ID Flashcards

1
Q

Antibiotic treatment options for MRSA are

A

Doxycycline
Clindamycin
Vancomycin
Teicoplanin
Linezolid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

ESBL examples

A

E.coli

Klebsiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

ESBLs are usually sensitive to

A

Carbapenems such as meropenem or imipenem.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Amoxicillin covers

A

Streptococcus, listeria and enterococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Switch to co-amoxiclav to additionally cover

A

Staphylococcus, haemophilus and e. coli (UTIs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Switch to tazocin to additionally cover

A

Pseudomonas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Switch to meropenem to additionally cover

A

ESBLs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

For suspected C diff

A

Oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Add teicoplanin or vancomycin to cover

A

MRSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Add clarithromycin or doxycycline to cover

A

Atypicals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Atypicals include

A

Legions – Legionella pneumophila
Psittaci – Chlamydia psittaci
M – Mycoplasma pneumoniae
C – Chlamydydophila pneumoniae
Qs – Q fever (coxiella burneti)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Staphylococcus aureus may cause chest infections in patients with

A

CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa may cause chest infections in patients with

A

Cystic fibrosis or bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An appropriate initial antibiotic in the community for UTI would be

A

Trimethoprim
Nitrofurantoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Nitrofurantoin and pregnancy

A

Generally avoided in the third trimester as it is linked with haemolytic anaemia in the newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Trimethoprim and pregnancy

A

Safe in pregnancy but avoided in the first trimester or if they are on another medication that affects folic acid (such as anti-epileptics) due to the anti-folate effects.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Antibiotic of choice for skin infections

A

Flucloxacillin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Bacterial tonsillitis is most commonly caused by

A

Group A Streptococcus (GAS) infections, mainly streptococcus pyogenes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Otitis media, sinusitis and tonsillitis not caused by GAS are most commonly caused by

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Other causes of otitis media, sinusitis and tonsillitis:
Haemophilus influenzae
Morazella catarrhalis
Staphylococcus aureus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Centor criteria for tonsilitis

A

Centor Criteria are used to estimate the probability that tonsillitis is due to a bacteria infection, and therefore requires antibiotics.

A score of < 3 indicates they are unlikely to benefit from an antibiotic and antibiotics should not routinely be given.

A score of ≥ 3 gives a 40 – 60 % probability of bacterial tonsillitis and it is appropriate to offer antibiotics. One point is given for each of the following:

Fever > 38ºC
Tonsillar exudates
Absence of cough
Tender anterior cervical lymph nodes (lymphadenopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

First line antibiotics for tonsillitis

A

Penicillin V (also called phenoxymethylpenicillin) for a 10 day course is typically first line.

Alternatives antibiotics and for a broader spectrum of activity:
Co-amoxiclav
Clarithromycin
Doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Otitis media on examination

A

Examination will reveal a bulging red tympanic membrane. If the ear drum perforates there can be discharge from the ear.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Why are Cephalosporins avoided

A

High risk of C.diff development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

