Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 2 CK (primary set) > ID > Flashcards

ID Flashcards

1
Q

gastroenteritis after salad consumption

A

staph aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Food associated with staph (5)

A 
Dairy products
poultry
egg product
meat
salad with mayonnaise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Most commonly food tested in USMLE for staph (3)

A

Potato
macaroni
sald with mayonnaise in it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

cause of diarrhea induced by staph

A

preformed toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

patient on anti TB develops tingling of extremities

A

peripheral neuropathy caused by izoniazid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

treatment of peripheral neuropathy induced izoniazid

A

pyridoxine 100 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

prevention of neuropathy

A

pyridoxine 10 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

malaria with fever q 48 h(2 Syllables)

A

ovale

vivax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Malaria with fever q 72 h

A

malariae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Malaria without periodicity

A

P falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what to prevent in transplant patient

A

opportunistic infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

which opportunistic infection should be prevented in transplant patient?(5)

A 
PCP
CMV
Hep B
pneumonia 
influenza
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

drug preventing PCP

A

TMP-SMX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

drug preventing CMV (2)

A

valacyclovir

ganciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which bugs TMP-SMX help to prevent(5)

A 
PCP
Toxo
Nocardia
Pneumonia
UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

screening test for HIV

A

hiv serology test by elisa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

confirmatory test for HIV test

A

western blot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Travelers diarrhea persisting more than 2 weeks (5)

A 
C parvum
cyclospora
cystoisospora
microsporidia
giardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Patient returning from eastern europe develops watery stools,no leucocytes and no blood in it

A

cryptosporidium parvum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Travelers diarrhea and short term course diarrhea? (7)

A 
rotavirus
norovirus
salmonella
shigella
campylo bacter
ETEC entero toxigenoic
EPEC Entero pathogene
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Travelers diarrhea and bloody spell (3)

A

salmonella
shigella
campylobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Mechanism of ostomyelitis in diabetics patients with foot ulcer?

A

contiguous spread

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Travelers diarrhea and pseudoappendicitis

A

campylobacter and yeresina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Rx of PCP

A

TMP-SMX

prednisone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

when giving prednisone with the lower risk in PCP (2)

A

PAo2 35

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

PCP treatment/prophylaxis (4)

A

Dapsone (prophylaxis only)
Pentamidine
atavoquone
TMP-SMX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

side effect of TMP-SMX(4)

A

HyperK+
rash
increase transaminase
neutropenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

side effect of pentamidine (4)

A

hyperK+
Hypotension
increase transaminase
nephrotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

side effect of dapsone

A

Hemolytic anemia(G6PD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

side effect of primaquine (2)

A

Hemolytic anemia

methemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Bugs causing cutaneous larva migrans

A

ancylostoma braziliense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

People at risk of cutaneous larva migrans (2)

A

sand boxes

activity on sandy beaches

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Manif of cutaneous larva migrans(3)

A

pruritic lesion on hand, legs
papules
erythema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Most effective way to decrease risk of infection in bladder catheterization

A

intermittent catheterization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

UTI and high urine PH >7

A

proteus mirabilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How proteus mirabilis causes high PH

A

urease producer bug
urease cleaves urea to CO2 and ammonia
ammonia bonds to H+—>ammonium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

risk with proteus infection (2)

A

high unrine PH

risk of struvite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Urease producing bacteria (6)

A 
klebsiella
morganella
uraplasma urealyticum
pseudomonas
providencia
staph aureus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Risk of infection by urease producing bacteria

A

indwelling catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

diag of febrile neutropenia

A

fever

Neutrophil < 1500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

risk in febrile neutropenia (2)

A

infection

often pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Empiric treatment of febrile neutropenia(3)

A

cefepime or ceftazidime
meropenem or imipenem
or combination aminoglycoside plus antipseudomonal antibio

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

clostridium difficile colitis

A

diarrhea following by antibody use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

fisrt step in clostridium difficile treatment?

