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B200,BE4W limitations and memory items, OPC and IPC prep > IFR part 135 > Flashcards

IFR part 135 Flashcards

1
Q

What’s the validity of an IPC

A

12 months from the end of the month that the last IPC was done
- Can do 3 months early and validity will go from original date

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2
Q

What is the privileges of an instrument rating

A

Authorises you to pilot an aircraft under IFR or night VFR

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3
Q

What’s the privileges of an ATPL

A

Allows you to pilot an aircraft as pilot in command or co pilot

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4
Q

What’s the limitations of an instrument rating

A
  1. Conduct an instrument approach only if the aircraft is equipped for that kind of operation
  2. If single pilot, must have at some time in the past, passed a instrument flight test or IPC in single pilot aircraft
  3. If you want to circle, must have passed flight test in the last 12 months that included circling or latest IPC or OPC (that covers IFR ops and conducted by examiner holding inst rating flight test endo) included circling.
    3.1 - Participating in operator check and training that includes circling
  4. Conduct a IAP only if the holder has conducted training in and demonstrated competency in that approach to CASA or examiner.
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5
Q

What are the limitations of an ATPL

A

Basically the same as instrument rating, however you do not need instrument rating to fly IFR with ATPL, just IPC or OPC(if participating in company check and training and check is with examiner with instrument rating test endo)
2. If you only have proficiency check because your under C and T program, its only valid for that operator

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6
Q

What’s the recency requirements to fly IFR

A

1.Conducted 3 approaches in 90 days
2.for category - 1 in 90 days
3.For 2d - 1 in 90 days
4.For 3d - one in 90 days
5.For azimuth - 1 in 90 days
6. For CDI - 1 in 90 days

OR

Completed OPC that cover IFR in the previous 3 months
or
Participating in check and training

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7
Q

What are the single pilot recency requirements

A

1 flight or simulated flight in the last 6 months that:
- at least one hour in duration
- includes one instrument approach

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8
Q

What are the 3d approaches

A
  1. ILS
    2.LNAV/VNAV
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9
Q

What are 2d approached

A

1.VOR
2.Loc
3.RNP LNAV
4. NDB
5. DME GNSS arrival

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10
Q

What’s Azimuth approaches

A
  1. NDB
  2. DME GNSS arrivals using ADF
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11
Q

What’s CDI approaches

A
  1. VOR
  2. LOC
    3.ILS
    4.RNP LNAV and LNAV/VNAV
  3. DME GNSS arrival using VOR
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12
Q

When must valid QNH be set for IAP and which locations QNH must be set

A
  1. Before passing the IAF
  2. Must be aerodrome QNH, forecast(TAF) QNH or area QNH
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13
Q

What are the valid sources for actual QNH

A
  1. ATIS,AWIS, ATC or BOM approved met observers
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14
Q

When the minima is shaded on a government chart what does it mean?

A

Minima is based on forecast QNH , subtract 100ft for actual QNH and add 50ft if using area QNH

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15
Q

How long is an actual QNH obtained from a approved source valid

A

15min

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16
Q

Can you operate an aircraft with installed equipment inoperative?

A

Yes, but only in accordance with :
- MEL
-CDL
-NAD
-PU

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17
Q

What are the cockpit and cabin lighting requirements

A
  1. Equipment illumination incl checklists and documents
  2. compatible with each item of equipment
  3. Can read all placards,instrument markings in normal position, eyes shielded from direct or reflected light
  4. Variable intensity
  5. Cabin lights for seatbelt,oxygen normal and emergency
  6. Independent portable light for each FCM
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18
Q

What are the anti col lights requirements

A

1 red beacon or 2 white strobes or combination

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19
Q

How many landing lights do we need

A

2 or 1 if with 2 independent and separate illumination sources

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20
Q

What are the actions for lost coms under IFR

A
  1. Squak 7600
  2. Transmit blind
  3. listen out on voice modulated aids

IF VMC

  • Remain VMC and land at most suitable airport

IF not and have not received a clearance limit

  • Climb in accordance with last clearance

If clearance limit of altitude or position:

  • hold altitude or lowest safe for 3 min then climb in accordance with last clearance
  • hold at position for 3 min then continue with last clearance
  • if holding complete one more hold then proceed with clearance
    if being VECTORED maintain assigned altitude or lowest safe for 2 min then proceed with latest clearance.

