Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

*Review TD 2020 > ID > Flashcards

ID Flashcards

1
Q

Congenital CMV

- features

A

General
IUGR, prematurity

Skin
Petechiae, purpura, echymoses, jaundice

Hematopoietic Thrombocytopenia,anemia,splenomegaly

Hepatobiliary
Hyperbilirubinemia, elevated ALT, hepatomegaly

CNS
Microcephaly, seizures, periventricular calcifications

Eye
Chorioretinitis, strabismus, optic atrophy, microphthalmia

Ear
Sensorineural hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Congenital CMV

  • who to tx
  • how to tx
A

Neonates with “moderate to severe” symptomatic disease
During neonatal period

Valganciclovir for 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Syphillis

early mainfestations

A

General
Prematurity, IUGR, FTT

Mucocutaneous
Snuffles, maculopapular rash followed by desquamation, blistering and crusting, condyloma lata

Reticuloendothelial Hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy

Hematologic
Coomb’s negative hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia

Skeletal
Pseudoparalysis, osteochondritis, diaphyseal periostitis, deminiralization/destruction of proximal
tibia metaphysis, osteitis

Neurologic
Aseptic meningitis, hydrocephalus, cranial nerve palsies

Ophthalmologic
Salt and pepper chorioretinitis, glaucoma, uveitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

When does a baby born to mom w syphilis not need workup/tx?

A

Appropriate treatment prior to or during pregnancy

Four-fold or greater fall in maternal RPR titer

Infant RPR non- reactive
OR
Infant RPR = mothers and asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

If baby needs workup for syphliis what does it include

A

• Physical exam
▫ Stigmata
▫ Ophthalmology,audiology
assessments

• CBC, (LFT’s)

• Lumbar puncture
▫ CSF WBC count
▫ CSF protein
▫ Treponemal & non- treponemal serologic tests

• Skeletal survey

• Syphilis serology
▫ Non-treponemal ▫ Treponemal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Tx for congenital syphilis

A

Intravenous crystalline penicillin G for 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Congenital zika syndrome

A

CNS only

▫ Severe microcephaly with partially collapsed skull
▫ Thin cerebral cortices, subcortical calcifications
▫ Macular scarring, focal pigmentary retinal mottling
▫ Congenital contractures (arthrogryposis, club foot etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Toxoplasmosis - triad

A

hydrocephalus,
cerebral calcifications
chorioretinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Rubella - triad

A

cataracts, PDA, SNHL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Risk factors for early onset sepsis?

A
  • Maternal intrapartum GBS colonization during current pregnancy
  • GBS bacteriuria during current pregnancy
  • Previous infant with invasive GBS disease
  • Prolonged rupture of membranes (≥ 18 hours)
  • Maternal fever (≥ 38.0oC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Well baby with GBS+

what to do

A

No risk factors:
Adequate IAP: routine care
No IAP: observe 24-48 hrs (vital signs q3-4h), reassess & counsel pre-discharge

With risk factors:
at least observe 24-48 hrs (vital signs q3-4h)
consider CBC at 4h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Well baby with GBS- or unknown

what to do

A

No RF: Routine care

1 RF:
Adequate IAP: routine care
No IAP: observe 24-48 hrs (vital signs q3-4h), reassess & counsel pre-discharge

2 or more RF, or chorio:
at least observe 24-48 hrs (vital signs q3-4h)
consider CBC at 4h

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Low risk criteria for febrile infant 1-3 mo

A

Previously healthy term infant
Non-toxic clinical appearance
No focal infection (except otitis media)
Peripheral leukocyte count 5.0 – 15.0 x109/L
Absolute band count £ 1.5 x109/L
Urine: £ 10 WBC per high field (x40)
Stool (if diarrhea): £ 5 WBC per high field (x40)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Bacterial pathogens for fever for:
0-28d
29-90d
3-36 m

