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Ground School 222 > IFR Written > Flashcards

IFR Written Flashcards

1
Q

For a/c other than helicopters, what minimum weather conditions must be forecast for your ETA at an alternate airport that has a PRECISION approach procedure, with standard alternate minimums, in order to list it as an alternate for IFR flight?

A

600ft ceiling and 2sm visibility at your ETA

91.169

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2
Q

What is the 3rd fundamental skill in instrument flying?

A

Aircraft control! (Pitch, bank, and power)

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3
Q

What indication does the BALL in the turn coordinator provide?

A

Indicates the quality of the turn

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4
Q

Prior to using GPS waypoints for RNAV, what can you do to check the current status of the GPS database?

A

Compare the GPS database to the En Route Low Altitude chart. If they are the same, the GPS database is current!

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5
Q

What are the weather minimums for a flight at 10,500’ with a VFR-on-Top clearance during the day in class E airspace?

A 
5sm
1000' ft below
1000' ft above
1 mile horizontal
(91.155)
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6
Q

Do regulations permit you to act as PIC of an a/c in IMC if you hold a private pilot cert with ASEL, rotorcraft category, with helicopter ratings and instrument helicopter rating?

A

NO! You must have either an unrestricted ATP-airplance cert or an airplane instrument rating

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7
Q

What is the primary pitch instrument when ESTABLISHING a constant altitude standard rate turn?

A

ALTIMETER

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8
Q

If during an ILS approach under IFR, the approach lights are not visible upon arrival at the DH, what do you do?

A

Immediately execute the missed approach procedure

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9
Q

What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using a VOT?

A

+/- 4 degrees

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10
Q

What is the maximum tolerance allowed for an operational VOR equipment check when using an airborne checkpoint?

A

+/- 6 degrees

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11
Q

Military training routes above 1,500’ are depicted on:

A

IFR Low Altitude En Route Charts

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12
Q

Reception of signals from an off-airport radio facility may be inadequate to identify the fix at the designated MEA. In this case, which altitude is designated for the fix?

A

MRA (Minimum Reception Altitude) - the lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined, assigned to fixes with an MEA

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13
Q

What are the 3 skills used in instrument flying (in order)

A
  1. Cross-Check
  2. Instrument Interpretation
  3. Aircraft Controls
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14
Q

When an alternate airport is required, what are the weather minimums that must be forecast at the ETA for an alternate airport that has a PRECISION approach procedure?

A

600ft ceiling and 2sm visibility at your ETA

91.169

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15
Q

If the pilot loses visual reference while circling to land from an instrument approach and ATC radar service is not available, the missed approach action should be to:

A

Follow the missed approach specified for that particular procedure - Make a climbing turn toward the landing runway and continue the turn until established on the missed approach course

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16
Q

If you are departing from an airport where you cannot obtain an altimeter setting, what should you set your altimeter to?

A

To the current airport elevation

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17
Q

The rate of turn at any airspeed is dependent upon:

A

The HORIZONTAL lift component!

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18
Q

Centrifugal force acts against:

A

The horizontal component of lift/the turn

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19
Q

When flying a GPS approach procedure, what effect will overriding an automatically selected sensitivity have?

A

It will cancel the approach mode annunciation

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20
Q

The pilot in command of a civil aircraft must have an instrument rating only when operating:

A

Under IFR, in weather conditions less than the minimum for VFR flight or in Class A airspace

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21
Q

Prior to conducting “timed approaches from a holding fix,” what is required?

A

The airport where the approach is to be conducted must have a control tower in operation

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22
Q

When the approach procedure involves a procedure turn, the maximum speed should be no greater than:

A

200 KIAS!

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23
Q

During a WAAS GPS approach, you receive an LNAV+V annunciation on the GPS display. What should you do?

A

Descend to LNAV approach minimums using the barometric altimeter to comply with altitude restrictions, referencing advisory vertical guidance as an aid - the altimeter remains the primary altitude reference - LNAV+V is advisory in nature and is not approved for vertical guidance!

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24
Q

To meet the minimum instrument experience requirements, within the last 6 calendar months you need:

A
  • 6 Instrument Approaches
  • Holding Procedures
  • Intercepting and Tracking courses in the appropriate category of a/c
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25
Q

To ensure proper airspace protection while in a holding pattern, what is the maximum airspeed above 14,000’ for civil turbojet a/c?

A

265 knots!

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26
Q

What is the maximum speed for civil turbojet in holding patterns between 6,001’ to 14,000’

A

230 knots!

