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ASCI 2120 Exam 3 > iClicker/Pre-Lecture/Post-Lecture > Flashcards

iClicker/Pre-Lecture/Post-Lecture Flashcards

1
Q

The myocardium is the middle and thickest layer of heart wall and is made up of the cardiac muscle fibers that are branched and joined end-to-end by ____?
A) Neuromuscular junction
B) Synapses
C) Intercalated discs
D) Tendons

A

C) Intercalated discs

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2
Q

Match the capillaries to their corresponding functions:
1) Sinusoid capillaries
2) Continuous capillaries
3) Fenestrated capillaries
(A) Allow diffusion of water and small solutes
(B) Allows rapid exchange of water and other solutes
(C) Allows free exchange of water and plasma

A

1) C
2) A
3) B

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3
Q

Which of the following hormones increases heart rate and contractility?
A) Insulin
B) Thyroxine
C) Aldosterone
D) Epinephrine

A

D) Epinephrine

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4
Q

What is the function of the sinoatrial (SA) node in the heart?
A) Initiating the heartbeat and setting the heart rate
B) Transmitting electrical impulses to the ventricles
C) Preventing backflow of blood into the atria
D) Regulating blood pressure within the chambers of the heart

A

A)

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5
Q

Put the heart impulse conduction in the correct order:
Action potentials are conducted from the SA node to the atrial muscle
Resting state
Action potentials spread upward through the ventricular muscle
Action potentials travel rapidly through the conduction system to the apex
An action potential is initiated in the SA node

A

1) An action potential is initiated in the SA node
2) Action potentials are conducted from the SA node to the atrial muscle
3) Action potentials travel rapidly through the conduction system to the apex
4) Action potentials spread upward through the ventricular muscle
5) Resting state

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6
Q

During the plateau phase of the cardiac action potential, which ion channels are primarily responsible for maintaining membrane potential?
A) Voltage-gated sodium channels
B) Voltage-gated potassium channels
C) L-type calcium channels
D) Ligand-gated potassium channels

A

C)

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7
Q

(Check all that apply) What are the neural mechanisms for the cardiovascular center?
A) Cardioacceleratory center
B) Cardioinhibitory center
C) Vasomotors center
D) Vagus nerve center

A

A, B, and C

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8
Q

(Check all that apply) During exercise, sympathetic nervous system activation leads to:
A) Vasodilation of arterioles
B) Increased heart rate
C) Increased strove volume
D) Increased cardiac output

A

B, C, and D

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9
Q

The valve which prevents backflow of blood from right ventricle to right atria is ______.
A) Bicuspid
B) Mitral
C) Tricuspid
D) Semilunar

A

C) Tricuspid valve

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10
Q

Which chamber of the heart pumps blood into the aorta?
A) Left atria
B) Right atria
C) Left ventricle
D) Right ventricle

A

C) Left ventricle

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11
Q

Which of the following is not part of the cardiac conduction system?
A) Sinoatrial node
B) Atrioventricular node
C) Purkinje fiber system
D) Endocardium

A

D) Endocardium

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12
Q

Which of the following blood flow sequences is correct?
A) arteries to arterioles to capillaries to venules to veins to heart
B) arteries to arterioles to heart to venules to veins to capillaries
C) heart to veins to venules to capillaries to arterioles to arteries
D) veins to venules to capillaries to arterioles to arteries to heart

A

A) arteries to arterioles to capillaries to venules to veins to heart

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13
Q

The formed elements of blood include:
A) Red blood cells
B) White blood cells
C) Platelets
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

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14
Q

The protein in erythrocytes which binds oxygen is
A) myoglobin
B) hemoglobin
C) oxyglobin
D) immunoglobulin

A

B)

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15
Q

The white blood cells that contain red granules in the cytoplasm and have a bilobed nucleus are
A) basophils
B) neutrophils
C) eosinophils
D) lymphocytes

A

C) eosinophils

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16
Q

Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between the lymphatic system and the blood circulatory system?
A) Blood contains white blood cells, but lymph does not
B) Lymphatic capillaries are similar to blood capillaries, but they have closed ends
C) Lymphatic vessels have no valves, but arteries do
D) Blood is filtered by the lymph nodes, but lymph is not

A

B)

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17
Q

Which of the following cells are not involved in nonspecific (innate) immunity?
A) B cells
B) Monocytes
C) Basophils
D) Neutrophils

A

A) B cells

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18
Q

Which of the following statements best describes the difference between innate and specific immunity?
A) Innate immunity is rapid and highly specific, while specific immunity is slower and less targeted.
B) Innate immunity provides a general defense against pathogens and is present at birth, whereas specific immunity is acquired through exposure to antigens and is highly specialized.
C) Innate immunity involves the production of antibodies by B cells, while specific immunity relies on nonspecific physical barriers, such as skin and mucous membranes.
D) Specific immunity is mediated by phagocytic cells such as macrophages, while innate immunity involves the production of memory cells for long-term protection.
E) Innate immunity is primarily responsible for the production of cytokines and chemokines, whereas specific immunity involves the release of histamins and prostaglandins.