Descend in accordance with SOP or normally to IAP initial altitude:

  • If uncontrolled and satisfied its safe - land
    If controlled and in receipt of landing clearance via voice modulated aid or light signals land
  • if cant land proceed to alternate
  • if you cant continue to hold
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21
Q

What does the light signals mean on the ground?

A
  • Green is clear takeoff
  • flashing green - clear taxi
  • red - stop
  • flashing red - taxi clear of runway
  • flashing white - return to start point
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22
Q

What does light signals in air mean

A

red - continue circling give way to traffic
flashing red - unsafe do not land
green - clear to land
flashing green - return for landing

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23
Q

How do you acknowledge light signals

A

on ground during day - move ailerons and rudder
on ground during night - flash landing lights twice or if no landing lights nav lights

inflight during day - rock wings
inflight at night - flash twice landing lights or if none nav lights

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24
Q

Whats the standard takeoff factor and what is it applied to?

A
  1. 1.25 below 5.7 T and applied to takeoff run only. Take of distance is unfactored,
  2. Above 5.7T , use part 121 performance through genesis
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25
Q

Whats VMC in class C and E

A
  1. 5km vis below 10,00ft, 8km above
  2. 1000ft vertically from cloud
  3. 1.5km horizontally
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26
Q

Whats VMC in class D

A

5km vis
600m horizontally from cloud
1000ft above cloud
500ft below cloud

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27
Q

Whats VMC in class G

A

5km vis, 8km above 10,000ft
1000ft vertically from cloud
1.5km horizontally from cloud
Below 3000ft amsl or 1000ft agl(whichever is higher) = clear of cloud in sight of ground or water if radio carried and used.

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28
Q

What are the remote islands part 135?

A

Norfolk
Christmas
Cocos
Lord howe

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29
Q

What is the significance of remote islands

A

Must nominate a destination alternate that is not a remote island

Can be remote island if operator holds an approval

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30
Q

What does additional fuel mean

A

Fuel required from your critical point should you have an engine failure or DP to a alternate and 15min holding at 1500ft above the aerodrome elevation in isa conditions.
And to make an approach and landing

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31
Q

How much is contingency fuel

A
  • company requirement pre flight is 10 percent of trip fuel (can reduce to 5percent with HOFO approval)
  • Once airborne and continue normally is 5 percent.
  • continue safely is 0 percent
  • Minimum is 5min At 1500ft aal in isa conditions
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32
Q

What does destination alternate fuel include

A

-Fuel from the missed approach at your destination to the approach and landing at your alternate

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33
Q

What does trip fuel include?

A

-Fuel from takeoff (including SID) to approach and landing (including star)

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34
Q

What does taxi fuel include

A
  • Amount of fuel expected to be used before takeoff
  • APU fuel if applicable
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35
Q

Do we need fuel for an IFR approach

A

Yes,5 min at holding is company requirements, however, not in regs

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36
Q

When must you declare minimum fuel

A

1.When your committed to landing at the aerodrome
2. If any change to your current clearance will cause you to land below final reserve

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37
Q

When do you have to declare mayday,mayday,mayday fuel

A

When you are going to land at the nearest safe aerodrome with less than final reserve

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38
Q

What GNSS equipment do you need

A

Either:

2 x 145 or better or
1 145 and ADF or VOR ( can be 129 if ac older than feb 2014 and equipment installed before Feb 2014)

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39
Q

Do we need an autopilot

A

Yes for single pilot unless day VMC

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40
Q

What are the alternate requirements for aids

A

Alternate must be planned at night for destination aerodrome if it has no instrument approach, or one you cant use

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41
Q

Whats the alternate minima

A

Day for aerodrome without instrument approach = last segment wx is above LSALT plus 500ft and 8km vis
- Instrument approach aerodrome that the pilot can use = as published on charts

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42
Q

If you only have a 129 GPS. can you navigate to alternate using GPS?