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27
Q

How can a pilot determine if a GPS installed in an a/c is approved for IFR en route and iFR approaches?

A

Flight Manual Supplement - a supplement to the a/c’s POH

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28
Q

What does the symbol T within a black triangle in the minimums section of the IAP for a particular airport indicate?

A

Takeoff minimums are not standard and/or departure procedures are published! - Consult the alternate takeoff procedure.

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29
Q

When operating under IFR with a VFR-on-Top clearance, what altitude should be maintained?

A
  • A VFR cruising altitude appropriate to the magnetic course being flown and as restricted by ATC
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30
Q

When operating in VMC with an ATC authorization to maintain VFR-on-Top, what 3 things are pilots on IFR flight plans required to do?

A
  1. Fly are the appropriate VFR altitude
  2. Comply with the VFR visibility and cloud dist. criteria
  3. Comply with instrument flight rules that are applicable tot he flight (Min. IFR altitudes, position reports, clearnaces, etc.)
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31
Q

What cruising altitude is appropriate for VFR on Top on a westbound flight below 18,000’?

A

EVEN thousand-foot levels + 500, but never below MEA

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32
Q

During coordinated turns, what force moves the pendulous vanes of the vacuum-driven attitude indicator, resulting in precession of the gyro toward the inside of the turn?

A

Centrifugal

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33
Q

If the a/c’s transponder fails during flight within Class B airspace, what might ATC do?

A

Tell ATC!
ATC may authorize deviation from the transponder requirement to allow a/c to continue to the airport of ultimate destination.

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34
Q

One characteristic that a properly functioning gyro depends upon for operation is the:

A

Resistance to deflection of the spinning wheel or disc (RIGIDITY)

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35
Q

What is the IFR fuel requirement?

A

The amount of fuel required to fly to the destination airport, then to the alternate, plus 45 mins reserves!

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36
Q

The time entered in block 12 (fuel on board) of an IFR flight plan should be based on what fuel quantity?

A

Total usable fuel on board!

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37
Q

When using de-icing boots, the pilot should:

A

Activate the de-icing system at the first indication of icing and do so in accordance with the manufacturers guidance

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38
Q

A pilot has an IFR flight plan for July 10 of this year, what is the earliest date the pilot can meet the IFR experience requirements w/o having to take an IFR proficiency check?

A

January 10 of this year (within the preceding 6 calendar months)

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39
Q

For planning purposes, what is the highest usable altitude for an IFR flight on a VOR airway?

A

17,000’ (the VOR airway system consists of airways designated from 1,200’-17,999’)

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40
Q

If a DME becomes inop, what will the airborne DME do/indicate?

A

It will not transmit a coded identification audio tone…however a signal may still be received

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41
Q

What happens to residual ice that remains after de-ice boots are inflated and shed ice?

A

Residual ice increases with a decrease in airspeed or temperature

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42
Q

A particular VOR station is undergoing routine maintenance. This is evidenced by:

A

Removal of the identification feature (morse code tone) since navigation signals may still be transmitted

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43
Q

When using GPS for navigation and IAPs, any required alternate airport must have:

A

An approved operational instrument approach procedure other than GPS

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44
Q

How is a SKIDDING turn indicated on a turn coordinator?

A

The Ball will be rolled to the OUTSIDE of the turn (mini airplane banked in one direction, and ball is on the other side)

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45
Q

Using an average GS of 90 knots, what constant rate of descent from 3,100’ MSL at the 6 DME fix would enable the a/c to arrive at the FAF at 2,400’ MSL? (There are 3nm between 6 DME and the FAF)

A
  • 700 feet to be lost in 3nm at 90 knots
  • At 90 knots the a/c will cover 1.5nm per min, or 3nm in 2 mins
  • 700’/2 = 350ft/min
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46
Q

The use of certain portable electronic devices is prohibited on a/c that are being operated under:

A

IFR!

47
Q

What does a low (all red) indication from a PAPI lighting system tell us?

A

That we are on a glideslope of less than 2.5 degrees

48
Q

Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation of:

A

Rising or falling (vertical movement)

49
Q

If a pilot elects to proceed to the selected alternate airport, which minimums apply for landing at the alternate?

A

The published landing minimum for the approach to be used

50
Q

Fog is usually prevalent in industrial areas because:

A

An abundance of condensation nuclei from combustion products

51
Q

What precipitation type normally indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?

A

Ice pellets!

52
Q

While flying on an IFR flight plan, you experience 2-way radio communication failure while in VFR conditions. In this situation you should:

A

Continue your flight under VFR and land as soon as practicable

53
Q

You have not been cleared for the approach, but you are being vectored to the ILS approach course. It is clear you will pass through the localizer course unless you take action, so what should you do?