A

0-28 d:
Most common: Group B streptococcus, E. coli
Less common: L. monocytogenes, S. aureus, group A streptococcus, K. pneumoniae

29-90 d:
Most common: Group B streptococcus, E. coli, S. pneumoniae
Less common: N. meningitidis, L. monocytogenes, S. aureus, group A streptococcus

3-36 mo:
Most common: S. pneumoniae
Less common: S. aureus, group A streptococcus, N. meningitidis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Empiric therapy for toxic infants (community aqcuired)

0-28d
29-90d
3-36 m

A

No/Yes = meningitis
Amp is for listeria

0-28 days
No Ampicillin + gentamicin or cefotaxime
Yes Ampicillin + cefotaxime

29-90 days
No Ceftriaxone + vancomycin ± ampicillin
Yes Cefotriaxone + vancomycin ± ampicillin

3-36 months
No Ceftriaxone + vancomycin
Yes Ceftriaxone + vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Mother with HSV
how to treat:
• First episode; born vaginally or by C/section after membrane rupture
• First episode; C/section prior to membrane rupture
• Recurrent episodes

A

• First episode; born vaginally or by C/section after membrane rupture
▫ Empiric acyclovir recommended
▫ If 24 hr swabs positive – full workup (incl LP and bcx for PCR) and start treatment
▫ If 24 hr swabs negative, complete 10 days of IV acyclovir

• First episode; C/section prior to membrane rupture
▫ Empiric acyclovir not recommended
▫ Swab at 24 hr swabs and observe
if positive – full workup and treatment

• Recurrent episodes
▫ Empiric acyclovir not recommended
▫ Swab at 24 hr and observe
if swabs positive – full workup and treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q 
Septic arthritis
pathogens
abx
when to switch
how long
A

S aureus
Kingella kingae if <4 yo

▫ IV cefazolin
- Switch to oral when clinically improved, CRP decreased, compliance and follow-up assured
▫ If uncomplicated, antibiotic duration 3-4 weeks; 4-6 weeks for septic hip

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Necrotizing fascitis

  • bug
  • mgmt
A

S.pyogenes

IV penicillin + clindamycin and surgery consult

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Asplenic prophylaxis

A
  • 0 – 5 years: amoxicillin 10 mg/k/dose bid

* > 5 years: Penicillin V 300 mg BID or amoxicillin 250 mg BID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Well young w chronically draining cervical node

A

Atypical mycobacterium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Lymph nodes

A

Acute bilateral
Respiratory viruses, enteroviruses, adenovirus, EBV, CMV

Acute unilateral
S. aureus, S. pyogenes (80%)

Subacute bilateral
HIV, EBV, CMV, toxoplasmosis

Subacute unilateral
Non-tuberculous mycobacteria,
M. tuberculosis, Bartonella henselae, tularemia, plague (Y. pestis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Cat scratch disease

  • bug
  • presentaiton
  • treatment
A

Bartonella hensalae

▫ Lymphadenitis (axillarymostcommon)
▫ Perinaud oculoglandular syndrome
▫ Hepatosplenic bartonellosis (granulomatous disease) 
▫ Neuro-retinitis
▫ Encephalopathy
▫ FUO

▫ Azithromycin for lymphadenitis (shortens duration)
▫ Doxycycline + rifampin for neuroretinitis/CNS disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Lyme disease

  • bug
  • presentation
  • tx
A

• Borrelia burgdorferi

Erythema migrans
Arthritis
Bells palsy
radiculoneuropathy
(uncommon: meningitis, cardiac)

doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

unilateral facial weakness, and vesicles in ear canal

A

Ramsay hunt

acyclovir and steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Acute flaccid myelitis

- eitiology

A

▫ Non-polio enteroviruses (EV D68, EV A71)
▫ Polioviruses (vaccine derived mainly)
▫ West Nile virus and some other arboviruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Complications of varicella

