ICU Flashcards

1
Q

how to succeed in the ICU

A

approach the setting systematically
follow lines, leads, and tubes from origins to insertions
know the precautions
when in doubt, ask the ICU nurse!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the nature of the ICU/CCU/Acute Care Setting

A
patient
family
staff
life-changing injury or illness
environmental and psychological effects
sleep pattern disturbances
ICU/CCU psychosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

environmental stresses of the ICU on the patient

A
crowding
bright lights
strong odors
endless activity
noise
touch
pain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

psychological stresses of the ICU on the patient

A
diminished dignity and self-esteem
powerlessness
vulnerability
fear
anxiety
isolation
spiritual distress
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

ICU psychosis is the result of

A

environmental and psychological stresses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

ICU psychosis

A

delirium usually occurring in the 3rd to 7th day of stay (fatigue, confusions, distraction, anxiety, hallucinations) caused by: pain, drug side effects, ICU/CCU environment itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

key players in the ICU

A

PTs/PTAs
critical care nurses
respiratory therapists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

role of PTs/PTAs in the ICU

A

provide services that restore function, improve mobility, relieve pain, and prevent or limit permanent physical disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

role of the critical care nurse

A

provide a high level of skilled nursing for total patient care and often facilitate communication among all the people involved in the care of the patient

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

role of respiratory therapists in the ICU

A

work with the critical care team to monitor and promote airway management of the critical care patient. this may include: oxygen therapy, mechanical ventilations management, aerosol medication therapy, cardiorespiratory monitoring, and patient and caregiver education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

why do you check in with the ICU nurse before performing treatment?

A

saves you time
gives you up-to-the-minute status report
can look in on patient on your way to the nurse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

general ICU observation skill

A

snapshot of the patient as you enter the room
systematic approach of taking inventory of a patient’s room
be prepared and have a plan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are some cardiac monitoring devices?

A
digital monitor
ECG/EKG
holter monitor/telemetry
external transcutaneous pacemaker
transthoracic pacing
left ventricular assistive device (LVAD)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

LVAD

A

left ventricular assistive device

implanted mechanical device that helps maintain pumping ability of the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

telemetry and monitors

A

usually for continuous monitoring
can sometimes be placed on standby
can view and print vital signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

blood pressure should be monitored…

A

before, during, and after activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

don’t take blood pressure in the arm with a

A

pink band

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

peripheral IV lines

A

inserted by nurse
hands, arms, or feet
changed often
may infiltrate (red and puffy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

central IV lines

A
inserted by physician/surgeon
within large vein, usually superior or inferior vena cava
neck or chest
usually in place for several weeks
do not infiltrate
multipurpose
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

can an IV line be central?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

can a nurse put a central IV line in?

A

no; a central IV line is put in place by a physician/surgeon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how often does a central line get changed?

A

they are used for long-term use

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

can an IV pole serve as a gait device?

A

yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how could you make treatment easier if you would like to work on mobility with a patient connected to an IV line?

A

ask the nursing staff to see if they can disconnect the IV prior to mobilization; making treatment easier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

central venous line red flag notes

A

inserted through large vein and advanced to the superior vena cava
delivers meds, fluids, blood and total parenteral nutrition
monitors central venous pressure (CVP) via transducer and monitor
allows venous blood draws
common entry sites: subclavian, internal/external jugular, femoral
complications: pneumothorax, venous air embolism
disconnection danger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

CVP line

A

central venous pressure line
if the CVP line is disconnected for patient mobilization, it will need to be recalibrated by the nurse to monitor the patient accurately

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

types of central venous lines

A
peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC)
tunneled catheter (hickman)
implanted port (port-a-cath)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

subclavian central line insertion precautions

A

may have pain with full shoulder ROM. limit to 90˚ because of long catheter extending into right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

jugular central line insertion precautions

A

may have pain with full cervical ROM limit cervical ROM as much as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

when there is a PICC line, be sure to NOT ____ __ ____ when applying ____ ____

A

pull on ends; gait belt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

port-a-cath

A

implanted line with access under the skin
needle inserted through skin and into rubber diaphragm
can stay in place for years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

arterial lines (A lines)

