B400 OPC

Question 1

What does “warning” mean in the POH

Answer 1

If not followed could lead to personal injury, death, or severe damage to equipment

Question 2

Go through B400 flash cards

Answer 2

Go through B400 flash cards

Question 3

What does “caution” mean?

Answer 3

may result in damage to equipment if not followed

Question 4

What does “note” mean?

Answer 4

procedure or technique considered essential to emphasise

Question 5

How much thrust does the FJ44 -3ap develop

Answer 5

3031LBS at sea level and 25 degrees C

Question 6

Whats the max fuel we can practically upload

Answer 6

4800lbs can do 4900lbs but requires cool temps and overnight refuel

Question 7

When should you check the oil level

Answer 7

within 15min of shutdown

Question 8

When checking FMS legs, should you read from navlog and check CDU or read from CDU and read navlog?

Answer 8

Read from Navlog and check CDU

Question 9

How should Genises calcs be done between the two pilots?

Answer 9

Either independently and then compared OR completed together

Question 10

Whats the landing factor for a dry runway

Answer 10

May only use 60 percent of LDA

May reduce in flight to:
Must have 115percent LDA of LDR eg LDR is 1000m LDA must be 1150M

Question 11

Whats the landing distance required on a wet runway

Answer 11

LDA must be at least 115 percent of the 60 percent available for a dry runway EG. get dry runway figures and add 115percent

Question 12

When does a Genesis EO DP end

Answer 12

When Aircraft is above applicable MSA (usually 25nm)

Question 13

Are the GPS ‘s in OVS PBN compliant or Deemed, and what does it mean?

Answer 13

Compliant - aircraft are fitted with avionics including GNSS equipment that satisfies all requirements for
PBN airworthiness. The AFM or applicable supplement will clearly state that the aircraft is capable of the
required PBN elements for departure, enroute, arrival and approaches (RNP 10, 4, 2, 1, LNAV, Baro
VNAV, etc)

Question 14

How do you set the park brake in the B400

Answer 14

Pull handle down and out, then apply brakes (one way valve)

must be set from pilot side if engines not running

Question 15

What should the alt select be set to when on or cleared a visual approach

Answer 15

at least 2000ft AAL to avoid sporadic audio warnings

Question 15

Do we have a PEC for the B400

Answer 15

No, standby altimeter only, correction can be found in AFM

Question 16

When does thrust have to best by for a rolling start takeoff?

Answer 16

60kts

Question 17

how often should fuel checks be conducted enroute?

Answer 17

Every 30min if fuel critical (less than 30min holding) otherwise, every 60 min

Question 18

Whats the min airspeed in cruise?

Answer 18

180kts

Question 19

Whats the fuel efficient climb profile?

Answer 19

• no more than 200kts to 5000ft(advise ATC)
• 220kts from 5000ft to 10,000ft
• either 250kts or 220kts(long range) into M.64
• When not flying in the general direction of destination - 170kts
• Passing fl350, can accelerate to .70

Question 20

Whats the single engine service ceiling at max weight

Answer 20

Fl140

Question 21

For a flap zero landing, what speed do we use and how much extra runway can we expect to use over normal flap 30 vref

Answer 21

Up to 40 percent more runway and use flap 30 vref plus 20kts

Question 22

Whats the average fuel usage figure for the 400xt

Answer 22

1200lbs 1st hour, then
900lbs
850lbs

Question 23

Whats the OEI cruise speed and fuel flow

Answer 23

300kts TAS, FL210, 15,00lbs and ISA plus 10
-820lbs/hr
- Best to check Nextant POM

Question 24

Whats the DP rough fuel usage

Answer 24

Long range cruise at 10,000ft is rounded 1100lbs a hour. - TAS 260kts - ISA plus 20

Question 25

What could happen if you exceed the tailwind limit for starting?

Answer 25

- Hot start - ND annunciator

Question 26

Whats the maximum oil consumption for the FJ44

Answer 26

0.023Qrts/hr

Question 27

What the Min N2 for single engine gen operations in icing?