A

Most likely after 12yo
most common - pneumonia

• General
▫ Pneumonia
▫ Hepatitis, pancreatitis, nephritis, orchitis
▫ Thrombocytopenia

• Bacterial infections
▫ Cellulitis, softtissue abscess, necrotizing fasciitis

• Neurologic
▫ Cerebellar ataxia
▫ Encephalitis
▫ Reye syndrome
▫ Stroke
▫ Zoster (including Ramsay Hunt syndrome)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

mother with untreated gonorrhea

A

• Well appearing
▫ Conjunctival culture
▫ IM ceftriaxone 50 mg/kg (maximum 125 mg)

• Unwell
▫ Conjunctival, blood and CSF cultures
▫ Consult ID with established disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

C diff treatment

A

Mild (<4 abn stools/d)
Discontinue precipitating Abx; Follow-up

First episode; Mild/moderate; No change with Abx stoppage
PO metronidazole 10-14 days

First episode; Severe uncomplicated
PO vancomycin 10-14 days

First episode; Severe complicated
PO vancomycin 10-14 days
PLUS
IV metronidazole 10-14 days

First recurrence
Repeat as above

Second recurrence
Vancomycin in tapered or pulsed regimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Fever in traveler

- emergency infections

A

▫ Malaria
▫ Typhoid fever
▫ Meningococcemia
▫ Viral hemorrhagic fevers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Positive TST

A

> /= 10 mm in no RF

> /= 5mm if RF

• HIV infection (well)
• Close contact with active contagious case (past 2 years)
• Presence of fibronodular disease on CXR (healed TB)
• Organ transplant
• TNF-α inhibitors
• Other immunosuppressive medications (e.g.
corticosteroids – equivalent of 315 mg/day for 31 month)
• End stage renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

TB tx

A

Isoniazid, Rifampin, Pyrazinamide, Ethambutol

• Latent TB infection
▫ INH for 9months or RIF for 4 months or INH+RIF for 3 months or INH + rifapentine x12 weekly observed doses

• TB disease
▫ Start with 4 drugs(INH,RIF,PYR,ETH)
▫ Step down to 3 drugs if fully sensitive strain
▫ Two months of 3-4 drugs, then INH+RIF to complete course (total duration depends on specifics of disease)
(4x2mo then 2X4mo)

• Consider DOT
• Pyridoxine in selected cases (malnutrition,
adolescents, pregnancy…)

• Vitamin D usually given for children with TB disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

how to prevent vertical transmission of HIV

A

• Antiretroviral therapy (zidovudine = AZT)
▫ Triple ART starting in 2nd trimester (or earlier)
▫ IV zidovudine during labor
▫ Zidovudine to infant for 6 weeks

  • Elective Cesarean section if VL >1000 copies/mL
  • Avoidance of breast feeding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Hep B + mom - what to do w newborn

A

HBIG and HB vaccine within 12 hours of birth

HB vaccine at 1 and 6 months

Check tires at 9-12 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Who to give VZIG to post exposure

A

Basically those who can’t get varicella vaccine
Give acyclovir if lesions too

1) Immunocomp children w/o hx of varicella or varicella immunization
2) Susceptible pregnant women
3) Newborn infant whose mother had ONSET of chicken pox within 5 days before delivery or within 48 hours of delivery
4) Hospitalized premature infant (>/= 28 wga) whose mother lacks a reliable history of chicken pox or serologic evidence of protection against varicella
5) Hospitalized premature infant (< 28 weeks gestation or birth weight < 1000 gram) regardless of maternal history of varicella or varicella-zoster virus serostatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Hep A

post exposure

A

Hep A vaccine within 2 weeks of exposure

If less than 6mo or C/I to vaccine, Ig should be given

Give vaccine + Ig to immunocomp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are airborne precautions

A

Varicella, zoster Measles Tuberculosis Smallpox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