A

catheter inserted into an artery (radial or femoral)
connected to pressure tubing and pressure bag: transducer and monitor
clear line that resembles an IV line but does not deliver fluid
measures arterial blood pressure, used to draw blood gases
provides constant readout of a patient’s blood pressure
provides relatively painless access to obtain blood for lab
bags of fluid are present to flush out the line to prevent clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

peripheral pulse = _____ ____ => approximation of what’s happening at the heart

A

pulse rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

2 reasons for inserting an A line

A
  1. to provide a constant beat to beat measurement of the systolic, diastolic, and mean arterial blood pressures (MAP)
  2. frequent gathering of arterial blood gas samples
35
Q

note A line ________ and ________ and monitor them during PT sessions

A

waveform and readings

36
Q

transducer

A

small computer chip
converts E from pressure into digital reading
must be leveled at mid-axillary line, 4 ICS (think heart)
used with all types of central lines

37
Q

A line yellow flags

A
  1. the transducer must be level with the patient’s heart. alert RN/staff any time bed height is to be adjusted. if you move the patient, the transducer must be zeroed by the nurse or the measurement will no longer be accurate
  2. femoral insertion line may kink or break with hip flexion. sitting at 90˚ is usually prohibited. need order from MD to mobilize patients with femoral artery lines
38
Q

A line red flags

A

keep A-line connections secure. if disconnected crimp line/turn stop cock, call for help!
stop flow of blood and call for help

39
Q

what do you do if you accidentally disconnect an A-line?

A

stop flow of blood and call for help

40
Q

PA catheter/ Swan-Ganz

A

long multi-lumen catheter is inserted through the internal jugular vein or subclavian vein and then threaded into heart chambers
gives entire hemodynamic profile for critically ill pts
balloon at tip inflates only to measure PCWP
infuses med, fluids, blood, and TPN
monitors body temperature
allows for rapid blood draws

41
Q

Swan-Ganz yellow flags

A

minimal mobility; check with nurse
avoid excessive movement of the line which could cause it to become dislodged or advanced further into the pulmonary artery

42
Q

Swan-Ganz red flags

A

mobility is contraindicated when the balloon is in the wedged position within the pulmonary artery due to risk of tearing the arterial wall
communication and coordination with RN/ICU staff are key
PT must have MD OOB activity order
subclavian insertion, limit shoulder ROM to 90˚ due to long catheter passing through heart
jugular insertion: limit cervical ROM as much as possible
if anything gets disconnected or dislodged, crimp, call, and don’t panic

43
Q

PiCCO Line

A
pulse contour cardiac output
pulmonary artery catheter
newer hemodynamic monitoring system
swan-like values can be obtained
requires an arterial line and a central line
44
Q

central line Red Flags

A

never disconnect –> can cause air embolism
femoral line–hip flexion precaution
subclavian–no shoulder elevation > 90˚
jugular–avoid neck motions

45
Q

what are some types of cardiac devices?

A

FIGURE THIS OUT

46
Q

inta-aortic balloon pump (IABP)

A

lessens heart work load; improves coronary perfusion
cannot flex hip
cannot raise patient’s head of bed greater than 40˚

47
Q

temporary pacemaker

A

box must be securely held during mobility
when pacing wires are pulled, patient is placed on bed rest for 1 hour because patient could have arrhythmia due to heart irritation

48
Q

sequential compression devices

A

electronic pump that squeezes air through plastic sleeves secured to the patient’s legs with velcro. the stronger compression occurs at the ankle and less more proximally in order to pump venous blood proximally
helps prevent blood clots

49
Q

pulse oximeter yellow flags

A

ideally keep O2 sat > 90% even while pt. is exercising
fingernail polish will prevent accurate reading
hypoxia under diagnosed in pts. with darkly pigmented skin

50
Q

nasal cannula concentration and delivery rate

A

20-40% 1-6l/min

51
Q

simple mask concentration and delivery rate

A

40-60% 5-10l/m

52
Q

aerosol mask concentration and delivery rate

A

28-95% 8-15l/min

53
Q

partial rebreather concentration and delivery rate

A

70-90% 4-10l/m

54
Q

non-rebreather concentration and delivery rate

A

90-100% 10l/m

55
Q

which oxygen delivery device is used to deliver the greatest concentration at the fasted rate?

A

non-rebreather

56
Q

pt. on 2L O2 and pulse ox is low, what should you do next?