First line for Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis

A

Pip Taz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What should be avoided if E Coli gastroenteritis is suspected?
The use of antibiotics increases the risk of haemolytic uraemic syndrome therefore antibiotics should be avoided if E. coli gastroenteritis is considered
26
Common cause of travellers diarrhoea
Campylobacter
27
The most common causes of bacterial meningitis in children and adults is
Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcus) and Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus).
28
Most common cause of bacterial meningitis in neonates
Group B Streptococcus (GBS). GBS is usually contracted during birth from the GBS bacteria that can often live harmlessly in the mothers vagina.
29
Two special tests you can perform to look for meningeal irritation
Kernigs Test Brudzinski’s Test
30
Kernig’s test
Involves lying the patient on their back, flexing one hip and knee to 90 degrees and then slowly straightening the knee whilst keeping the hip flexed at 90 degrees. This creates a slight stretch in the meninges and where there is meningitis will produce spinal pain or resistance to this movement.
31
Brudzinski’s test
Involves lying the patient flat on their back and gently using your hands to lift their head and neck off the bed and flex their chin to their chest. A positive test is when this causes the patient to involuntarily flex their hips and knees.
32
Children seen in the primary care setting with suspected meningitis AND a non blanching rash should receive urgent
Injection (IM or IV) of benzylpenicillin prior to transfer to hospital as time is so important
33
Antibiotic for meningitis
< 3 months – cefotaxime plus amoxicillin (the amoxicillin is to cover listeria contracted during pregnancy from the mother) > 3 months – ceftriaxone
34
Are bacteria meningitis and meningococcal infection are notifiable diseases?
Yes
35
Complications of meningitis
Hearing loss is a key complication Seizures and epilepsy Cognitive impairment and learning disability Memory loss Focal neurological deficits such as limb weakness or spasticity
36
Mantoux test indicates
Previous vaccination, latent or active TB.
37
When is IGRA used
The IGRA test is used in patients that do not have features of active TB but do have a positive Mantoux test to confirm a diagnosis of latent TB.
38
Management of latent TB
Otherwise healthy patients do not necessarily need treatment for latent TB. Patients at risk of reactivation of latent TB can be treated with either Isoniazid and rifampicin for 3 months Isoniazid for 6 months
39
Management of active TB
RIPE is the mnemonic used to remember the treatment for TB. It involves a combination of 4 drugs used at the same time: R – Rifampicin for 6 months I – Isoniazid for 6 months P – Pyrazinamide for 2 months E – Ethambutol for 2 months
40
Isoniazid side effect and therefore is prescribed alongside
Peripheral neuropathy Vitamin B6 pyridoxine
41
Rifampicin can cause
Red/orange discolouration of secretions like urine and tears. It is a potent inducer of cytochrome P450 enzymes therefore reduces the effect of drugs metabolised by this system. This is important for medications such as the contraceptive pill.
42
Ethambutol can cause
Colour blindness and reduced visual acuity.
43
Pyrazinamide can cause
Hyperuricaemia (high uric acid levels) resulting in gout.
44
First line treatment for Lyme disease
Doxycyline
45
Second line treatment for Lyme disease (allergy)
Amoxicillin
46
What should be added to antibiotic in treatment of meningitis and why
Steroid Dexamethasone improves outcomes (by reducing neurological sequelae) in the treatment of bacterial meningitis
47
Vaccine avoidance on azathioprine
If you are taking azathioprine or mercaptopurine you should not receive live vaccines, such as: polio, yellow fever, BCG (tuberculosis)
48
Diagnosis for Chlamydia
Chlamydia is diagnosed using nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT). Both urethral swab and first-catch urine samples can be used for NAAT. As first catch urine is as sensitive and less invasive than a urethral swab, this is the investigation of choice.
49
Common cause for non-specific urethritis (dysuria +/- urethral discharge)
Chlamydia trachomatis infection
50
When is rash present in meningitis ?
When there is meningococcal septicaemia
51
When is dexamethasone contradicted in meningitis treatment?
In meningococcal septicaemia - presence of a non-blanching purpuric rash.
52
First line for N. gonorrhoea
IM Ceftriaxone (neisseria!)
53
Second line for N. gonorrhoea
For patients with gonorrhoea, a combination of oral cefixime + oral azithromycin is used if the patient refuses IM ceftriaxone
54
What is used to treat bacterial vaginosis and pelvic inflammatory disease.
Metronidazole
55
Most common cause of oesophagitis in patients with HIV.
Oesophageal candidiasis
56
Swabs for chlamydia and gonorrhoea in women should be taken from the
Vulvo-vaginal area (introitus)
57
When is doxycycline contradicted?
Contraindicated in pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects on foetal long bone growth and potential to cause teeth discolouration in the baby.
58
What antibiotics are used to treat chlamydia in pregnancy?
Azithromycin, erythromycin or amoxicillin
59
First line for syphilis
IM benzathine penicillin
60
Diagnosis of syphilis
Positive non-treponemal test and a positive treponemal-specific test.
61
Non treponemal tests include
Non-treponemal tests include rapid plasma reagin and Venereal Disease Research Laboratory. These tests will investigate the reactivity of serum from patients to a cardiolipin-cholesterol-lecithin antigen and will assess the number of antibodies produced.
62
Treponemal specific tests include
Trepenomal-specific tests include T. pallidum enzyme immunoassay, T. pallidum HaemAgglutination test. These tests will investigate the number of antibodies such as IgM and igG produced by the body directed to the Treponema pallidum .
63
Which type of test for syphilis indicates recovery from infection due to treatment?
When treatment is started, non-treponemal titres will decline. Non-treponemal titres will reduce as these tests detect antibodies directed to specific antigens and damaged host cells. As there is subsequent bacterial death following antibiotic treatment, the damage to the host cells is reduced thus there will be reduced antibodies directed to these. A four-fold decline is considered adequate.
64
Which bacteria causes syphilis ?
Treponema pallidum
65
Perform stool microbiological investigations if
You suspect septicaemia There is blood and/or mucus in the stool or The child is immunocompromised
66
Urethritis in a male, negative for Gonorrhoea and Chlamydia →
?Mycoplasma genitalium
67
URTI symptoms + amoxicillin → rash
?glandular fever
68
Disseminated gonococcal infection triad
Tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, dermatitis
69
Disseminated gonococcal infection pathogen
Neisseria gonorrhoeae