus or minus 3%

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28
Q

What should be done once the vehicle is parked when preforming an inspection?

A

Wheel chocks

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29
Q

What type of heat is water ineffective on?

A

Radiant heat

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30
Q

What type of hose lay is performed from the incident scene to the water source?

A

Reverse lay.

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31
Q

What should the marker come line up with at a take fill site?

A

Driver door

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32
Q

What pressure is being displayed on the main discharge gauge when the pump is flowing water?

A

Residual pressure

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33
Q

Down to what approximate depth can a low level strainer allow water to be efficiently drafted?

A

2 inches

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34
Q

What is the minimum diameter hose line that us acceptable for pump testing?

A

2 1/2”

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35
Q

How should a walk around inspection be preformedm

A

Clock wise pattern

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36
Q

What must overcome all pressure loos in order to arrive at the correct pressure for an effective fire stream?

A

Pump discharge pressure

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37
Q

What is the minimum number of water supplies used during pumping operations?

A

One

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38
Q

How is pressure transmitted when applied to a confined fluid?

A

Equally in all directions

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39
Q

Under what building hight can the engine be placed inside on the ladder truck?

A

5 stories

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40
Q

Where should the residual pressure be identified?

A

Location where the reading is taken

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41
Q

What should the packing glands be checked for?

A

Excessive leaking

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42
Q

When is the timer started when performing a field test to determine the flow rate of a tanker?

A

When the dump valve is opened

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43
Q

Where should the apparatus be positioned when all possible?

A

Uphill, upwind

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44
Q

What should be the first thing to shut down in a relay operation?

A

Attack pumper

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45
Q

When filling tankers at a fill site what must be vented?

A

Main water tank

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46
Q

What is the minimum a pump should be tested?

A

Annually

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47
Q

Most common type of foam concentrate used with onboarding foam systems?

A

Class B

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48
Q

What is the common proportion for class B foam?

A

1-6%

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49
Q

Static pressure

A

Stored potential energy that is able to force water through pipes

50
Q

What is the typical shelf life of class A foam?

A

20 years

51
Q

Per NFPA 1901 what is the minimum pump size and tank size for a pumper?

A

750gpm pump and 300gal of water

52
Q

To be considered a tender/tanker the tank capacity must be atleast?

A

1000 gal.

53
Q

Traffic accidents ate the _____ leading cause of firefighter deaths?

A

Second

54
Q

Weight of a gallon of water?

A

8.33lbs

55
Q

Weight of a gallon of diesel fuel?

A

7.12 lbs

56
Q

Gross Axle Weight Rating

A

The maximum amount of weight that an axle system can safely carry

57
Q

Load Management System

A

An electrical monitoring system that will shed electrical load in a predetermined order if the chassis voltage begins to drop below a predetermined level

58
Q

Load Sequencer

A

Device in an electrical system that turns lights on at a specified intervals, so that start-up load for all devices does not occur at the same time

59
Q

Load Monitor

A

Device that “watches” an electrical system for added loads that may threaten to overload the system

60
Q

Load Shedding

A

When an overload condition occurs, the load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment to prevent overload

61
Q

Antilock Braking Systems

A

An electronic system that monitors wheel spin. When braking and a wheel is sensed to begin locking up, the brake on that wheel is temporarily released to prevent skidding.

62
Q

Air-Actuated Braking Systems

A

A braking system that uses compressed air to hold off a spring brake (parking brake) and applies air pressure to a service brake for vehicle stopping.

63
Q

Air Brake Test

A

A series of test used to ensure the serviceability of an air braking system. Test include air loss, air compressor build up, air warning, and emergency parking brake activation.

64
Q

When checking dashboard gauges, what gauges are you looking for having “WNL”

A

Speedometer, tachometer, oil pressure, fuel gauge, ammeter and voltmeter, air pressure, coolant temp, transmission oil temp, DEF tank, DPF indicator off.

65
Q

Air break system test

A

1 - press break pedal to floor
2 - release parking break
3 - listen for air leaks
4 - no more than 3 PSI drop over 1 minute
5 - pump break pedal, low air alarm should sound above 60 PSI
6 - continue to pump break pedal, parking break should set automatically between 20-40 psi.
7 - start engine, pressure should build up to 85-100 psi in 45 seconds
8 - when pressure builds to 120 psi, pump break pedal stopping at 85 psi and note that the pressure starts climbing.