A

B)

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19
Q

Which of the following is not a type of white blood cell?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Neutrophils
C) Erythrocytes
D) Monocytes

A

C)

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20
Q

Which type of blood cell is primarily responsible for defending the body against infection?
A) Erythrocytes
B) Platelets
C) Neutrophils
D) Red blood cels

A

C)

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21
Q

Match the white blood cell type with its corresponding function:
1) Neutrophil
2) Basophil
3) Eosinophil
4) Lymphocyte
5) Monocyte
(A) It shows higher cell counts in certain parasitic infections
(B) Produces antibodies and other chemicals and regulates the immune system
(C) Releases histamine, promoting inflammation, and heparin, which prevents clotting formation
(D) Phagocytizes microorganisms and other substances
(E) Phagocytizes bacteria, dead cell fragments, and other debris within tissues

A

1) D
2) C
3) A
4) B
5) E

22
Q

True/False: Hemoglobin consists of four heme groups, each containing an iron ion.

A

True

23
Q

Match the corresponding characteristics of the hemoglobin conformation:
1) It is found in venules
2) Bright red
3) Gases from tissues to lungs
4) Dark red
5) Gases from lungs to peripheral tissues
6) It is usually transported in high pressure
(A) Oxyhemoglobin
(B) Deoxyhemoglobin

A

1) B
2) A
3) B
4) B
5) A
6) A

24
Q

Put the hemostasis events in the correct order:
(A) Attachment of platelets to exposed surfaces, to perform aggregation to form a plug
(B) A cut triggers vascular spasm, smooth muscles contract, and endothelial cell membranes become “sticky”
(C) Converts circulating fibrinogen into insoluble fibrin, trapping the blood cells to form a blood clot

A

B, A, C

25
Q

Which of the following is NOT a function of lymph nodes
A) Regulation of red blood cell levels
B) Filtration of lymph
C) Production of antibodies
D) Activation of immune responses

A

A)

26
Q

_____(1)_____ immunity is ____(2)_____ and provides immediate defense against pathogens upon the first exposure.

A

1) Innate
2) Nonspecific

27
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of nonspecific immunity?
A) Skin
B) Antibodies
C) Phagocytes
D) Mucous membranes

A

B

28
Q

Which cells are responsible for the production of antibodies in specific immunity?
A) Helper T cells
B) B cells
C) Cytotoxic T cells
D) Natural killer cells

A

B)

29
Q

Match the following components of specific immunity with their respective functions:
1) Antibodies
2) Helper T cells
3) Cytotoxic T cells
4) Memory cells
(A) Direct killing of infected cells
(B) Production of cytokines to activate other immune cells
(C) Rapid and enhanced response upon re-exposure to a pathogen
(D) Neutralization of antigens

A

1) D
2) B
3) A
4) C

30
Q

True/False: Antibodies are involved in the process of opsonization, enhancing the phagocytosis of pathogens by immune cells.

A

True

31
Q

True/False: The constant regions of antibodies determine their class (IgG, IgM, etc.) and effector functions.

A

True

32
Q

What are the five cardinal signs of inflammation?

A

Swelling, redness, warmth, pain, and some loss of function.

33
Q

Which of the following is the correct order for the passing of food through the digestive system in a cow?
A) Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, rumen, abomasum, duodenum, jejunum, ileum, cecum, colon, and rectum
B) Mouth, esophagus, pharynx, abomasum, rumen, jejunum, duodenum, ileum, cecum, colon, and rectum
C) Mouth, pharynx, esophagus, abomasum, duodenum, rumen, ileum, jejunum, cecum, colon, and rectum

A

A)

34
Q

The breakdown of food into smaller soluble parts so that it can be absorbed into the bloodstream is called:
A) Digestion
B) Absorption
C) Feeding
D) Nutrition

A

A) Digestion

35
Q

Which of the following is not a tissue layer of the alimentary canal?
A) Mucosa
B) Muscularis
C) Secretin
D) Serosa

