ID pharm lectures

Question 1

what is the antimalaria drug?

Answer 1

chloroquine

Question 2

what are the two CYP34A drugs?

Answer 2

isoniazid (TB) and chloroquine sulfate (malaria)

Question 3

what are 3 side effects of chloroquine sulfate?

Answer 3

1. reduced hearing
2. retinopathy
3. corneal opacities

Question 4

explain the saftey margin of cholorquine sulfate used for malaria?

Answer 4

narrow saftey margin

Question 5

what are the toxicities of cholorquine you see when outside of the narrow safety margin?

Answer 5

1. hypotension
2. arrhythmia
3. convulsions
4. coma

Question 6

is cholorquine effective for liver stage parasites?

Answer 6

NOPE!

Question 7

where is iodoquinol effective?

Answer 7

in the bowel lumen only so systemic absorption is not beneificial

Question 8

what can metronidazole be used to treat?

Answer 8

c. diff infections

Question 9

what are two things you need to keep in mind when using metronidazole?

Answer 9

1. metallic taste so warn the patient

2. causes DISULFRAM RXN when used with ethanol

Question 10

when should the antihelminth medendazole not be used?

Answer 10

in 1st trimester of pregnancy

Question 11

what percent of the oral antihelminth medendazole is absorbed?

Answer 11

less than 10% of the oral dose is absorbed

Question 12

what are the twoantiamebacides?

Answer 12

iodoquinol

metronidazole

Question 13

what is the drug class for iodoquinol?

Answer 13

halogenated hydroxyquinolone antiamebacide

Question 14

what is the drug class for metronidazole?

Answer 14

nitroimadazole antibiotic antiamebacide

Question 15

what are the two antihelmintic drugs?

Answer 15

1. mebendazole

2. praziquantel

Question 16

what should you educate your patients about who you prescribe permethrin?

Answer 16

tx may temporarily increase the itching because as the scabies die their breakdown cause increase itching

Question 17

where should permethrin be used?

Answer 17

externally topical use only!

Question 18

what eGFR should you not use nitrofurantoin below?

Answer 18

less that 60 ml/min

Question 19

what is the name of the drug that is a anti-pediculosis and anti-scabicide drug?

Answer 19

permethrin

Question 20

what is the name of the drug that is a urinary antiseptic?

Answer 20

nitrofurantoin

Question 21

what drug is on the BEERs list inapropriate for elderly patients?

Answer 21

nitrofuratoin

Question 22

what is the half life of nitrofuratoin?

Answer 22

20-60 mins

Question 23

what is the name of the 3 nucleoside drugs?

Answer 23

1. acyclovir
2. famcyclovir
3. valcyclovir

Question 24

when should you begin acyclovir for a varicella rash in an immunocomprimised patient?

Answer 24

within 24 hours of the rash

Question 25

when should you give acyclovir within for a zoster rash?

Answer 25

within 72 hours of the rash

Question 26

what is valcyclovir?

Answer 26

prodrug that is metabolized to acyclovir with 3-5x greater serum concentration of acyclovir

Question 27

what are the two drugs that are used for influenza A and are a M2 pump inhibitor?

Answer 27

amantadine | rimantadine

Question 28

what does amatadine contraindicated in psychosis?

Answer 28

because it relates to its dopamine effect

Question 29

Rimantidine is _____ times more active than amantadine

Answer 29

Rimantidine is 2-8x times more active than amantadine

Question 30

what are the two neuridase inhibitors?

Answer 30

oseltamivir | zanamivir

Question 31

what two drugs are used for the treatment and prophylaxsis of influenza A AND B?

Answer 31

oseltamivir | zanamivir

Question 32

when should you start osteltamivir?

Answer 32

within 24-48 hours of onset of symptoms

Question 33

what is the DOC for influenza?

Answer 33

oseltamivir

Question 34

who is zanamir contraindicated in? why?

Answer 34

those with underlying respiratory disease because it is an inhaled powder

Question 35

how is zanamir administrated? who does this pose a problem for?

Answer 35

admistered in diskus in powder difficult for elderly and those with respiratory condition

Question 36

when do you use zanamivir?

Answer 36

for ostelamivir resistance

Question 37

what is ribvarin usually combined with?

Answer 37

peglated interferon 2A

Question 38

what drug is a tetragen and therefore should not be used in pregnancy?

Answer 38

ribavarin

Question 39

explain the pregancy testing done for a patient taking ribavarin?

Answer 39

must be tested before every month during and for 6 months after administration of the drug

Question 40

what are the 6 HIV drugs?

Answer 40

1. lamivudine 2. delavirdine 3. darunavir 4. enfuvirtide 5. marviroc 6. raltegravir

Question 41

what is the antihepatitis B drug?

Answer 41

lamivudine

Question 42

what is the antihepatitis B or C drug (used for both)

Answer 42

pegylated interferon alfa 2a

Question 43

what are the 3 antihepatitis C drugs?

Answer 43

1. ribavirin 2. sofosbuvir 3. ledipasvir and sofosbuvir

Question 44

what happens with chronic use of lamivudine?

Answer 44

resistance goes up in chronic use

Question 45

where does the new antihepatitis drugs leave the use for pegylated interferon alfa 2a/

Answer 45

newer drugs will probally cause for very little need for interferon for Hep C tx now

Question 46

what virus does sofosbuvir + (rabavirin OR peg interferon) treat?

Answer 46

chronic Hepatitis genotype 1, 2, 3, 4

Question 47

what virus does sofosbuvir + ledipasvir treat?

Answer 47

chronic hepatitis genotype 1

Question 48

what is a contrindication when using sofosbuvir? why?

Answer 48

don't use with AMIODARONE severe risk of bradycardia

Question 49

is sofobuvir a tetragen? so what must you do?

Answer 49

yes it is! category X must test before every month during and 6 months after

Question 50

what is the problem with using both sofosbuvir or a drug with it in it? does it make it realistic?

Answer 50

ITS SO FREAKING EXPENSIVE!!! can cause $35,000 for a month so its not realistic to use for most patients but might become important down the road

Question 51

what are the two anti-TB drugs?

Answer 51

1. rifampin | 2. isoniazid

Question 52

what can rifampin cause on a urine test?

Answer 52

false positive urine test

Question 53

what test blood tests can rifampin interfere with?

Answer 53

B12 and folate

Question 54

why isnt' rifampin used alone?

Answer 54

causes rapid resistance

Question 55

what color can the secretions of the pt turn after taking rifampin?

Answer 55

RED-ORANGE

Question 56

what TB drug can be used to treat latent TB as well as active?

Answer 56

isoniazid

Question 57

what TB drug is CYP34A?

Answer 57

isoniazid

Question 58

what can rifampin do to the levels of ASA or clopidigrel?

Answer 58

INCREASE ASA decrease clopidigrel

Question 59

what does someone taking isoniazid need to have monitored?

Answer 59

opthalmic exam

Question 60

what can isoniazid cause for a false positive urine test?

Answer 60

false positive urine glucose

Question 61

what needs to be given to a patient with high risk of peripheral neuropathy and anemia if taking isoniazid?

Answer 61

concomitant PYRIDOXINE (B6)