A

No

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43
Q

Whats the night VFR alternate requirements

A

Need an alternate within one hour of destination unless:

  • You a radio aid and appropriate equipment you can use OR
  • You have approved GNSS (129 and up)
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44
Q

How long does a TAF have to valid for you to use it

A

30min before until 1hour after your ETA

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45
Q

Do you need a alternate if you dont have an aerodrome forecast?

A

Yes, unless it doesnt have a instrument approach, then a GAF is acceptable, however, if you then need an alternate, it need a taf

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46
Q

Whats the lighting alternate requirements

A

If you have portable lights, you need an alternate OR responsible person
- If you have no standby power, you need portable lights and responsible person OR alternate
- if its PAL you need alternate or resposible person
- Alternate can only be PAL if you have duel VHF, or HF/VHF and 30min holding

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47
Q

What is the time frames that runway lights must be switched on?

A

30min before ETA until after taxi
- 10 Min before departure until 30min after

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48
Q

How recent before a flight must you get weather

A

No more than 1 hour old

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49
Q

What forecasts do you need for a flight?

A

-below 10,000ft a GAF
- Above, a sigwx
-TAF (can use GAF if no IAP)
-Wind and TX forecast

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50
Q

Can you depart without a weather forecast?

A

Yes, If:
- A forecast is not available AND
-Weather is such that you can make a safe landing back at the departure aerodrome for up to 1 hour after departure.

You must return to the departure aerodrome if:

-You dont obtain a forecast within 30min after takeoff
- You have not nominated an alternate

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51
Q

What are the pros of a TAF3?

A
  • No 30min buffer on your start and end of relevant weather (if ETA within the first 3 hours of TAF)
  • prob for visibility and thunderstorms with their associated turbulence can be disregarded (if ETA is within first 3 hours of TAF
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52
Q

What do you do if your enroute with no alternate required, and you get a updated forecast that now requires an alternate?

A
  • You have to land somewhere safe if you cannot land at planned destination OR
  • if within 30min of planned dest and weather is above landing minima, you can continue OR
  • You have fuel to hold for 30min after forecast weather is below alternate minima. Eg weather is forecasted below landing min, but will improve, you can hold for 30min after the forecasted improvement
53
Q

When can you use special alternate minima

A

When you have duel approach capabilities eg:

  • 2 vor,
  • 2 GP
  • 2 LOC an either
    2 gnss or 2 DME or one of each
  • You have control services and METAR/SPECI or forecasting services
54
Q

What the part 135 takeoff alternate min

A

at ETD and up to an hour after, if the weather is below landing minima or for any other reason you cannot return to the aerodrome, you need an alternate for takeoff that:

  • is within 1 hours flight single engine ISA conditions, nil wind
  • the weather at alternate is above landing minima for at least an hour after takeoff
55
Q
A
56
Q

Does takeoff alternate apply to medical operations

A

Not if:

  • when the flight begins, you have sufficient fuel to make it to planned destination or alternate
57
Q

whats the altimeter checks limitiations

A

Must read to within 75ft of known elevation BUT

one can be between 60ft and 75ft,and be rechecked at next destination (with HOFO approval)

58
Q

What are the accurate sources for QNH

A

ATIS,AWIS,ATC approved met observer

59
Q

What’s the takeoff minima

A
  • Whatever is in the jepps. Normally 800m but can be reduced under following conditions

single we are qualifying multi engine we can go to 550M and 0 ceiling provided:

we have centre line markings or lighting
- runway lights not more than 60m spaced (can find out from FAC)
- 1 sec swithover to standby power
- Day only in radio mandatory airspace if not ATC

60
Q

What should the altimeter setting be for all operations below transition altitude

A
  • area QNH
  • Current actual QNH from aerodrome within 100nm of you
61
Q

Where does the transition levels start

A
  • QNH greater or equal to 1013 = FL110
    Less than 1013 but greater that 997 = FL115
62
Q

What are the different hold entries

A

Sector 1 (parallel)
Sector 2 (offset)
sector 3 (direct)

63
Q

What are the holding speed limits

A
  • up to incl FL140 = 230(170 if approach is Cat A and B only)
  • up to incl FL200 = 240
  • above FL200 = 265
64
Q

what the standard outbound leg timings in a hold?

