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IFR Flashcards

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1
Q

Speed restrictions (CAR 91.237)

A

When operating IFR in class D or G airspace, must not exceed 250kt IAS when 10,000ft AMSL or below.

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2
Q

IFR cruising altitudes (CAR 91.425 & ENR 1.7-7)

A

IFR aircraft cruising NOSE.
North = 270° to 089°
South = 090° to 269°

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3
Q

When is an IFR alternate required? (CAR 91.405)

A

Must nominate an alternate when +/- 1hr of the estimated time of landing:
- Cloud ceiling is at least 1000ft above DH/MDH of approach to be flown.
- Visibility is 5km or 2km above that required for the approach to be flown (whichever is higher).

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4
Q

IFR alternate aerodrome met
requirement (CAR 91.405 & ENR 1.5-44)

A

Conditions must be at or above the below met minima:
Precision approach:
- Ceiling 600ft, or 200ft about DA/DH (whichever is higher)
- Vis 3000m or 1000m above prescribed for the approach (whichever is higher)

Non-precision approach:- Ceiling 800ft, or 200ft about MDA/MDH (whichever is higher)- Vis 4000m or 1500m above prescribed for the approach (whichever is higher)

The aerodrome must have secondary power supply for the ground based navaid of the approach planned to be flown and aerodrome lighting for night operations.

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5
Q

When to advise ATC of change in ETA and speed (CAR 91.411 & ENR 1.1-4)

A

ETA to next reporting point changes greater than 2 minutes.
Variation in TAS +/-5% or mach +/-0.02

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6
Q

Operation below DA, DH or MDA (CAR 91.413 & ENR 1.5-33)

A
  • Aircraft is continuously in a position where a landing can be achieved in the touchdown zone of the intended runway using normal rates of descent and normal manoeuvres.
  • Aircraft can be manoeuvred within the circling area on a circling approach.
  • Visibility is not less than that prescribed for the approach being flown.
  • At least one of the following is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot; approach lighting system, threshold markings/lights, runway end indicator lights, VASI lights, touchdown zone markings/lights, runway markings/lights.
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7
Q

IFR takeoff minima (CAR 91.413 & ENR 1.5-11)

A

At or above specific IFR takeoff minima for the aerodrome.

If not published ceiling of at least 300ft and more than 1500m vis.

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8
Q

Reduced takeoff met minima (CAR 91.413 & ENR 1.5-11)

A

0ft cloud ceiling and at or above 800m vis.

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9
Q

Reduced takeoff met minima requirements (CAR 91.413 & ENR 1.5-11)

A
  • Runway has centre-line markings/lights.
  • Visibility can be confirmed by the pilot by observation of the centre-line markings/lights.
  • Reduced takeoff met minima is allowed in the AIP for the aerodrome.
  • Any obstacles in the takeoff path are taken into account.
  • Twin prop driven aircraft have an serviceable auto-coarse system.

Runway centreline markings are 120ft long and spaced 80ft apart.
Runway centreline lights are 50ft apart.

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10
Q

Minimum altitudes for IFR (CAR 91.423)

A

Aircraft must not operate below:
- Minimum altitudes in applicable AIP.
- Where no altitude is prescribed; a height of less than 2000ft above highest obstacle within a 5nm radius over mountainous terrain or 1000ft above highest obstacle within 5nm radius of aircraft elsewhere.

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11
Q

Maximum PBN cross track error/deviation (ENR 1.5-3)

A

-/+ half the navigation accuracy associated with the procedure. Eg; RNP 1, max deviation of 0.5nm.

Brief deviations of up to one times the navigation accuracy immediately after turns. Eg; 1nm for RNP 1.

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12
Q

Minimum height of obstacles taken into account for departure gradients IAW PANS-OPS II (ENR 1.5-4)

A

60m (200ft) above the departure end of the runway.

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13
Q

When climbing in an evaluated climb sector and crossing over multiple sectors, which sector applies? (ENR 1.5-6)

A

The highest gradient applies from takeoff.

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14
Q

When climbing in an evaluated climb sector and along a radial that divides two sectors, which sector applies? (ENR 1.5-6)

A

The lower climb gradient applies.

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15
Q

Prior to leaving an evaluated climb sector an aircraft must be established on what? (ENR 1.5-6)

A
  • On an evaluated route.
  • On a climb above VORSEC steps.
  • Under radar control, above minimum radar terrain.
  • At or above area MSA.
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16
Q

Generic SID performance requirements (ENR 1.5-9)

A
  • Minimum climb gradient of 3.3% (200ft/nm)
  • Climb on centreline to 400ft above departure end of the runway before commencing a turn.
  • Maximum 165kt IAS (Cat B) / 265kt IAS (Cat C) for turns during SID assuming 15° AOB.
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17
Q

Obstacle clearance for hold minimum heights (ENR 1.5-12)

A

1000ft, 2000ft over mountainous zones.