5 moments of Hand hygiene

A
  • Before touching a patient
  • Before clean/aseptic procedures
  • After body fluid exposure/risk
  • After touching a patient
  • After touching patient surroundings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

AOM bugs

A 
Streptococcus pneumoniae (25% to 40%)
▫ Non-typeable Haemophilus influenzae (10% to 30%)
▫ Moraxella catarrhalis (5% to 15%)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Skin infections

  • bugs
  • tx
A

S. aureus, Group A streptococcus

Impetigo: PO: Cloxacillin, Cephalexin

Cellulitis: IV: Cloxacillin, Cefazolin
PO: Cloxacillin, Cephalexin

Necrotizing Fasciitis: IV: Cloxacillin (or Cefazolin or penicillin) + clindamycin ± vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Human bites - what to do about Hep B

A

If unknown status - vaccinate that child

If one of the children has HepB, give HBIG & vaccine to the other child if they are non immune or incompletely immunized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Contraindications to breastfeeding`

A 
HIV
HTLA
HSV if active lesions on breast
TB if contagious
Mastoiditis (pump and dump on that breast, BF from other)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

West Nile Virus

presentation

A

Asymptomatic 80%

Fever 20%
Neurologic disease <1%
aseptic meningitis, encephalitis, acute flaccid paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

HPV vaccine recommendations

A

9-14 give 2 doses, otherwise give 3 doses
(at least 6 mo apart)

Also give 3 doses to immunocompromised and HIV children

44
Q

Rotavirus vaccine

A

Give preterm on same schedule as term
Start no later than 15 weeks
Complete by 8 mo

45
Q

most common Side effect of varicella vaccine

A

most common: fever

46
Q

What vaccines contraindicated if egg allergy

A

only yellow fever

47
Q

Scabies - when can go back to daycare

A

Once treatment applied

48
Q

Pertussis - when can go back to daycare

A

After 5 days of tx

49
Q

Shigella - when can go back to daycare

A

Diarrhea resolves

50
Q

Campylobacter - when can go back to daycare

A

Diarrhea resolves

51
Q

Hep A- when can go back to daycare

A

7 days after onset of jaundice

52
Q

What does HBeAg tell you

A

actue infection - active viral replication

53
Q

Supraclavicular node - first step

A

CXR

then LN biopsy

54
Q

Strains of HPV and what they cause

A

16&18 - cervical cancer and squamous cell cancer

HPV 6&11

55
Q

CF pt w green sputum - how to tx

A

IV ceftazidine and tobramycin

56
Q

How to test baby for HIV if mother is HIV +

transmission risk

A

HIV PCR at 2-3 wk, 1-2mon, 4-6 mon
HIV serology at 12-18 months

Transmission : 1% if compliant
25% if no meds

57
Q

Narrowing of distal ilium

A

Yersinia

58
Q

Influenza vaccine
Which is more effective - LAIV or NAIV
Contraindications to LAIV

A

Equally effective

  • age < 24 months
  • severe asthma (current high-dose inhaled steroids or systemic steroids)
  • medically attended wheezing in past 7 days
  • immunodeficiency, pregnancy
  • ASA treatment
59
Q

Who is high risk for influenza disease?

A
  • all children aged 6-59 months
  • anyone with basically any chronic medical condition
  • all indigenous children
  • all residents of chronic carefacilities
60
Q

What are live vaccines?

A

LAIV
MMR
Rotavirus
Varicella

61
Q

How long to wait for live vaccines if receiving steroids?

A

if systemic steroids > 2 mg/kg/day (>20 mg/d) dosed for >14 days: wait 1 month

62
Q

Fever + diarrhea with bradycardia

A

Salmonella

Cipro, ceftriaxone

63
Q

Boy who visited farm

A

Q fever: coxiella burnetii

  • Acute infection = flu-like illness, pneumonia, hepatitis
  • Incubation = 20 days
  • RF = farm animals or downwind from farm animals
  • Dx -> early = PCR, after 1 week = IFA
  • Tx: within 3 days of symptoms, doxycycline x 2/52 if >8yo, cipro or septra <8 with short course of doxy (5 days) to start
64
Q

Pneumpnia w pneumantocele - what but?