A

Normally says on chart.

  • Standard is - Up to incl FL140 = 1min
  • above FL140 = 1.5min
65
Q

When does an IFR approach ban apply?

A

If you have:

  • An ATC control service
  • RVR report for relevant runway.

You cannot descend below 1000ft AAL on the approach if the TDZ RVR is continually below landing minima

  • Despite this, if you are already below 1000ft AAL, you can continue
66
Q

When can you fly below LSALT

A

VMC by day
Visual approach or departure
Instrument approach or departure
ATC clearance
Takeoff or landing

67
Q

How do we work out Pilot calculated LSALT

A

For RNP 2, the area is 5NM around the aircraft

clearances are:

  • if charted obstacles above 360ft = 1000ft above obstacle
  • if below or no obstacles = add 1360ft
    1500ft min
68
Q

When can you continue below approach minimas

A
  • Visual reference can be maintained
  • Met minima is adhered to
  • continually in a position from which a landing on intended runway can be made using normal rates of descend and flight manoeuvres
69
Q

What are the requirements for a circling approach?

A
  • within prescribed circling area (can go to higher category)
  • have the minimum required weather
  • visual with contact with the runway environment
70
Q

When can you descend below minima on a circling approach

A

By day:

from anywhere in the circling area not below OCA until aligned with the runway

By night:

  • from downwind base or final, complete a continuous descend to the threshold using rates of descend and flight manoeuvres normal to the aircraft type
71
Q

When can you not circle

A

In the no circling area if NOT VMC during the day

72
Q

What are the different circling area sizes

A

Cat B = 2.66
Cat C = 4.2
Cat D = 5.28

73
Q

Whats cat B and C OCA

A

cat B = 300ft
cat C = 400ft

74
Q

what are the 2 reversal procedures

A

-45/180 is 1 to 3min out, 45 degree turn for 1min cat a and b, 1min 15sec cat c and d, then 180 degrees in the opposite direction inbound

  • 80/260 is outbound 1 to 3 min then 80 degree turn, followed by 260 degree turn in opposite direction
75
Q

What are the approach speed for cat b and c

A

Cat B : (Vat 91 to 120)

initial is 120 to 180
final is 85 to 130
reversal is 140
missed approach is 150
circling is 135

Cat C is : (Vat 121 - 140)

initial 160 to 240
final is 115 to 160
missed app is 240
circling is 180

76
Q

When will ATC give you a expected approach time during a hold

A

When the delay will be more than 6min

77
Q

Can you reduce or increase your aircraft category

A

You cannot reduce category due to reduced landing weights
- you must increase category if actual handling speeds are in excess of the category
- subject to approval by CASA you can lower your category

78
Q

What is Vat and how is it calculated

A

Indicated speed at threshold crossing

  • Vso at max weight times 1.3 for us
79
Q

When can you do a visual approach

A
  • Within or n 30nm of aerodrome
  • clear of cloud, in sight of ground or water
  • min 5km vis

At night, if being vectored, been given a MVA nd heading or tracking instructions to circling area or to intercept final

80
Q

When can you descend when youve been cleared a visual approach

A

By day - anytime, as long as you remain above min VFR altitudes and LL of CTA plus 500ft

by night:

Must maintain LSALT, DGA steps, MSA, CTA LL plus 500ft or last assigned alt if being vectored until in circling area, runway in sight or if no instrument approach 3NM runway in sight

  • 5nm final (7 if it has ILS) aligned with runway and not below slope on PAPI
  • 10nm final in the ILS (14nm runway 16L and 34L at Sydney) not below slope and within full scale azimuth deflection
81
Q

When can you manoeuvre off track on a visual approach

A

By day:

Within 5nm of runway

By night:

within circling area runway in sight or 3nm runway in sight with no approach

82
Q

What the landing minima for a precision approach

A

Whats on the chart except:

  • 800m - When TDZ RVR is not available OR approach lighting normally available beyond 420m from threshold is inoperative
  • 1200M UNLESS
  • the approach can be flown minima using AP, HUD or Flight director
  • high intensity runway edge lights are available
  • You have a failure warning system for primary heading and attitude reference
  • Approach lights normally available past 210M from threshold is operative
  • 1500m if approach lighting system normally available is inop