A

stool toxin testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

toxin produced by C difficile (2)

A

Enterotoxin A

Enterotoxin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

action of enterotoxin A

A

Watery diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Action of enterotoxin B

A

cell necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

complication of pseucolitis membranous

A

Megacolon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Dx test of pseudocolitis membranous (2)

A

sigmoidoscopy

PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Sigmoidoscopy of pseudocloitis membranous

A

pseudomembranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

PCR of pseudocloitis membranous

A

toxin genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Empiric antibody for meningitidis in eldery people > 50 ans (3)

A

Cefepime, ceftriaxone or cefotaxime +
vancomycin +
ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

drugs used in pseudomembranous colitis? (3)

A

Metro or

vancomycin or

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

bugs causing meningitidis in 2-50 ans(2)

A

S pneumonia
N meningitidis
H influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

empiric tx of meningitidis in 3mon - 50yrs ans (3)

A

vancomycin +

ceftriaxone or cefotaxime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

bugs causing meningitidis > 50 ans(3)

A

S pneumonia
N meningitidis
L monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

bugs causing meningitidis in immuno compromised patient?(4)

A

S pneumonia
N meningitidis
L monocytogenes
gram negativebacilli (P aeruginosa)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

empiric Tx of meningitidis in immunocompromised patient (3)

A

ceftazidime +
vancomycin +
ampicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

bugs causing meningitidis after neurosurgery or skull penetrating trauma (3)

A

staph aureus
staph with coagulase negative
gram negative rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

treatment of meningitidis after neurosurgery or skull penetrating trauma (2)

A

vancomycine

cefepime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Manif of babesiosis?

A

Malaria like symptom

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

area in the US with babesiosis?(2)

A

Northeastern

Babesiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

cause of babesiosis?(2)

A

tick bite

ixodes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

rx of babesiosis?(2)

A

quinine -clindamycin or

atovaquone - azythromycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

cause of infectious upper respiratory illness(3)

A

influenza
viral upper respiratory syndrome
streptococcal pharyngitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

clue for influenza

A

systemic symptom prevails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

clue for viral respiratory syndrome(2)

A

rhinorrhea

coryza prevails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

indication of treatment for influenza(3)

A

rx must be initiated within 48 h
no improvement after 48 h
risk of complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

patient with influenza presenting after 48 h of symptoms

rx?

A

symptomatic treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

drug use in the treatment of influenza?(2)

A

oseltamivir

zanamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

gardner with painless ulcer on finger?

A

sporotrichosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

bug causing sporotrichosis?

A

sporotrix shenkii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Rx of fight bite?clench fist injury

A

bactoclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

rx of bite dog

A

bactoclav

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

watery or bloody diarrhea after ingestion of seafood?

A

vibrio para hemolyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

seafood infected by vibrio parahemolyticus?(2)

A

oyster

shrimp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

bugs causing cat scrath fever?

A

bartonella henselae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

rx of cat scratch fever?

A

azythromycin pendant 5 jours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Dx of cat scratch fever?(2)

A

antibody

warthy starry stain positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

risk factor for endocarditis

A

IV drug user

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

clue for endocarditis in IV drug user(2)

A

fever

holosystolic murmur in tricuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

valve invoved in endocarditis in IV drug user

A

Tricuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

rx of endocarditis in IV drug user?

A

vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

why vanco in so used in endocarditis?(3)

A

coverage of
staph aureus
streptococci
enterococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

risk of cervico actinomycosis?(5)

A 
after dental procedure
poor oral hygiene
diabetics
malnutrition
local tissue damage from malignancy or irradiation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

clue for cervico facial actinomyosis?

A

Mandibulaire abces after dental procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Rx of cervico facial actinomycosis?

A

penicillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

bug with sulfur granules

A

actinomycosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Micro characteristic of actinomyces israeli(2)

A

gram +

branching rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Work up nof infectious mono

A

Heterophile antibody

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

work up of mono if infectious mono if heterophile antibody is negative?