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18
Q

Cat C holding speeds (ENR 1.5-13)

A

14,000ft and below = 230kt & 280kt turb
14,000ft to 20,000ft = 240kt & 280kt/M0.8 turb
20,000ft to 34,000ft = 265kt & 280kt/M0.8 turb
Above 34,000ft = M0.83 & M0.83 turb

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19
Q

Cat B holding speeds (ENR 1.5-13)

A

14,000ft and below = 170kt & 170kt turb
14,000ft to 20,000ft = 240kt & 280kt/M0.8 turb
20,000ft to 34,000ft = 265kt & 280kt/M0.8 turb
Above 34,000ft = M0.83 & M0.83 turb

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20
Q

Hold outbound timing and when does it start (ENR 1.5-14)

A

Timing starts at the end of the turn or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later.

At or below 14,000ft = 1 minute
Above 14,000ft = 1.5 minutes

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21
Q

Hold turns (ENR 1.5-14)

A

25° or rate one turn (3°/second), whichever requires lesser bank.

Rate one turn = TAS/10 + 7

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22
Q

Tolerance between hold entry sectors (ENR 1.5-14)

A

-/+5° either side of sector boundary.

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23
Q

Sector 1 hold entry (ENR 1.5-15)

A

Parallel Entry:
On reaching the fix, turn to the reciprocal of the inbound and fly for the outbound time/limiting distance. Then turn to towards the holding side intercept the inbound.

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24
Q

Sector 2 hold entry (ENR 1.5-15)

A

Offset Entry:
On reaching the fix, turn to the 30° off the reciprocal of the inbound and fly for the outbound time/limiting distance. Then turn to intercept the inbound.

25
Q

Sector 3 hold entry (ENR 1.5-15)

A

On reaching the fix, turn to follow the hold pattern.

26
Q

When are you established in the hold? (ENR 1.5-17)

A

For sector 1 & 2 entries, upon crossing the fix the second time (after entry procedure reversal turn).

For sector 3 entry, upon initial crossing of the fix.

27
Q

Cat B speeds (ENR 1.5-28)

A

Vat = 91kt-120kt
Initial approach = 120kt-180kt
Final approach = 85kt-130kt
Circling = 135kt
Reversal procedure = 140kt
Missed approach = 150kt

28
Q

Cat C speeds (ENR 1.5-28)

A

Vat = 121kt-140kt
Initial approach = 160kt-240kt
Final approach = 115kt-160kt
Circling = 180kt
Missed approach = 240kt

29
Q

When cleared for an instrument approach, you are authorised to descend (unless given a restriction) to the minimum initial approach altitude IAW what? (ENR 1.5-21)

A
  • STAR
  • 25nm sector MSA
  • RNAV/RNP arrival
  • Route MSA/distance steps
  • VORSEC chart
  • TAA
30
Q

Tolerance allowing an aircraft to track direct outbound from the overhead for a base turn instrument approach (ENR 1.5-22)

A

-/+30° of the outbound course.

31
Q

Minimum obstacle clearance on DME arc (ENR 1.5-32)

A

1000ft (2000ft for mountainous areas) out to 2.5nm either side of arc, then clearance reduces linearly to 0ft another 2.5nm out.

32
Q

When must you execute a missed approach (ENR 1.5-34)

A
  • If at MAP, the pilot has not established visual reference with runway/landing aids.
  • During a circling approach the aerodrome is not distinctly visible at or above MDA.
  • Any time on final approach as directed by ATC.
33
Q

Minimum AOB for MAP (ENR 1.5-35)

A

15°

34
Q

Minimum climb gradient and obstacle clearance for missed approach (ENR 1.5-35)

A

98ft of obstacle clearance assuming a minimum of 2.5% climb gradient from MAP.

35
Q

Cat B, C & D circling areas (ENR 1.5-39)

A
  • Cat B = 2.66 NM
  • Cat C = 4.2 NM
  • Cat D = 5.28 NM

Arcs centred on the threshold of each usable runway, joined with tangents.

36
Q

Visual approach requirements (ENR 1.5-40)

A
  • Specifically states “Request visual approach”.
  • Can maintain visual reference to terrain.
  • The reported ceiling is not below that of the approve initial approach level, or;
  • The pilot reports at any time during the intermediate approach/approach that conditions will permit a visual approach and has reasonable assurance that a landing can be accomplished.
37
Q

Remote QNH calculation (ENR 1.5-43)

A

Add 5ft to the MDA for every 1 NM in excess of 5 NM.