1.5 times RVR or VIS if you have a partial failure of lights at CONTROLLED aerodrome and it results in double spacing of runway lights

-

83
Q

Whats the landing minima for non precision approaches

A
  • what is stated on the chart except:

If the approach lighting normally available is inop, required vis plus the length of the approach lights normally available ( can look up in FAC and on jepps aswell

84
Q

Whats the careflight stable approach criteria

A

at either 1000ft agl for IMC or 500ft visual, you must meet the following criteria:

  • power setting appropriate for config, above idle
  • Vref plus 20, minus 0
  • only small pitch and heading changes required to maintain path
  • briefed landing configuration
  • sink rate not above 1000ft except for minor excursions
  • no sustained flight below glide path
  • above OCA untill aligned with runway
85
Q

When must you make a missed approach

A
  • Straight in approach cant be made using normal rates of descend and flight manouvres
  • Not visual at minima or MAP
  • RAIM warning after IAF
  • out if tolerance after final fix
  • failure of suspect aid below MSA
  • Loss if visual contact on circling approach

and for careflight:

not stable by must gates
- pilot calls go around below must gate
- suspect runway below 300ft
- Terrain caution or warning in anything other than day VMC
- Severe windshear

86
Q

What are the takeoff and landing recency requirements

A

3 takeoffs or landings in 90 days
- to be night current they must have been at night
- you have met the requirements if, in the last 90 days you have passed flight test for license or rating
- or passed relevent check that included 1 take off and landing ( must be at nigh to count for night)

87
Q

What the night VFR currency requirements

A
  • 1 take off and landing in 6months
  • or deemed competent by instructor who holds rating
88
Q

What TSO are our GPS and where do we find it?

A

Ops manual 2b6.1
al 145/146 compliant
- Garmin is 146c

89
Q

Whats the definition of a early start?

A

FDP that commences between 5am and 06:59am

90
Q

Whats the definition of late night operations?

A

Where FDP includes more than 30min between 2300 and 0530

91
Q

Whats the definition of a local night

A

8 consecutive hours which includes the hours between 2200 and 0500

92
Q

Which appendix of CAO 48.1 do we operate under?

A

appendix 4B - Medical operations
Can also operate under 4 - any operations

93
Q

If youre on standby and get called by LCU, is that duty?

A

Yes, any communication from careflight will count as 30min duty and shall be subtracted from FDP or duty until 8 hours after

94
Q

Whats the highest SP score you can have and still report for duty?

A

5

  • 6 or 7 you cannot commence duty.
  • if already commenced duty, you cannot do another flight.
  • stand down for a 6 is 3 hours sleeping accommodation
    7 is ODP
95
Q

How many early starts can you be rostered, and if you go over what are the conditions?

A

3 consecutive

  • on the 4th FDP reduces by 2 hours
  • on the 5th FDP reduces by 4 hours
96
Q

What can we increase our FDP to and what are the prerequisites

A
  • No more than 12 hours(14 multicrew)
  • Must have prior ODP of 12 hours
  • Following ODP min 12 hours
  • no more than 2 increases in 7days
  • must have 36 hours ODP in 7 days including 2 local nights
  • Approval required from Flight duty manager
97
Q

How many late night operations can we be rostered for before penalties apply

A
  • if we go 3 or more, we are limited to 40hours of duty in 168 hours
  • require a ODP of 36hours including 2 local nights in 168 hours
98
Q

What are the cumulative flight time limits

A

100 hours in 28 consecutive days
1000 hours in 365 consecutive days

99
Q

What are the cumulative duty limits

A

If you have had a ODP of 36 hours and 2 local nights you can do 60hours in 168

if you have not you are limited to 40 hours

100 hours in 336hours (14 days)

100
Q

Whats the ODP requirements for cumulative fatigue

A

For 14days - 36 hours incl 2 local nights

for21 days - 72 hours ODP incl 3 local nights

101
Q

Whats the standard ODP and can it be reduced?

