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Module 7: Mali: ID > ID pharm lectures > Flashcards

ID pharm lectures Flashcards

1
Q

what is the antimalaria drug?

A

chloroquine

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2
Q

what are the two CYP34A drugs?

A

isoniazid (TB) and chloroquine sulfate (malaria)

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3
Q

what are 3 side effects of chloroquine sulfate?

A
  1. reduced hearing
  2. retinopathy
  3. corneal opacities
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4
Q

explain the saftey margin of cholorquine sulfate used for malaria?

A

narrow saftey margin

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5
Q

what are the toxicities of cholorquine you see when outside of the narrow safety margin?

A
  1. hypotension
  2. arrhythmia
  3. convulsions
  4. coma
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6
Q

is cholorquine effective for liver stage parasites?

A

NOPE!

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7
Q

where is iodoquinol effective?

A

in the bowel lumen only so systemic absorption is not beneificial

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8
Q

what can metronidazole be used to treat?

A

c. diff infections

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9
Q

what are two things you need to keep in mind when using metronidazole?

A
  1. metallic taste so warn the patient

2. causes DISULFRAM RXN when used with ethanol

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10
Q

when should the antihelminth medendazole not be used?

A

in 1st trimester of pregnancy

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11
Q

what percent of the oral antihelminth medendazole is absorbed?

A

less than 10% of the oral dose is absorbed

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12
Q

what are the twoantiamebacides?

A

iodoquinol

metronidazole

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13
Q

what is the drug class for iodoquinol?

A

halogenated hydroxyquinolone antiamebacide

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14
Q

what is the drug class for metronidazole?

A

nitroimadazole antibiotic antiamebacide

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15
Q

what are the two antihelmintic drugs?

A
  1. mebendazole

2. praziquantel

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16
Q

what should you educate your patients about who you prescribe permethrin?

A

tx may temporarily increase the itching because as the scabies die their breakdown cause increase itching

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17
Q

where should permethrin be used?

A

externally topical use only!

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18
Q

what eGFR should you not use nitrofurantoin below?

A

less that 60 ml/min

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19
Q

what is the name of the drug that is a anti-pediculosis and anti-scabicide drug?

A

permethrin

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20
Q

what is the name of the drug that is a urinary antiseptic?

A

nitrofurantoin

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21
Q

what drug is on the BEERs list inapropriate for elderly patients?

A

nitrofuratoin

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22
Q

what is the half life of nitrofuratoin?

A

20-60 mins

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23
Q

what is the name of the 3 nucleoside drugs?

A
  1. acyclovir
  2. famcyclovir
  3. valcyclovir
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24
Q

when should you begin acyclovir for a varicella rash in an immunocomprimised patient?

A

within 24 hours of the rash

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25
Q

when should you give acyclovir within for a zoster rash?

A

within 72 hours of the rash

26
Q

what is valcyclovir?

A

prodrug that is metabolized to acyclovir with 3-5x greater serum concentration of acyclovir

27
Q

what are the two drugs that are used for influenza A and are a M2 pump inhibitor?

A

amantadine

rimantadine

28
Q

what does amatadine contraindicated in psychosis?

A

because it relates to its dopamine effect

29
Q

Rimantidine is _____ times more active than amantadine

A

Rimantidine is 2-8x times more active than amantadine

30
Q

what are the two neuridase inhibitors?

A

oseltamivir

zanamivir

31
Q

what two drugs are used for the treatment and prophylaxsis of influenza A AND B?

A

oseltamivir

zanamivir

32
Q

when should you start osteltamivir?

A

within 24-48 hours of onset of symptoms

33
Q

what is the DOC for influenza?

A

oseltamivir

34
Q

who is zanamir contraindicated in? why?

A

those with underlying respiratory disease because it is an inhaled powder

35
Q

how is zanamir administrated? who does this pose a problem for?

A

admistered in diskus in powder

difficult for elderly and those with respiratory condition

36
Q

when do you use zanamivir?

A

for ostelamivir resistance

37
Q

what is ribvarin usually combined with?

A

peglated interferon 2A

38
Q

what drug is a tetragen and therefore should not be used in pregnancy?

A

ribavarin

39
Q

explain the pregancy testing done for a patient taking ribavarin?

A

must be tested before
every month during
and for 6 months after administration of the drug

40
Q

what are the 6 HIV drugs?

A
  1. lamivudine
  2. delavirdine
  3. darunavir
  4. enfuvirtide
  5. marviroc
  6. raltegravir
41
Q

what is the antihepatitis B drug?

A

lamivudine

42
Q

what is the antihepatitis B or C drug (used for both)

A

pegylated interferon alfa 2a

43
Q

what are the 3 antihepatitis C drugs?

A
  1. ribavirin
  2. sofosbuvir
  3. ledipasvir and sofosbuvir
44
Q

what happens with chronic use of lamivudine?

A

resistance goes up in chronic use

45
Q

where does the new antihepatitis drugs leave the use for pegylated interferon alfa 2a/

A

newer drugs will probally cause for very little need for interferon for Hep C tx now

46
Q

what virus does sofosbuvir + (rabavirin OR peg interferon) treat?

A

chronic Hepatitis genotype 1, 2, 3, 4

47
Q

what virus does sofosbuvir + ledipasvir treat?

A

chronic hepatitis genotype 1

48
Q

what is a contrindication when using sofosbuvir? why?

A

don’t use with AMIODARONE

severe risk of bradycardia

49
Q

is sofobuvir a tetragen? so what must you do?

A

yes it is! category X

must test before
every month during
and 6 months after

50
Q

what is the problem with using both sofosbuvir or a drug with it in it? does it make it realistic?

A

ITS SO FREAKING EXPENSIVE!!! can cause $35,000 for a month so its not realistic to use for most patients but might become important down the road

51
Q

what are the two anti-TB drugs?

A
  1. rifampin

2. isoniazid

52
Q

what can rifampin cause on a urine test?

A

false positive urine test

53
Q

what test blood tests can rifampin interfere with?

A

B12 and folate

54
Q

why isnt’ rifampin used alone?

A

causes rapid resistance

55
Q

what color can the secretions of the pt turn after taking rifampin?

A

RED-ORANGE

56
Q

what TB drug can be used to treat latent TB as well as active?

A

isoniazid

57
Q

what TB drug is CYP34A?

A

isoniazid

58
Q

what can rifampin do to the levels of ASA or clopidigrel?

A

INCREASE ASA

decrease clopidigrel

59
Q

what does someone taking isoniazid need to have monitored?

A

opthalmic exam

60
Q

what can isoniazid cause for a false positive urine test?

A

false positive urine glucose

61
Q

what needs to be given to a patient with high risk of peripheral neuropathy and anemia if taking isoniazid?

A

concomitant PYRIDOXINE (B6)

Module 7: Mali: ID (4 decks)

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