66
Q

All aerial apparatus should meet the design requirements of which NFPA Standard?

A

NFPA 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus that was in effect at the time of manufacture.

67
Q

Definition of an Aerial Apparatus?

A

A fire fighting vehicle equipped with a hydraulically operated ladder, elevating platform, or other similar device for the purpose of placing personnel and/or water streams in elevated positions.

68
Q

Ifsta breaks down aerial fire devices into three categories which are?

A
  1. Aerial Ladder Apparatus
  2. Elevating Platform Apparatus
  3. Water Towers
69
Q

Aerial Ladder definition?

A

A power operated ladder that allows firefighters to easily climb and descend between the tip of the ladder and the turntable for either fire fighting or rescue operations.

70
Q

The working height for aerial ladders is measured how?

A

From the ground to the highest ladder rung with the ladder at maximum elevation and extension. North American made aerial ladders working height usually range from 50 to 135 feet.

71
Q

Main uses of aerial ladders are?

A

Rescue
Ventilation
Elevated Master Stream Application
Gaining access to upper levels of an emergency scene

72
Q

The three types of Elevating Platform Apparatus are?

A

Aerial Ladder Platforms
Telescoping Aerial Platforms
Articulating Aerial Platforms

73
Q

A platform leveling system is required so that the platform’s position is_____________ to the ground at all times.

A

Horizontal

74
Q

All elevating platforms are required to have two operator control stations at what locations?

A

One at street level.

One in the platform.

75
Q

All elevating platforms must have a minimum load capacity of _______lbs. when the aerial device is fully extended, and any elevation with no water in the piping system.

A

750 lbs.

76
Q

Elevating platform load capacity drops to _____lbs. when the water delivery system is charged, and must be capable of discharging _______gpm.

A

500 lbs.

1000 gpm.

77
Q

Elevating platforms that are 110 feet or less should be able to be raised from the bedded position to the maximum elevation and extension and be rotated 90 degrees in ______seconds or less.

A

150 Seconds.

No time requirement for platforms taller than 110 feet.

78
Q

Aerial ladder platforms are designed with a large ladder that allows firefighters and victims to…?

A

….climb in either direction on the ladder.

79
Q

Telescoping aerial platforms equipped with a small ladder attached to the_________, and is designed primarily as an emergency escape ladder for firefighters on the platform.

A

Boom

80
Q

Box beam construction consists of…

A

…four sides of steel or aluminum welded together to form a box shape with a hollow center.

81
Q

Tubular truss beam construction is welded to form a box shape using…

A

…cantilever or triangular truss design.

82
Q

Primary difference between a Telescoping Aerial Platform Apparatus and a Articulating Aerial Platform Apparatus?

A

Instead of telescoping into each other, the boom sections on a Articulating Aerial Platform Apparatus are connected by a hinge, and they fold and unfold like an elbow.

83
Q

The term “quint” is derived from the phrase…

A

“Quintuple Fire Apparatus” meaning an apparatus that has five major features or functions.

84
Q

Reasons for equipping an aerial apparatus with a pump.

A

Can be operated as a ladder company, and engine company, or both
Can supply its own elevated master stream
Can extinguish fires when an engine company is not present
Can protect itself in high radiant heat situations

85
Q

Base?

A

Bottom section of an aerial ladder

86
Q

Fly Sections?

A

Second and subsequent sections that extend beyond the base section.

87
Q

Base Rails?

A

The lower chords of the aerial ladder to which the rungs, trusses, and other portions of the ladder are attached. Also called beams.

88
Q

Rails?

A

Top chords to which the opposite ends of the trussing are attached. Also called the handrails.

89
Q

Rungs?

A

The portions that are attached between the two base rails and used as steps for personnel on the aerial ladder.

90
Q

A hydraulic system has three main components?

A
  1. Hydraulic fluid.
  2. Hydraulic pump.
  3. Hydraulic reservoir.
91
Q

When searching for leaks in a hydraulic system, why should extreme care be taken?

A

The fluid may be under pressures of 3,500 p.s.i. or more. Pinhole leaks are capable of cutting through human tissue and causing severe burns.

92
Q

Hydraulic Pump

A

Positive displacement - type pump that imparts pressure on hydraulic oil within the hydraulic system.

93
Q

Hydraulic Reservoir

A

Supplies the hydraulic fluid that is moved in and out of the system. Fluid displaced from the system flows back into the reservoir for storage before being recirculated through the system.