A

Staphylococcus

65
Q

When to treat AOM?

A

Basically you are only treating if

  • Obviously perforated
  • MEE + bulging TM and one of:
  • -Mod-severely ill
  • -Unable to sleep
  • -Irritable
  • -Not responding to tylenol
  • -Severe otalging
  • > = 39 in absence of antipyretics
  • > 48h of symptoms
66
Q

If AOM does not improve after 48 of abx, what bugs likely?

A

H flu, M catarrhalis

67
Q

Time period of possible HSV infection vertical transmission after delivery?

A

6 weeks

68
Q

How to diagnose Rheumatic Fever

A

Evidence of GAS infection +
2 major or
1 major and 2 minor

J<3NES criteria - major :
Joints - migratory arthritis
<3 = carditis
pericardium/epi/myo/endocardium
Mitral valve 
Pericardial friction rub
1st degree heart block, 
N = subcutaneous Nodules
E = Erythema marginatum 
S = sydenham chorea 
Minor 
Fever (38.5 PO; 38 accepted in certain popn) 
Arthralgias 
Elevated ESR/CRP 
ESR >60, CRP > 30  
Prolonged PR interval
69
Q

How to treat scabies

A

Permethrin 5%
Apply to entire body down from neck
Leave on overnight
Repeat in 1 week

70
Q

Sickle cell with fever and pneumonia

tx

A

Ceftriaxone + macrolide

71
Q

Gonorrhea treatment

A

Ceftriaxone and azithro

72
Q

Baby born to mother with active Hepatitis B

A

Give HB vaccine and HBIg within 12 hours of birth

Give vaccine at 1 and 6 months

73
Q

how to treat head lice

A

pyrethrins and permethrin remain first-line treatments in Canada
permethrin 1%

74
Q

Steroids have been proven effective in what infection?

A

Hib meningitis, for which there is evidence that steroids decrease hearing loss in children if they are administered just before or with the initial antimicrobial Therapy (ask staff)

75
Q

bacterial diarrhea

tx

A

tx if toxic

PO azithromycin or erythromycin

76
Q

Pertussis treatment

A

erythromycin

77
Q

How to treat pin worms

A

Albendazole (400mg PO with repeat dose 2 weeks later)

78
Q

Acute cerebellar ataxia

  • cause
  • presentation
A

varicella

gradual onset of gait disturbance, nystagmus and slurred speech

79
Q

Lemierre disease

A

infection from the oropharynx extends to cause septic thrombophlebitis of the internal jugular vein and embolic abscesses in the lungs

fusobacterium necrophorum, an anaerobic bacterial constituent of the oropharyngeal flora

presentation:
healthy adolescent or young adult with a history of recent pharyngitis who becomes acutely ill with fever, hypoxia, tachypnea, and respiratory distress

Blood cultures

80
Q

Epiglottitis

A

Usually viral but HiB if unvaccinated

Acute rapidly progressive course of high fever, sore throat, dyspnea, respiratory obstruction

Toxic, swallowing difficulty, labored breathing
Drooling and neck hyperextended in attempt to maintain airway

Tripod – sitting up and leaning forward, chin up, mouth open, bracing on arms

Stridor is late finding – near complete obstruction

Xray - thumb sign (epiglottis is think like a thumb)

81
Q

Parvovirus - when can return to school

A

As soon as they feel well enough

infectious until rash appears

82
Q

Hepatitis A

  • tx
  • exclusion
A

tx:
<12mo: Ig
1-40yo: Hep A vaccine

Exclusion 7 days post onset of sx

83
Q

Can you breastfeed w Hep C

A

Yes

84
Q

Eosinophilia

A

Ascaris

85
Q

food poisoning sx 4 hours later

A

s.aureus

86
Q

Prophylaxis for asplenic

A

Amoxil for <5yo

Pen V or Amoxil for >5yo

87
Q

Pertussis - contact

A

A macrolide agent should be given promptly to all household contacts and other close contacts, such as those in daycare, regardless of age, history of immunization, and symptoms.
Azithro, erythro clarithro