A

12 hours, and yes, can be reduced IAW 48.1 with approval from flight duty ops

102
Q

How much can we split a duty by if we have resting accommodation

A
  • need min 2 hours rest plus commuting
  • can split by half rest time
  • max is 2 hours split
  • total FDP not more than 16 hours
103
Q

How much can we split a duty by if we have sleeping accommodation

A
  • Min 2 hours rest needed plus commuting
  • may be increased by duration of split
  • Max FDP of 16hours
104
Q

Do we need approval to split a duty

A

No

105
Q

Which report is required when extending duty

A

extension report ER Form

106
Q

If you position prior to a FDP, is it then part of your FDP?

A

Yes, must include positioning if you have FDP immediately after positioning

107
Q

If positioning after a FDP, is this included in your FDP

A

No, it is counted as duty.

108
Q

What does positioning the day prior to FDP count as?

A

Its not counted towards FDP or duty

109
Q

what are the 2 reasons for extending a FDP

A
  • unforseen operational circumstances
  • Urgent emergency/medical situation
110
Q

Whats the conditions of a unforeseen circumstances extension?

A

Require flight duty ops approval PRIOR to last leg of flight
- can only be extended by one hour
- ODP increases by 1hour for every 30min or part thereof that FDP is extended
- Where practical, must fill out act FORM

111
Q

Whats the conditions of a urgent medical extension

A

-Flight duty ops approval required
- MRC must declare as urgent or has to be P1/J1
- must fill out ACT form
- maximum extension of 4 hours
- max FDP of 16 hours
- Not exceed flight time limits
- ODP increased by 1 hour for every 30min or part thereof that FDP is extended

112
Q

What does S1 and S2 mean on the flight plan

A

S1 = RNP APRCH
S2= RNP APRCH with Baro-Nav

113
Q

What does O2 mean on a flight plan

A

RNP1 = GNSS

114
Q

what are ATC APRCH speeds

A

Speeds published on a star or IAP charts

115
Q

What are the requirements to keep a type rating recent?

A

For Careflight, in the last 24 months the pilot has:

  • Exercised the privileges of the rating in the aircraft model
  • Done a flight review (IPC or OPC counts if it includes the flight review requirements)
  • Need a valid IPC on a aircraft type - just needs to be on a ac that needs a type rating ( OPC covering IFR with examiner counts)
116
Q

Whats the recency requirements for part 135?

A

In the last 90 days a pilots must:

  • Have completed 3 take offs and landings
  • for night, they must be at night
  • takeoffs must be followed by climb to at least 500ft agl
  • Night covers day requirements
117
Q

What are the class D speed limits

A
  • 200kts below 2500 AAL within 4nm of aerodrome
118
Q

Whats Class C speed limits?

A

No speed limit

119
Q

What is the capture region for Intermediate fix

A

45 degrees

120
Q

What is the capture region for straight in IAF

A

70 degrees

121
Q

Whats the capture region for the side IAF

A

90 degrees

122
Q

When can you go straight into a approach that uses a nav aid

A
  • when you dont need to hold or lose height
  • when the inbound track is within 30 degrees of your track to the aid
123
Q

What speed can Cat B aircraft cross 5nm from the threshold without ATC notification or approval

A

145-160kts

124
Q

What does CAVOK mean

A

Cloud and visibility ok:
- Viz more than 10km
- No cloud below 5000ft or MSA
- No CB and no TCU

125
Q

When must you file a FL deviation report as per AIP?

A

If you exceed cleared level by 300ft or more

126
Q

When and how are we required to carry a life raft?

A

B400 - more than 400nm from landing area
B200 more than 100nm from landing area

-Must have a place for each passenger
-must have ELT
- Must be accessible

127
Q

What does RA1 mean

A
  • Pilot may flight plan through restricted area and under normal circumstances can expect a clearance
128
Q

What does RA2 mean?

A
  • Can only flight plan throught if its on a route specified in FPR or under agreement with controlling authority
  • Even then, clearance is not assured
129
Q

What does RA3 mean

A
  • CANNOT plan through restricted area and a clearance will not be given

B200,BE4W limitations and memory items, OPC and IPC prep (4 decks)

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