94
Q

Valve

A

Mechanical device with a passageway that controls the flow of liquid or gas.

95
Q

Check Valve

A

Automatic valve that permits liquid flow in only one direction.

96
Q

Relief Valve

A

Pressure control device designed to eliminate hazardous conditions resulting from excessive pressures by allowing this pressure to bypass to the intake side of the pump

97
Q

Counterbalance Valve

A

A three way valve that directs fluid to either the stabilizer control valves, or the aerial device control valves.

98
Q

Actuator Valve

A

Valve that controls the flow of hydraulic oil from an aerial apparatus hydraulic system to the hydraulic cylinders.

99
Q

Monitor Valve

A

Multidirectional valve used to control the flow of hydraulic oil through a hydraulick system.

100
Q

Stack Valve

A

Type of multidirectional valve used in an aerial device hydraulic system.

101
Q

Doulble Acting Cylinder

A

Hydraulic cylinder capable of transmitting power in either direction, or hydraulic cylinder capable of transmitting force in only two directions.

102
Q

Trunnion

A

In a hydraulic cylinder, the pivoting end of the piston rod that is connected to the anchor ear by the heel pin.

103
Q

Auxiliary Hydraulic Pump

A

Typically a 12-volt DC electrically operated pump connected directly the vehicles battery. Direct connection allows pump to be operated even if vehicles engine goes down. Use of these pumps should be limited to bedding the ladder after a main system failure.

104
Q

Turntable

A

The rotational structural component of the aerial device . Primary function is to provide continuous rotation on a horizontal plane.

105
Q

Two common types of pre-piped waterway systems?

A

Bed Ladder System - a non-telescoping section of pipe usually 3-3.5 inches in diameter attached to the underside of the bed section .
Telescoping Waterway System - Consists of three or four sections that reduce in diameter with the largest in the base section and the smallest in the fly section with a minimum diameter of 4 inches.

106
Q

Most telescoping waterway systems are capable of flows up to ?

A

1000 GPM

107
Q

Most ladder pipes should not be operated from an aerial position at ___ degrees. If possible, place the ladder between ___ and ___ degrees.

A

90 degrees.

70 and 80 degrees.

108
Q

When it is necessary to place a firefighter at the end of an aerial device during elevated master stream operations, which is safer, an elevating platform, or an aerial ladder?

A

The elevating platform is safer and has more working room than the aerial ladder.

109
Q

True or False…NFPA 1901 requires aerial devices to be equipped with breathing air systems.

A

False

110
Q

What is NFPA 1989?

A

Standard on Breathing Air Quality for Emergency Services Respiratory Protection.

111
Q

What is the most common power source used for emergency services?

A

Portable or Fixed Generators.

112
Q

What is an inverter?

A

A step-up transformer that converts the vehicle’s 12 or 24 volt DC current into 110 or 220 volt AC current.

113
Q

The most common type of electrical power cord used is the?

A

12-gauge, 3-wire type.

114
Q

The four most common type of hydraulic extrication tools used by rescue workers are?

A
  1. Spreaders
  2. Shears
  3. Combination spreaders/shears
  4. Extension rams
115
Q

NFPA 1901 contains the minimum requirement for ground ladders. What type 3 types of ladders must the complement include?

A

Attic Ladders
Roof Ladders
Extension Ladders

116
Q

NFPA 1901 establishes minimum requirements for forcible entry equipment that includes the following…

A

Flathead axes, pickhead axes, pike poles, plaster hooks, crowbars, claw tools, sledgehammers, hacksaws, keyhole saws, wrenches, hammers, snipes, pliers, screwdrivers,

117
Q

Positive pressure blowers are used to __________ the air pressure in a structure, and thus force out the by-products of ___________________.

A

Increase

Combustion.

118
Q

Common equipment found on aerial apparatus used for forcible entry and ventilation are…?

A

Rotary Saws.
Reciprocating Saws.
Chain Saws.

119
Q

Salvage and overhaul is the process of…

A

…protecting building contents from further damage caused by fire or extinguishing efforts (salvage), and seeking and extinguishing hidden fires (overhaul).

120
Q

Loss Control

A

The practice of minimizing damage and providing customer service through effective mitigation and recovery efforts before, during, and after an incident.

121
Q

Power equipment should be started __________ and inspected for readiness.

A

Daily

2018 App Test (12 decks)

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