Answer 27

80 percent N2

Question 28

What do you get when you are down to standby power only?

Answer 28

-Standby instruments - RTU and Comm 1 - Headphones and hand mic - interphone wont work

Question 29

What is the maximum altimeter split in the afm for entering RVSM airspace

Answer 29

Ground - 80ft Flight - 200ft

Question 30

Can we disconnect the autopilot or flight director on a LNAV/VNAV approach?

Answer 30

- Autopilot or FD must be used -so can disc AP but have to use FD

Question 31

What are the icing condition above 20,000ft associated with convective activity defined as

Answer 31

- 5000ft above - Within 10nm horizontally - Visible moisture

Question 32

which power lever syncs to which and what are the parameters

Answer 32

left is master, must be within 3 degrees TLA - inhibited for TO and LDG - both engines must be in same bleed state

Question 33

what pressure should the hydraulic accumulator be

Answer 33

900psi +- 50-psi

Question 34

whats the max leakage rate for the hydraulics

Answer 34

one drop every 25 cycles or 2 drops a minute in the pressurised condition or 1000 to 1500psi

Question 35

when does the LH or RH pump press low annunciator come on (hydraulics)

Answer 35

15sec after system pressure dropped to 750 psi +- 100psi

Question 36

how many oxygen masks do we have onboard

Answer 36

12

Question 37

what the rough measurements for the wingspan and height

Answer 37

wingspan - 13.3m tail - 4.3m

Question 38

how long is the aircraft nose to tail

Answer 38

14.8m

Question 39

when should the starter cut out on start

Answer 39

between 35 and 45 N2, if not: thrust levers to cutoff, batt to emer, masters emer

Question 40

What does the inverters power

Answer 40

-pitch trim indicators -EGPWS -flap position ac shed indicator

Question 41

What speed should we fly for autopilot couples approaches

Answer 41

vref plus 5

Question 42

which trim motor does the autopilot use

Answer 42

emergency trim motor

Question 43

whats the lowest we can use the autopilot

Answer 43

200ft agl

Question 44

What n2 should you introduce the fuel if the crosswind or tailwind component exceeds 5kts

Answer 44

equal to or greater than 12 percent

Question 45

what should you do if after takeoff if taking off from slush or snow covered runway

Answer 45

cycle gear once or twice

Question 46

when will the wing anti-ice lights come on

Answer 46

after the wing anti-ice has come up to temp

Question 47

Whats the min n2 for wing anti ice

Answer 47

80 percent

Question 48

Whats the min N2 for the anti ice test

Answer 48

78 percent, check for rise in ITT and Check ignition light come on

Question 49

how much sweep does the b400 wing have

Answer 49

20degrees, 2.5 degrees dihedral

Question 50

whats the green arc for the nitrogen level

Answer 50

1350 to 1500psi

Question 51

When will the L or R BUS FDR FAIL illuminate

Answer 51

When one, feeder cable between main and load bus fails. Extinguishes when all 3 fail

Question 52

What happens to the no2 inverter when you lose the right load bus?

Answer 52

automatically received power from emer bus

Question 53

How long does the standby battery power its equipment

Answer 53

min of 30min

Question 54

How can the landing lights be retracted and switched off

Answer 54

automatically with gear retraction and can use switch

Question 55

What powers the emergency lights?

Answer 55

2 lead acid batteries. charged by emer bus when switch is in off or arm

Question 56

what kind of tanks are the fuselage tanks

Answer 56

non self healing bladder tanks in steel boxes

Question 57

Whats the flow rate of the mid fusalage transfer pumps

Answer 57

2,200lbs per hour each

Question 58

How many fuel probes do we have

Answer 58

12 4 in each wing tank 1 aft fus tank 2 mid fus 1 right forward tank

Question 59

how much oil between the fill and add level on the FJ44

Answer 59

approx 1 quart

Question 60

how many ignitors do we have and where are they located

Answer 60

2, at the 1oclock position