A

CONTINUE AS ASSIGNED and query ATC (question)

54
Q

What minimum navigation equipment is required to complete the VOR/DME-A procedure?

A

One VOR recover and DME

55
Q

The displacement of a turn coordinator durning a coordinated turn will:

A

Increase as angle of bank increases (because the turn coordinator shows RATE of turn, which increases with increased bank angle!)

56
Q

Acceptable navigational signal coverage at the MOCA is assured for a distance from the VOR of only:

A
  • 22nm (ensures acceptable nav coverage only within 22nm of the VOR)
  • MOCA (minimum obstruction clearance altitude)
57
Q

Where would you see the first sign of ice build up

A

The pitot tube! (Any small extensions)

58
Q

Precision Runway Monitoring (PRMs) is:

A

RADAR system for monitoring approaches to closely spaced parallel runways

59
Q

Which condition during taxi is an indication that an attitude indicator is unreliable?

A

The horizon bar tilts more than 5 degrees while making taxi turns

60
Q

If the ILS outer marker is inop, you may substitute:

A

A compass locator or precision radar

61
Q

Widespread sand and dust storms lowering the vis to less than 3 miles would call for what kind of weather report?

A

SIGMET (WS) ~severe turbulence, icing, dust, sand or volcanic ash lowering vis below 3 miles

62
Q

When more than one circuit of the holding pattern is needed to lose altitude or become better established, the additional circuits can be made if:

A

The pilot advises ATC and ATC approves

63
Q

What does STARs facilitate?

A

STARs facilitate the transition between the En Route portion of flight, and the IAP

64
Q

What is true regarding Supercooled Large Droplets (SLD) and their accumulation?

A

SLD can accrue aloft even if the droplets are not being observed at the surface

65
Q

Frontal waves (Low pressure) normally form on:

A

Slow moving cold fronts or stationary fronts

66
Q

The strength and location of the jet stream is normally:

A

Weaker and farther north in the summer

67
Q

During recoveries from unusual attitudes, level flight is attained the instant:

A

The altimeter and airspeed needles stop prior to reversing their direction

68
Q

When is an IFR flight plan required?

A

11

69
Q

Fair weather cumulus clouds often indicate:

A

14

70
Q

When tracking inbound on the localizer, which of the following is the proper procedure regarding drift corrections?

A

15

71
Q

If you are planning an IFR flight below FL180 and you are using VOR navigation to define the route, the max distance between NAVAIDs should be:

A

80NM (bc VOR facilities have a range of 40nm from 1,000’-14,500’)

72
Q

While flying a 3 degree glideslope, a constant tailwind shears to a calm wind. What conditions should the pilot expect?

A

22

73
Q

Which information is always given in an abbreviated departure clearance?

A

27

74
Q

If an EARLY missed approach is initiated before reaching the MAP, what procedure should be used unless otherwise cleared by ATC?

A

Proceed to the MAP at or above the MDA/DH before executing a turning maneuver

75
Q

What causes surface winds to flow across the isobars at an angle rather than parallel to the isobars?

A

SURFACE FRICTION

76
Q

For maintaining level flight at a constant speed what instrument would be the least appropriate for determining the need for a pitch change? - VSI, Attitude Indicator, or Altimeter?

A

ATTITUDE Indicatir

77
Q

Test data indicates that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to sand paper on the surface of an airfoil can reduce lift by as much as ___ and increase drag by ___

A
  • Reduce lift by as much as 30%

- Increase drag by 40%

78
Q

What fraction of the time do clouds/storms need to be present to have it be considered “OCNL”

A

1/8 - 4/8 coverage

79
Q

What are some characteristics of unstable air?

A

Turbulence and GOOD SURFACE VISIBILITY

80
Q

To ensure situational awareness while using an autopilot system pilots much verify:

A

That the a/c is tracking the intended flight profile

81
Q

Under what condition will Pressure Altitude be equal to True Altitude?

A

When ALL standard atmospheric conditions exist

82
Q

The presence of standing lenticular altocumulus clouds is a good indication of:

A

Very strong turbulence

83
Q

An air mass is a body of air that:

A

Covers an extensive area and has fairly uniform properties of temperature and moisture

84
Q

What does a brown colored airport on an IFR En Route chart indicate?

A

That there is no published IAP

85
Q

If there is an airport depicted below a federal airway on an IFR En Route chart, what airspace is the airport located in?