A

C) Secretin

36
Q

Waves of muscular contraction that propel the contents of the digestive tract from one point to another are:
A) Segmentations
B) Mastications
C) Pendulums
D) Peristalsis

A

D) Peristalsis

37
Q

Which of the following is not an accessory organ of the digestive system?
A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Spleen
D) Gallbladder

A

C) Spleen

38
Q

When food stretches the stomach wall, initiating local contractions in the stomach muscles to mix and grind the food, it is an example of:
A) Long reflex
B) Short reflex
C) Peristalsis
D) Segmentation

A

B) Short reflex

39
Q

Short reflexes are important for:
A) Coordinating local responses to changes in the luminal environment
B) Initiating complex digestive processes involving higher brain centers
C) Regulation of long-term appetite and energy balance
D) Sensory perception of taste and smell

A

A)

40
Q

Match the stomach cell with its corresponding function:
1) Gastric pits
2) Parietal cells
3) Chief cells
4) G cells
A) Production of mucus
B) Production and secretion of pepsinogen
C) Production and secretion of gastrin
D) Production and secretion of hydrochloric acid

A

1) A
2) D
3) B
4) C

41
Q

When food enters the stomach, the acidic environment triggers the conversion of ____(1)_____ into its active form, ____(2)______.

A

1) pepsinogen
2) pepsin

42
Q

Match the regulation of gastric activity with its corresponding characteristics:
1) The cephalic phase
2) The gastric phase
3) The intestinal phase
(A) Control rate of chyme entry into duodenum
(B) Neural via preganglionic fibers in vagus nerve
(C) Stimulation of gastrin release from G cells
(D) Homogenize and acidify chyme
(E) Prepare stomach for arrival of food
(F) Stimulation of CCK, GIP, and secretin by presence of acid, carbs, and lipids

A

A) 3
B) 1
C) 2
D) 3
E) 1
F) 2

43
Q

Match the ruminant anatomical parts with their corresponding functions:
1) Rumen
2) Reticulum
3) Omasum
4) Abomasum
(A) Absorbs water and nutrients from feed that passes through after its second round of chewing
(B) Digestive enzymes and HCl break down proteins, carbs, and fats into smaller molecules that can be absorbed in the small intestine
(C) Collects smaller digesta particles and moves them into the omasum while the large particles remain in the rumen for further digestion
(D) Symbiotic microorganisms, including bacteria, protozoa, and fungi, break down the cellulose and other complex carbs present in plant material through fermentation

A

1) D
2) C
3) A
4) B

44
Q

True/False: Ruminants have the ability to utilize urea, a nitrogen-containing compound, as a source of ammonia for microbial protein synthesis in the rumen.

A

True

45
Q

Which compartment of the ruminant stomach is primarily affected by vagal indigestion?
A) Rumen
B) Reticulum
C) Omasum
D) Abomasum

A

A) Rumen

46
Q

Enzymes such as pancreatic amylase, lipase, and proteases break down __(1)__, __(2)__, and __(3)__, respectively.

A

1) carbohydrates
2) lipids
3) proteins

47
Q

What is the function of bicarbonate in pancreatic juice?
A) Breaking down proteins
B) Neutralizing stomach acid
C) Neutralizing intestinal bolus
D) Absorbing nutrients

A

B)

48
Q

What is the primary role of cholecystokinin (CCK) in digestion?
A) Stimulating the release of bile from the gallbladder
B) Breaking down carbohydrates into sugars
C) Inhibiting the release of gastric juice from the stomach
D) Activating the production of mucus in the small intestine

A

A)

49
Q

Which hormone stimulates the release of pancreatic juice into the small intestine?
A) Insulin
B) Glucagon
C) Secretin
D) Gastrin

A

C) Secretin

50
Q

True/False: Considering that horses have no gallbladder, the bile secretion is limited and this can impact the lipid diet that is provided to these animals.

A

False

51
Q

Which type of cells in the intestinal epithelium are responsible for producing mucus and bicarbonate-rich secretions?
A) Goblet cells
B) Enteroendocrine cells
C) Paneth cells
D) Enterocytes

A

A)

52
Q

Match the digestive hormone with its corresponding effects:
1) Cholecystokinin (CCK)
2) Gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
3) Gastrin
4) Secretin
(A) Stimulates production of acids and enzymes and increases motility
(B) Inhibits gastric secretion and stimulates production of alkaline buffers
(C) Stimulates release of insulin by pancreatic isles
(D) Stimulates production of pancreatic enzymes

A

1) C
2) B
3) A
4) D

ASCI 2120 Exam 3 (4 decks)

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