Must not state “Use local QNH only”.

38
Q

Descent restriction during IFR approach to uncontrolled aerodrome with circuit traffic (ENR 1.5-46)

A

Do not descend below 1200ft AGL if integration with circuit traffic cannot be guaranteed.

39
Q

MEA (GEN 2.2-36)

A

Minimum Enroute Altitude: Lowest altitude at which adequate NDB signal can be received on an NBD route.

40
Q

MRA (GEN 2.2-37)

A

Minimum Reception Altitude: Lowest altitude at which adequate VOR signal can be received on a VOR route.

41
Q

MFA (GEN 2.2-37)

A

Minimum Flight Altitude: The lowest level at above the route MSA, MRA/MEA and upper limit of VHZ/Danger/Restricted areas.

42
Q

RAIM FD (ENR 4.3-1)

A

Fault detection compares PNT data derived from atleast 5 satellites. Provides warning of faulty satellite and that the system should not be used as a navigation solution.

43
Q

RAIM FDE (ENR 4.3-1)

A

Fault detection and exclusion needs a minimum of 6 satellite inputs to identify and remove a faulty satellite to continue providing a viable navigation solution.

44
Q

List of procedural aerodromes NZ (ENR 1.1-6)

A

Gisborne, New Plymouth, Napier, Nelson, Dunedin & Invercargill.

45
Q

When are position reports required enroute IFR (ENR 1.1-7)

A

Except when under radar control/identified:
- Over each compulsory reporting point and navaid, or at intervals not exceeding 30 minutes.
- Prior to entry into controlled airspace.
- On initial contact with each ATC unit/sector.
- As requested by ATC.

In addition, must report reaching or leaving assigned levels.

46
Q

When are position reports required during STAR and instrument approaches at controlled aerodromes? (ENR 1.1-8)

A
  • At point associated with commencement of the STAR.
  • Overhead the navaid prior to reversal turn.
  • Overhead navaid outbound for base turn.
  • Established on the DME arc.
  • Crossing IAF on GNSS approach.
  • Commencing base/procedure turn leading to final approach.
  • Established inbound from a DME arc/base turn.
  • Established inbound following radar vectors.
  • When crossing IF on GNSS approach.
  • When crossing final approach fix unless reported visual and been acknowledged.
  • When terrain becomes continually visible and instruments no longer required.
  • When commencing missed approach.
47
Q

Position reporting at unattended aerodrome IFR (ENR 1.1-11)

A
  • Overhead the navaid, commencing instrument approach or established in a DME arc.
  • When established on final approach.
  • Termination of instrument approach/proceeding VFR.
  • Breaking off to join circuit.
48
Q

Position reporting on departure into approach controlled airspace (ENR 1.1-6)

A
  • Callsign
  • Altitude (passing/climbing)
49
Q

Position report on departure procedural aerodromes (ENR 1.1-6)

A
  • Callsign.
  • Estimated set heading time.
  • Altitude (passing/climbing).
  • ETA to route starting waypoint.
50
Q

Vertical separation and RVSM (ENR 1.1-23)

A

Vertical separation between controlled flights 1000ft below FL290, and 2000ft above FL290. This can be reduced to 1000ft if both aircraft are RVSM approved.

The 1000ft may be reduced to 500ft in controlled airspace, if both aircraft are light-medium weight and the lower aircraft is VFR/SVFR at or below 4500ft.

51
Q

Speed requirement/tolerance under radar control (ENR 1.6-16)

A

+/- 10kt of speed required by ATC.

52
Q

Containment within controlled airspace is base on what climb/descent gradient on approaches, departures and missed approaches? (ENR 1.5-2)

A

5%

53
Q

Where does a SID originate from? (ENR 1.5-9)

A

16ft above the departure end of the runway.

54
Q

At what point does a SID terminate? (ENR 1.5-10)

A

When the aircraft is established on the cleared route.

55
Q

Obstacle clearance heights on circling approach (PANS OPS II)

A

A/B = 295ft
C/D = 394ft

56
Q

Visual approach by night requires? (ENR1.5-41)

A

Requires the pilot to sight the runways lights. The aerodrome beacon, REIL and approach lights are insufficient.

57
Q

Within what distance from touchdown will an approach controller not apply speed control (ENR 1.6-17)

A

Once past 5nm on an instrument approach or 4nm on a visual approach, a radar controller will not apply a speed restriction.

A clearance for a visual approach will terminate any ATC speed restriction unless specified in the clearance.

58
Q

Airway designators

A

H =
V =
Q =
Y =
W = Uncharted conventional

59
Q
A

AIR LAW (3 decks)

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