A

EBV specific antiboby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

IV drug user and pulmonary findings

A

Infective endocarditis complicated by septic pulmonary emboli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Dx of Mycobacterium leprae

A

hypopigmented plaque without sensation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

zone of predilection of mycobacterium leprea

A

forearm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

geographic area of predilection of mycobacterium leprea

A

asia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

dx of myco leprae and finding(2)

A

skin biopsy

acid fast bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

bugs causing shingles

A

herpes zoster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

dermatomes most commonly involved in shingles

A

T3

L3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Rx of choice of shingles

A

valacyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

chicken pox quid

A

varicella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what to do in patient developping endocarditis with strep bovis(strep gallotycus type 1)

A

rule out colon cancer by colonoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

clue for CMV diarrhea in hiv patient(2)

A

colonic ulceration

basophilic intracystoplasmic inclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

HIV patient with bloody diarrhea with normalstool examination?

A

colonoscopy to rule out CMV infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

quid of owl’s eye effect?(2)

A

eosinophilic intranuclear inclusion and

basophilic intracystoplasmic inclusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

meaning owl’s eye effect?

A

CMV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Rx of CMV(2)

A

ganciclovir

foscarnet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

cause of kaposi sarcoma?

A

HHv-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Quid of 3 phases of trichenella(round worm)(3)

A

intrestinal
systemic with hypersensitivity
Muscular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Quid of systemic phase?(hypersensitivity phase)(3)

A

splinter hemorrage
chemosis
retinal hemorrage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what happened in muscular phase?

A

Muscular pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

reservoir of trichinella

A

undercooked pork

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Triad for trichenellosis?(3)

A

Myositis
periorbital edema
eosinophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

chemoprophylaxis for malaria

A

consider if the zone has Plasmodium F

if Plasmodium F is susceptible or resistant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

area with resistant Plamsdodium F(2)

A

subsaharan africa

southern southeast Asia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

prophylaxis for resistant P falciparum(3)

A

atovaquone plus proguanil
dox
mefloquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

prophylaxis for zone susceptible P falciparum?

A

chloroquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

area without falciparum(3)

A

south america
mexico
korean peninsula

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

drug used in prophylaxis in zone with no falciparum

A

primaquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

prohylaxis for malaria in pregnant women?

A

mefloquine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

clue for coociiodomycosis?(2)

A

pulmonary symptom

erythema nodosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

endocarditis with heart valve damage?

A

Mitral valve prolapse

mitral regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

bugs most commonly involved in damaged heart valve

A

strep mutans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

step mutans treatment

A

vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

gold standard for endocarditis dx?

A

transesophageal echo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

pyelonephitis rx in diabetics(2)

A

ceftriaxone pdt 48-72H

switch by TMS or ciprox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

pyelonephritis in patient without diabetes?

A

ciprox or

TMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

duration of oral rx of pyelonephritis

A

10 a 14 jours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

rx of pyelonephritis in pregnant women? (2)

A

ceftriaxone
plus ou moins genta or
aztreonam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

risk factor for toxic shock syndrome?(4)

A

tampon
nasal package
post surgery(sinorhinoplasty)
infectiuos sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

cutaneous manif in toxic shock syndrome

A

macular erythroderma like sunburn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

clue important for TSS

A

thrombocytopenia<100 000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

quid of TSS toxin

A

superantigen activating T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

pig farmer with seizures

A

neurocysticercosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

quid of T solium

A

it’s a tape worm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

what’s the cause of neurocysticercosis?

A

egg ingestion of T solium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

if you eat the meat ot the PIG what will happen?

A

you will develop the intestinal T solium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

chronic cough of immunocompromised patient and presence and presence of gram + partially acid fast organism branching rods?

A

nocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

rx of nocardia?

A

TMS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

cause of pulmonary cavitation?(6)

A 
TB
Nocardiosis
atypical mycobacterium
anaerobes
gram negative rods
aspergilosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

First disease to check in front of neck adenopathy with sore throat?

A

Mono infectious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

second disease to check in front of neck adenopathy with sore throat?