A

look at patient; recheck reading; look at the oxygen

57
Q

endotracheal tube (ETT)

A

inserted through the mouth, down the throat, down through the trachea and into the bronchus
tube is connected to ventilator

58
Q

tracheal tube

A

inserted through a surgical opening in the neck and trachea

tube is connected to ventilator

59
Q

what is the difference between and endotracheal tube and a tracheal tube

A

endotracheal tube is inserted through the mouth; tracheal tube is inserted directly into the trachea

60
Q

a patient is on a ventilator, what should you make sure to do before moving the patient?

A

clear tubing of condensation to prevent pneumonia

61
Q

naso- or endotracheal tube yellow flags

A

need to clear tubing of condensation prior to mobilizing the patient to prevent fluid flowing down tube and back into patient’s lungs
limit pulling on the tube, which can elicit cough/gag by keeping tubes supported

62
Q

ventilator

A

uses positive pressure to inflate lungs

63
Q

ETT and ventilator yellow flags

A

empty water/condensation canisters first
avoid excess head/neck movement
mobility is possible, even while patient is intubated
get RN to assist; check MD activity order

64
Q

can you get someone on a ventilator out of bed?

A

yes

65
Q

incentive spirometry

A

used to help breathe deeper and prevent pneumonia
over inflate alveoli to prevent pneumonia
“hover” technique
inspiration

66
Q

deep/ET suction

A

use of a long, flexible tube through the ETT or trach to suction within the airway

67
Q

yankauer suction

A

plastic “straw” connected to wall suction with long tubing. allows for suction or oral cavity. suctions people who are on ventilators

68
Q

passy-muir vlave (PMV)

A

used over trach to allow patient to speak
SLP should be consulted to guide use during activity as valve does increase pt’s breathing effort
cuff must be deflated while PMV is in use, and only ST/RT can deflate cuff

69
Q

chest tube

A

inserted into pleural space to allow for drainage of blood, pus, air, fluid
promotes lung expansion
drains via suction into pleuro-vac container at foot of bed
MD orders required to use portable suction units for ambulation

70
Q

chest tube red flags

A

always keep drainage container below level of chest tube insertion
if pt. is on continuous suction, always check with RN/MD if okay to disconnect suction. only disconnect suction tubing at container, not at wall suction canister
keep pleuro-vac vertical. if drainage container falls over, right it and notify nurse immediately
if chest tube becomes dislodged, quickly cover opening in chest with gloved hand to create seal and notify RN

71
Q

chest tube yellow flags

A

be careful where you place gait belt. usually best above chest tube

72
Q

types of drainage tubes/devices

A

rectal tube
jackson-pratt
hemovac
autovac

73
Q

jackson-pratt

A

tubes attached to small plastic or rubber resevoirs that remove blood and other fluid

74
Q

drainage tube yellow flags

A

be sure drain is secure before mobilizing–either well taped or safety pinned to patient’s gown
if you pin to gown, unpin at end of session so if gown is changed later, drain will not be pulled out

75
Q

gastrostomy tube

A

large rubber tube placed directly into the stomach

used for long term or permanent feeding of a patient

76
Q

PEG tube yellow flags

A

often have abdominal binders to prevent pull on tube
do not lay HOB lower than 30 degrees if feeding is running due to risk of aspiration
be careful with gait belt placement

77
Q

what kinds of things could you do without lying down?

A

scooting–>anything seated/standing

78
Q

tube feeding yellow flags

A

NG, G&J tubes can sometimes be disconnected
TFs must be stopped prior to therapy (½ hour for adult; 1 hour for peds)
do not lay patient flat for ½-1 hour after TF

79
Q

can you put the gait belt over a binder over a PEG tube?

A

yes

80
Q

colostomy yellow flags

A

be sure seal is good
be sure bag is not overly full before mobilizing patient as it can leak
keep seal dry
be careful with gait belt placement

81
Q

foley yellow flags

A

observe urine–quantity and quality
drain urine from tubing into bag before mobility activities. may need to empty bag
know where bag is at all times during bed mobility,, transfers, and ambulation
keep collection bag below bladder
place tubing over leg when positioning in bed
keep tubing off floor. may clip bag to gown with green clip
watch out for pinching or pulling by side rails
watch gait belt placement with urostomy/colostomy bags
consider patient’s dignity

82
Q

hemodialysis

A

replaces the filtration function of the kidneys
circulating the patient’s blood outside the body
average of 3x/wk for 3-4 hours per session
affects energy level, BP

83
Q

what should you do before mobility with someone who has had an epidural?

A

test motor control