A

Unless otherwise depicted, Class G would exist at the surface (Federal Airways are Class E starting at 1,200’ AGL and extending upward to 17,999’)

86
Q

When conducting a missed approach, what altitude becomes your MSA while maneuvering between the runway and the missed approach destination?

A

The altitude designated in the MISSED approach instructions (“climbing turn to ____’ “ “climb to ___’ “)

87
Q

The RVR minimums for takeoff or landing are published in an IAP, but the RVR is inoperative and cannot be reported for the runway. What minimums do you use?

A

RVR minimums which are specified in the IAP should be converted and applied as ground visibility and used as the new visibility minimum for takeoff/landing

88
Q

What should be the indication on the MC when you roll into a standard rate turn to the left from a south heading in the northern hemisphere?

A

The compass will indicate a turn to the left at a faster rate than is actually occurring (overshoot)

89
Q

The Glide Path Qualification Surface (GQS) limits the height of obstructions between:

A

DA and the runway threshold

90
Q

A characteristic of the stratosphere is:

A

Relatively small changes in temperature with an increase in altitude

91
Q

A jet stream is defined as wind of __ knots

A

50+

92
Q

What feature is associated with the tropopause?

A

Abrupt change in temperature lapse rate

93
Q

With a WARM front, when is the most critical period for low level wind shear?

A

BEFORE the front passes the airport

94
Q

Where do squall lines most often develop?

A

Ahead of cold fronts

95
Q

What instruments are primary for pitch, bank, and power respectively when transitioning into a constant airspeed climb from straight and level?

A
  1. Attitude Indicator
  2. Heading Indicator
  3. Manifold Pressure/Tachometer
96
Q

How do you read a steam gauge altimeter? (Long hand, short hand, thin hand)

A

Long hand = 100s
Short hand = 1,000s
Thin hand = 10,000s

96
Q

On what headings will the magnetic compass read most accurately during a level 360 degree turn with 15 degrees of bank?

A

When on a heading of 090 and 270

97
Q

How does Baro-VNAV provide vertical guidance during an RVAV approach?

A

Baro-VNAV uses defined vertical angles or altitudes as fixes

98
Q

What does the mini a/c of the turn coordinator display?

A
  • First the rate of bank, and once stabilized, the rate of turn
  • Rate of roll and rate of turn
99
Q

While cruising at 190 knots, you wish to enter a climb at 160 knots. When entering the climb, it would be proper to make the initial pitch change by increasing back pressure until:

A

The attitude Indicator shows the approximate pitch appropriate for the 160 knot climb (controlled performance)

100
Q

Errors in both pitch and bank indication on an altitude indicator are usually at a maximum as the a/c rolls out of a ___ degree turn

A

180 degree turn

101
Q

During recoveries from unusual attitudes w/o the aid of the attitude Indicator, level pitch attitude is attained the instant:

A
  1. ASI stop moving
  2. Altimeter stops moving
  3. VSI reverses its trend
102
Q

By what means may a pilot check if a LORAN-C equipped a/c is approved for IFR flight?

A

Check the Airplane Flight Manual Supplement

103
Q

What is the meaning of a single-coded identification received once, every 30 seconds, from a VORTAC?

A
  • DME component is operative

- VOR component is inoperative

104
Q

During a SKIDDING turn to the right, what is the relationship between horizontal lift, centrifugal force, and load factor?

A
  • Centrifugal force > Horizontal lift

- Load factor increases

105
Q

A/c operating under IFR with TSO-C129/C196 GPS for en route navigation must also have:

A

The avionics necessary to receive appropriate NAVAIDs along the route

106
Q

How much displacement do the dots on an HSI show?

A

VORs: 200’ per dot per NM
30nm away: 1nm per dot
60nm away: 2nm per dot

107
Q

When airspeed is increased in a turn, what must be done to maintain a constant altitude?

A

Increase angle of bank, decrease angle of attack!

108
Q

What angular deviation from a VOR course centerline is represented by full scale deflection of the CDI?

A

10 degrees

109
Q

When checking a dual VOR system by use of VOT, where should the tail of each indicator point to indicate the VORs are satisfactory?

A

The tails of each RMI should point to 360, +/-4 degrees

110
Q

Under what condition is pressure altitude and density altitude the same?

A

At standard TEMPERATURE

111
Q

To level off at an airspeed higher than the descent speed, at what altitude should additional power be added?

A

100’-150’ above the desired altitude

112
Q

A/c using TSO-C129/C196 GPS for navigation and IAPs must have what what type of approach available at a required alternate?

A

An approved IAP other than GPS

Ground School 222 (5 decks)

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