A

hiv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

when Mono infectious patient develops rash

A

when antibio is given

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

the most common cause of of pneumoniae in immunocompromised patient (hiv)

A

pneumococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

why pneumococcus is so common in hiv patient(2)

A

because of failure of humoral immunity

encapsulated germs cause infeection easily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

joint pain in polyarticular symmetric in school teacher in daycare center

A

parvovirus B19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

dx of Parvovirus B19 in immunocompetent individuals

A

IGM B 19

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

dx of Parvovirus B19 in immunocompromised individuals

A

NAAT(nucleic amplification testing)

148
Q

acute infection(actuelle)

A

IGM

149
Q

chronic infection antibody

A

Ig G

150
Q

iv drug user with splenic fluid collection

A

splenic abcess

151
Q

risk factor for splenic abcess(5)

A 
infective endocarditis(any hematogenous spread infection)
hiv
iv drug user
hemoglobinopathy(sickle cell disease)
trauma
152
Q

clue for splenic abcess(2)

A

left pleural chest pain

left upper abdominal chest pain

153
Q

Dx of splenic abcess

A

abdomen ct scan

154
Q

Rx of splenic abcess(2)

A

splenectomy

antibiotics

155
Q

rx of splenic abcess for poor candidate to surgery(2)

A

drainage

antibio

156
Q

bugs involving in splenic abcess?(3)

A

strep
staph
salmonella

157
Q

complication of EBV

A

autoimmune hemolytic anemia

158
Q

why hemolytic anemia in EBV

A

cross rectivity of antibody with red blood cells

159
Q

dx of autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

direct coobs test

160
Q

antibody causing red blood cell lysis in EBV

A

Anti I antibodies or

cold agglutinin

161
Q

other blood cells destroyed in EBV infection

A

platelet

162
Q

bug causing post influenza pneumonia

A

staph aureus

163
Q

patient with rhinorhea ,fever and cough treted with a dru mild improvement but later cough and fever

A

post influenza pneumonia

164
Q

situation for staph aureus to cause pneumonia(5)

A 
hospitalized patients
cystic fibrosis
iv drug user
nursing home residents
post influenza
165
Q

quid of atypical lymphocytes in viral lymphocytes

A

basophilic lymphocytes with vacuolated appearance

166
Q

bugs causing atypical lymphocytes(2)

A

EBV

CMV

167
Q

mononucleosis like syndrome(3)

A

arthralgie
Mx aches
CMV

168
Q

diarrhea associated with unrefrigerated food

A

clostridium perfringens

169
Q

diarrhea associated with poultry or eggs

A

salmonella

170
Q

diarrhea associated with undercooked shellfish

A

vibrio vulnificus

171
Q

bloody diarrhea with fever the most common cause

A

E coli

172
Q

what not to do during E.coli diarrhea

A

no antibio

173
Q

3 most common cause of bloody diarrhea(3)

A

e coli
shigella
camplylobacter

174
Q

Dx for E .coli

A

Shiga toxin

175
Q

secondary syphilis

A

maculo papular rash ivolving palms and soles

176
Q

Jarish herxheimer reaction

A

abnormal PNC reaction during syphilis reaction

177
Q

quid of jarish herxeimer syndrome(2)

A

fever

myalgia

178
Q

date de debut de jarish herxeimer

A

24 hours after beginning of rx with PNC

179
Q

appearance of condyloma acuminata

A

verrucous papilliform lesion

180
Q

cause of condyloma acuminata

A

HPV

181
Q

3 modalities of rx for condyloma acuminata

A

methode chimique ou physique
immune therapy
surgery

182
Q

Methode chimique ou physique used to rx condyloma acuminata(3)

A

trichloroacetic acid
podophylin
5-fluouracil epinephrine gel

183
Q

quid of immune therapy to rx condyloma acuminata(2)

A

interferon alpha

imiquinod

184
Q

surgery to rx condyloma acuminata(3)

A

laser
cryotherapy
excision

185
Q

bugs causing bacillary angiomatosis

A

bartonella angiomatosis

186
Q

people at risk for bartonella angiomatosis

A

HIV

187
Q

Rx of choice for bartonella angiomatosis

A

erythromycin

188
Q

Kissing disease

A

Mononucleose infectieuse

189
Q

when heterophile antibody cannot be positive

A

in the first week

190
Q

bone marrow transplanted patient with digestive and pulmonary problem?

A

CMV

191
Q

Median to develop CMV infection after bone marrow transplanted

A

45 days

192
Q

clue for vertebral osteomyelitis(2A)

A

fever

focal spinal tenderness in physical exam

193
Q

when to ask MRI devant vertebral osteomyelitis?(2)

A

negative xray

with high CRP and ESR

194
Q

bugs causing endocarditis on native valves following dental procedures

A

viridans group

195
Q

quid of viridans group?(4)

A

sanguis
mitis
salivarius
mutans

196
Q

Pneumonia in nursing home

A

staph aureus

197
Q

rx of cerebral toxo

A

sulfadiazine pyrimethamine

198
Q

prophylaxis of toxo

A

Tms

199
Q

PPD in US citizen positive

A

15

200
Q

PPd 15 in US citizen next step

A

ask chest x ray

201
Q

PPd positive in immunocompromised patient when

A

5

202
Q

Positive PPD in endemic TB area

A

> 10mm

203
Q

positive PPD in prisoner

A

> 10

204
Q

positive PPD in iv drug user

A

> 10

205
Q

PPD > 10 mm for which patient (5)

A 
diabetes
chronic disease
children less than 4
fibrotic lung disease
hematogenous malignancy
206
Q

chest xay plus cavern et PPD 5 mm

A

TB

207
Q

clue for histoplasmosis(3)

A

hiv
palatal ulcers
involvement of reticuloendothelial cells

208
Q

quid of reticuloendothelial sites in histoplasmosis(4)

A

adenopathy
hepatomegaly
splenomegaly
Pancytopenia

209
Q

clue for aspergilosis(2)

A

pulmonary nodule

halo sign

210
Q

quid of halo sign

A

lesions with air crescent

211
Q

cd4< 50 what to do

A

MAC prophylaxis

212
Q

prophylaxis of MAC

A

azythromycin or

clarythro

213
Q

cause of esophagitis in hiv patient?(4)

A

candida
CMV
Herpes simplex
aphtous ulcer

214
Q

characteristic of CMV ulcer

A

linear pattern

215
Q

characteristic of herpes ulcer

A

round ovale

216
Q

cd4 for esophagitis

A

less than 100

217
Q

clue for erlichiosis(5)

A 
tick bite
fever
Increase of transaminase
leukopenia
low platelet
218
Q

other name for erlichiosis

A

spotless rocky mountain spotted fever

219
Q

drug of choice for erlichiosis

A

dox

220
Q

rx of lyme disease in in pregnant and lactating women

A

amox

221
Q

rx of nocardia(2)

A

TMS

or Minocycline

222
Q

Micro of Nocardia

A

partially acid fast

223
Q

clue for meningococcemia(3)

A

fever
stiff neck
purpura

224
Q

clue for lyme disease

A

erythema migrans

225
Q

rash beginning in face and spreading over the body sparing hands and soles plus adenopathies,fever et coryza

A

rubella

226
Q

dx test for rubella(2)

A

PCR

serolgy

227
Q

clue for congenital rubella(3)

A

cataract et glaucoma
cardiac problem
hearing loss

228
Q

prevention of rubella

A

live attenuated vaccine

229
Q

endocarditis with staph aureus

A

IV drug user
IV catheters
pacemaker
defibrillator

230
Q

endocarditis with staph coagulase negative

A

IV catheters
pacemaker
defibrillator

231
Q

endocarditis in nocosomial UTI

A

enterococci

232
Q

endocarditis in colon cancer and IBD

A

streptococcus gallolyticus type 1

233
Q

fungi endocarditis(3)

A

indwelling catheter
immunocompromised host
prolonged antibi use

234
Q

Indication of broncho alveolar lavage(3)

A

PCP lung
CMV lung
malignancy of lung

235
Q

late manif of Lyme disease(2)

A

unilateral facial palsy 7

Myalgia

236
Q

when you will have late manif of Lyme

A

after months to years

237
Q

early manif of Lyme

A

erytherma migrans

238
Q

when you will see early manif

A

1 day to month

239
Q

the most commonly involved nerve in Lyme

A

7

240
Q

rx of influenza(3)

A

neuraminidase inhibitor
oseltamivir
zanamivir

241
Q

raison to begin antiviral in influenza(7)

A 
< 48 h of symptom onset
>65 ans
pregnant women or up two weeks post partum
chronic illness
nursing home and chronic facility
obesity
immunosuppression
american indians and native americans
242
Q

what not to do in all patient with splenomegaly(2)

A

no palpation

no physical contact

243
Q

risk in patient with splenomegaly

A

splenic rupture

244
Q

severe pyelonephritis in diabetes and renal insufficiency(4)

A

ampi-sulbactam
meropenem
imipenem
aztreonam

245
Q

Quid of erythroderma in TSS

A

desquamation involving palms and soles

246
Q

rx of primary syphilis

A

one dose of PNC

247
Q

rx of primary syphilis si allergy a PNC

A

dox pdt 14 jours

248
Q

rx of secondary syphilis

A

one dose of PNC

249
Q

rx of secondary syphilis si allergy a la PNC

A

dox pdt 14 jours

250
Q

rx of latent syphilis

A

3 doses of PNC

251
Q

rx of latent syphilis si allergy a la PNC

A

dox pdt 14 jours

252
Q

rx of tertiary syphilis

A

PNC G pendant 14 jours

253
Q

rx of tertiary syphilis si allergy a la PNC

A

ceftriaxone pdt 14 jours

254
Q

rx of pregnancy

A

PNC

255
Q

rx of pregnancy si allergy a la PNC

A

desensitization plus

PNC

256
Q

tertiairy syphilis in eyes

A

argill robertson pupil

257
Q

tertiairy syphilis in neurology(2)

A

tabes dorsalis

dementia

258
Q

tertiairy syphilis in cardio vx(2)

A

aneurism

insuffisance aortique

259
Q

tertiairy syphilis in skin involvement

A

gummas

260
Q

clue for blastomycosis(4)

A

cough
wartlike skin lesion
bone osteomyelitis
orchite

261
Q

pneumoniae staph aureus(2)

A

pneumatocele=

multiple thin walled cavities

262
Q

post influenza infection(3)

A

staph aureus
streptococcus pneumoniae
Hi flu

263
Q

cause of necrotizing pneumoniae

A

staph aureus

264
Q

5 criteria for lyme disease prophylaxis

A 
attached tick(adult or nymphal)
tick attached more than 36 h ou engorged
pas de contreindication a dox
tick removal within 72 h
local burgdoferri rate infection >/20%
265
Q

area with lyme disease >/ 20 % rate of infection

A

new england

266
Q

esophagitis in hiv patient with normal oral mucosa(2)

A

HSV

CMV

267
Q

clue for viral encephalitis

A

high lymphocytes in CSF

268
Q

rx of viral encephalitis

A

acyclovir

269
Q

normal csf analysis

A

glucose 45-80
WBC 0-5
protein 18-58

270
Q

how to differentiate bacteria from TB meningitis(3)

A

both protein > 400
both high WBC but > 1000 bacteria
glucose <10 TB

271
Q

meningitidis with normal glucose

A

viral

272
Q

protein in viral meningitidis

A

< 100

273
Q

guillain barre CSF(2)

A

high protein

normal WBC

274
Q

endocarditis in intact valve cardiac in patient with poor hygiene or after dental manipulation

A

HACEK group

275
Q

HACEK group(5)

A 
hemophilus aprophilus
aggregatibacter actinomycetam comitans
cardiobacterium hominis
eiknella corrodens
kingella kingae
276
Q

deep ulcer in esophagitis,volcano like

A

herpes

277
Q

superficial ulcer in esophagitis

A

CMV

278
Q

patient with lithiase renal on arv

A

indinavir

279
Q

patient with pancreatitis on arv

A

didanosine

280
Q

patient with acidosis lactate on arv

A

NRTI

281
Q

patient with hypersensitivity syndrome on arv

A

abacavir

282
Q

patient with steven jhonson syndrome on arv

A

NNRTI

283
Q

patient with liver failure on arv

A

nevirapine

284
Q

rapid dx test of histoplasmosis(2)

A

urine antigen test

or serum antigen test

285
Q

rx of mild to moderate histoplasmosis

A

itraconazole IV

286
Q

rx for severe histoplasmosis

A

amphotericin B for 2 weeks,puis itraconazole for 1 year

287
Q

cd4 to have histoplasmosis infection in HIV patient

A

<100

288
Q

people at risk for hydatid cyst

A

sheep breeder

289
Q

bug causing hydatid cyst

A

echinococcus granulosis

290
Q

pneumonia in intubated patient

A

pseudomonas

291
Q

rx of pseudomonas(2)

A

cefepime

piperacilin -tazobactam

292
Q

diarrhea work up in hiv patient(3)

A

stool culture
ova parasites search
c difficile toxin

293
Q

pneumoniae vaccines in HIV criteria

A

cd4> 200

repeat in 5 years

294
Q

indication Hep A vaccine

A 
Hep B and C infection
IV drugs user
Men having sex with men
travel in endemic area
health care worker
295
Q

indication of hiflu B vaccines

A

asplenie

296
Q

indication of menigoccoque vaccines(5)

A 
soldier
college
asplenique
endemic region
complement deficiency
297
Q

laps of time for DT

A

q 5 ans

298
Q

influenza vaccine periodicity

A

annually

299
Q

patient with cd4 < 200 vaccine to avoid

A

MMR

influenza intra nasal

300
Q

osteomyelitis in adult after nail wound puncture

A

pseudomonas

301
Q

how much time will be needed to see osteomyelitis symptom on xray

A

after 2 weeks

302
Q

rx of osteomyelitis in nail puncture wound

A

quinolones

303
Q

pneumonia in nursing home

A

s pneumoniae

304
Q

triad of erlichiosis(3)

A

low platelet
low wbc
increase transaminase

305
Q

clue for mucormycosis

A

diabetic patient with facial pain and bloody nasal discharge

306
Q

EP for mucormycosis

A

right side nasal turbinate is necrotic

307
Q

rx of mucormycosis(2)

A

debridement

amphotericin B

308
Q

bug causing mucormycosis

A

rhizopus a fungi

koh positif

309
Q

animals of high risk for rabies(5)

A 
bat 
racoon
fox
coyote
skunk
310
Q

animals with low risk for rabies(5)

A 
mouse
rabbit
rat
squirrell
chipmunk
311
Q

in case of dog bite what to do(2)

A

observe for 10 days

si no changes pas de prophylaxis

312
Q

management of bit ein high risk animal

A

post exposure prophylaxis if animal can’t be tested

313
Q

for low risk animal what to do

A

no prophylaxis

314
Q

management of bite bat

A

clean the wound

vaccines plus immunoglobulin in unvaccinated individuals

315
Q

malignant of otitis externa malignant

A

pseudomonas

316
Q

terrain for malignant otitis externa

A

diabetics

317
Q

clue for pseudomonas infection in ears(2)

A

ear pain

granulation tissue in the external anatomic canal

318
Q

pseudomonas involvement(4)

A

burn
otite externe in diabetics
ostomyelitis in nail woun poncture
pneumonie chez les intubes

319
Q

quid of osler nodes and meaning(2)

A

lesions on fingertips

endocarditis

320
Q

patient with rhumatic heart disease develop fever and cardiac murmur after cystocopy

A

enterococcus fecalis(enterococcus)

321
Q

immunodepression with meningitidis csf showing encapsulated yeast

A

criptococcus neoformans

322
Q

patient with infective endocarditis,first step

A

blood culture(not echo) positive for stap,strep or enterococci

323
Q

Major duke criteria

A

blood culture

echo

324
Q

echo finding in endocarditis

A

vegetation

325
Q

Minor criteria for duke(5)

A 
fever
IV drug user
predisposing cardiac problem
embolic phenomenon
immunologic phenomenon
positive blood culture other than the above criteria
326
Q

immunologic phenomenon in endocarditis

A

glomerulonephritis

327
Q

Most common finding in endocarditis 3/4 patient

A

fever

heart murmur

328
Q

positive duke criteria(2)

A

2 major et 1 minor or

3 minor plus one major

329
Q

possible endocarditis

A

1 minor plus 1 major or

3 minors

330
Q

quid of roth spots

A

retinal hemorrage

331
Q

quid of criteria

A

heps to approach patient more methodically

332
Q

BCC appearance

A

reddish patch or irritated area
shiny bump or nodule pearly translucent often pikn red or white
pink growth with slightly elevated border and a crusted indentation in the center
scarlike area with white waxy or yellowwith poorly definedborders

333
Q

skin involvement in IE(4)

A

osler nodes
Janeway lesion
petechiae
splinter hemmorrages

334
Q

difference between CMV and EBV(3)

A

no sore throat
no adenopathy in CMV
mononucleosis like syndrome

335
Q

IE after bronchoscopy or endoscopy

A

viridans group

336
Q

3 phases of malaria

A

cold stage
hot stage
diaphoresis

337
Q

why diabetes are prone to foot ulcer(2)

A

arterial insufficiency

peripheral neuropathy

338
Q

staghorn calculi

A

struvite calculi

339
Q

what to rx infection in presence of struvite calculi(2)

A

antio

remove all fragments of calculi

340
Q

what to do in presence in febrile neutropenia

A

admit the patient

341
Q

tick borne disease with no rash

A

babesiosis

342
Q

babesiosis with purpura or petechiae

A

low platelet

343
Q

PCP xray

A

intersticial infiltrate

344
Q

blood test in PCP

A

LDH High

345
Q

why amantadine rimantadine limitation

A

act only on influenza

346
Q

site of invasion of sporotrichosis

A

lymphatics to form nodules and skin ulcer

347
Q

hematochezia and lower abdominal cramps (5)

A 
cmv
c difficile
shigella
e Hystolytica
campylobacter
348
Q

biopsy in CMV

A

owl’s eye effect

349
Q

most commonly organ involved in nocardia infection

A

lung

350
Q

in bladder catheterization how bacteria get in the bladder

A

by biofilm formation

351
Q

skin lesion of bacillary angiomatosis

A

friable exophytic vascular non tender nodu;es

352
Q

diarrhea after consuming rice in chinese restaurant

A

bacillus cereus

353
Q

condition to have esophagitis in hiv

A

cd4 <100

354
Q

most common valvular dysfunctions causing IE

A

mitral regurgitation

355
Q

clue skin of blastomycosis(3)

A

wart like lesions
violaceous lesions
skin ulcers

356
Q

How to detach the tick in Lyme

A

with tweezer

357
Q

condition to use prophylaxis in Lyme

A

all 5 criteria should be met

358
Q

risk of IE caused by HACEK

A

periondotal infection

359
Q

bugs causing septicemia in hemochromatosis

A

lysteria
vibrio vulnificus
yersinia enterolytica

360
Q

why septicemia in hemochromatosis(2)

A

impaired phagocytosis

increase bacterial virulence in presence of high iron serum

361
Q

when to vaccinate for HPV(2)

A

9-26 ans femme

11-26 ans homme

362
Q

vaccin contre indique in HIV si cd4 <200(4)

A

MMR
varicella
zoster
influenza intra nasal

363
Q

rx of cryptococcus cerebral

A

amphotericin plus flucytosine

364
Q

bug causing erysipela

A

b hemolytic du groupe A(S pyogenes)

365
Q

skin lesion in erysipela

A

sharply demarcated edematous erythematous tender skin lesions with raised border

366
Q

meningitis causes in infants (<3mon)

A

GBS, E coli, Klensiella, L monocytogenes

367
Q

empiric tx for meningitis in infants (<3mon)

A

cefotaxime + ampillin + vancomycin

Step 2 CK (primary set) (22 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions