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ZMSRA > ID > Flashcards

ID Flashcards

1
Q

Campylobacter mx

A

Usually self limiting
Clarithromycin in severe or immmunocompromised

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2
Q

Chlamydia mx

A

7 day doxycycline first line
Azithromycin if pregnant

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3
Q

Legionella mx

A

Erythomycin/ clarity,ycin

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4
Q

Herpes simplex virus features

A

primary infection: may present with a severe gingivostomatitis
cold sores HSV 1
painful genital ulceration HSV 2

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5
Q

Herpes simplex mx

A

gingivostomatitis: oral aciclovir, chlorhexidine mouthwash
cold sores: topical aciclovir although the evidence base for this is modest
genital herpes: oral aciclovir. Some patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer term aciclovir

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6
Q

Herpes zoster opthal,icus mx

A

Oral antivirals
Urgent opth rv

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7
Q

Curb score criteria

A

CConfusion (abbreviated mental test score <= 8/10)
RRespiration rate >= 30/min
BBlood pressure: systolic <= 90 mmHg and/or diastolic <= 60 mmHg
65ged >= 65 years

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8
Q

Ix in grilling barre

A

Abnormal nerve conduction studies
Rise in wcc on lp

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9
Q

DIC typical bloods

A

↓ platelets
↓ fibrinogen
↑ PT & APTT
↑ fibrinogen degradation products

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10
Q

Ecoli features

A

Common amongst travellers
Watery stools
Abdominal cramps and nausea

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11
Q

Giardiasis Features

A

Prolonged, non-bloody diarrhoea

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12
Q

Cholera features

A

Profuse, watery diarrhoea
Severe dehydration resulting in weight loss
Not common amongst travellers

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13
Q

Shigella features

A

Bloody diarrhoea
Vomiting and abdominal pain

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14
Q

Campylobacter features

A

A flu-like prodrome is usually followed by crampy abdominal pains, fever and diarrhoea which may be bloody
May mimic appendicitis
Complications include Guillain-Barre syndrome

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15
Q

Amoebiasis features

A

Gradual onset bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain and tenderness which may last for several weeks

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16
Q

Most common cause of pneumonia in alcohol dependence

A

Klebsiella pneumoniae

17
Q

Which bacteria oresents as atypical (or ‘walking’) pneumonia with gradual onset of symptoms over several weeks

A

Mycoplasma

18
Q

Which pneumonia is most common after an influenza infection?

A

Staph A

19
Q

Characteristics of pneumococcal pneumonia

A

rapid onset
high fever
pleuritic chest pain
herpes labialis (cold sores)

20
Q

Wounds and tetanus booster

A

Patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines, with the last dose < 10 years ago
no vaccine nor tetanus immunoglobulin is required, regardless of the wound severity

Patient has had a full course of tetanus vaccines, with the last dose > 10 years ago
if tetanus prone wound: reinforcing dose of vaccine
high-risk wounds (e.g. compound fractures, delayed surgical intervention, significant degree of devitalised tissue): reinforcing dose of vaccine + tetanus immunoglobulin

If vaccination history is incomplete or unknown
reinforcing dose of vaccine, regardless of the wound severity
for tetanus prone and high-risk wounds: reinforcing dose of vaccine + tetanus immunoglobulin

21
Q

ebv / infectious mononucleosis mx

A

rest during the early stages, drink plenty of fluid, avoid alcohol
simple analgesia for any aches or pains
consensus guidance in the UK is to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture

22
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis hep C

A

monthly PCR - if seroconversion then interferon +/- ribavirin

23
Q

Post exposure prophylaxis HIv

A

Oral anti retrovirals ASAP for 4 weeks
12week test post exposure

24
Q

Varicella zoster post exposure prophylaxis

A

VZIG for IgG negative pregnant women/immunosuppressed

25
Q

Haemophilus influenza features

A

Community-acquired pneumonia
Most common cause of bronchiectasis exacerbations
Acute epiglottitis

26
Q

Staph A Pnuemknia features

A

Pneumonia, particularly following influenza

27
Q

Mycoplasmampneumojiae features

A

Atypical pneumonia

Flu-like symptoms classically precede a dry cough. Complications include haemolytic anaemia and erythema multiforme

28
Q

Legionella oneumophilia features

A

Atypical pneumonia

Classically spread by air-conditioning systems, causes dry cough. Lymphopenia, deranged liver function tests and hyponatraemia may be seen

29
Q

Pneumonitis jerovicci features

A

Common cause of pneumonia in HIV patients. Typically patients have few chest signs and develop exertional dyspnoea

30
Q

Mx toxoplasmosis

A

No treatment is usually required unless the patient has a severe infection or is immunosuppressed

31
Q

Kaposi sarcoma features

A

caused by HHV-8 (human herpes virus 8)
presents as purple papules or plaques on the skin or mucosa (e.g. gastrointestinal and respiratory tract)
skin lesions may later ulcerate
respiratory involvement may cause massive haemoptysis and pleural effusion
radiotherapy + resection

32
Q

Trichomonas
features

A

Trichomonas vaginalisis a highly motile, flagellated protozoan parasite. Trichomoniasis is a sexually transmitted infection (STI).

Features

vaginal discharge: offensive, yellow/green, frothy

vulvovaginitis

strawberry cervix

pH > 4.5

in men is usually asymptomatic but may cause urethritis

33
Q

Trichomonas
management

A

oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although the BNF also supports the use of a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole

34
Q

Different types of stye

A

external (hordeolum externum): infection (usually staphylococcal) of sebum producing or glands of sweat glands
internal (hordeolum internum): infection of the Meibomian glands. May leave a residual chalazion (Meibomian cyst)
management includes hot compresses and analgesia. CKS only recommend topical antibiotics if there is an associated conjunctivitis

35
Q

What is a chalazion

A

retention cyst of the Meibomian gland. It presents as a firm painless lump in the eyelid. The majority of cases resolve spontaneously but some require surgical drainage

36
Q

Enteric fever features

A

initially systemic upset as above
relative bradycardia
abdominal pain, distension
constipation: although Salmonella is a recognised cause of diarrhoea, constipation is more common in typhoid
rose spots

37
Q

labs previous Hep B imms

A

anti-HBs positive, all others negative

38
Q

labs previas Hep B infection >6month
not a carrier

A

anti-HBc positive, HBsAg negative

39
Q

previous hepatitis B, now a carrier:

A

anti-HBc positive, HBsAg positive

ZMSRA (12 decks)

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