88
Q

Post exposure to varicella

A

Healthy: give vaccine

Immunocomp: give VZIG

If lesions give acyclovir

89
Q

When can live vaccines be given after high dose steroids are stopped

A

1 month

90
Q

Parinaud ocular glandular syndrome

A

(atypical Bartonella) after scratch or inoculation around the eye
ipsilateral conjunctivitis + pre-auricular lymphadenopathy + splenomegaly

91
Q

what kind of bacteria listeria

A

gram postive rods

92
Q

AOM - abx

A

Amox
Cefuroxime
Amox Clav

93
Q

high risk for invasive pneumococcal disease

A 
<2yo
have a cochlear implant
 immune suppressed
chronic organ disease (such as kidney, liver, lung or heart disease)
diabetes or asthma
Asplenia
94
Q

measles complications

A
  • Respiratory infections:
  • -Pneumonia- most common cause of death (direct viral infection or secondary bacterial) → bronchiolitis obliterans
  • -Croup, tracheitis, bronchiolitis
  • Acute otitis media (mastoiditis, sinusitis)- most common complication
  • Eye disease with corneal ulcer and loss of vision (especially with Vit A deficiency)
  • Diarrhea/vomiting → dehydration
  • CNS: Encephalomylitis, subacute sclerosing pamencephalitis)(Chronic, 10 years later, behavioral and intellectual
  • Higher rate of TB activation
  • hemorrhagic measles “black measles”- fatal condition
95
Q

how to test for measles

A

Measles serology
IgM (appears 1-2 days after rash onset, and lasts up to 1 month; if sample is collected <72 hours after onset of rash and is negative, it should be repeated)
4-fold rise in IgG antibodies
Viral isolation from blood, urine, respiratory secretions - culture
RNA PCR

96
Q

leading bacterial cause of foodborne gastroenteritis in children

A

Campylobacter

bloody diarrhea
unpasteurized cow’s milk

97
Q

Neisseria meningitidis - type of bacteria

A

gram-negative encapsulated diplococcus that colonizes the nasopharynx

98
Q

How to treat H pylori

A

amox, clarith and PPI

99
Q

Mom Hep B unknown status

A

give vaccine within 12h

Hep B serology on mom
give HBIG if serology +
give within 7 days

100
Q

Two month old has salmonella bacteremia. Why are IV antibiotics indicated?

A

decrease risk of meningitis

101
Q

Pertussis presentation

  • children
  • adolescents
A

Children: Apnea and pneumonia

Adolescents: URTI sx
severe: syncope, weight loss, sleep disturbance, incontinence, rib fractures, and pneumonia

immunize adolescents to redue transmission to children

102
Q

Lyme disease: 3 systems involved and their specific involvement

A

Skin: Erythema migrans (EM- resolves spontaneously over a four-week)
CNS: like facial nerve palsy, papiledema, meningitis, peripheral neuropathy and CNS disease
Heart: Heart-block (carditis) possible but rare
MSK: pauciarticular arthritis at weeks to months post,

103
Q

indications for conjugated quadrivalent vaccine for meningococcus

A 
asplenia/hyposplenia (ie. sickle cell) 
immunodeficiency (ie. primary, HIV) 
potential for exposure 
healthcare workers 
endemic areas
104
Q

how to treat tine capitis

A

PO terbinafine

105
Q

Measles presentation

A 
High fever
3 C's
Cough
Coryza
Conjuntivitis

Rash comes when fever subsides
Cranial to caudal
fine red papules

*Review TD 2020 (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions