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ID Week 2 > ICL 1.16: Virus Wrap-Up > Flashcards

ICL 1.16: Virus Wrap-Up Flashcards

1
Q

how can you differentiate rotavirus from reovirus?

A

rotavirus cause GI infection but reovirus does NOT

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2
Q

which viruses are coronaviridae?

A
  1. SARS

2. MERS

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3
Q

which virus is in the togaviridae family?

A

rubella

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4
Q

which viruses are in the picornaviridae family?

A
  1. HepA
  2. rhinovirus
  3. poliovirus (other enteroviruses too like coxackie)
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5
Q

which viruses are in the caliciviridae family?

A
  1. norovirus

2. sapovirus

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6
Q

which virus is in the orthomyxoviridae family?

A

influenza

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7
Q

which viruses are in the paramyxoviridae family?

A
  1. PIV
  2. MeV
  3. mumps
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8
Q

which viruses are in the pneumoviridae family?

A
  1. RSV

2. HMPV

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9
Q

what are the characteristics of the poliovirus genome?

A

naked, icosahedral, (+) ssRNA

so the genome alone is infectious

replicates in the cytoplasm

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10
Q

how does the poliovirus enter the cell?

A

canyon structure

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11
Q

what are the characteristics of the rhabiesvirus genome?

A

bullet-shaped, enveloped, (-) ssRNA viruses that encode five proteins

so it can’t translate directly, needs a polymerase (L+P)

replicates in the cytoplasm

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12
Q

what are the characteristics of the influenza genome?

A

8 segments of (-) ssRNA

3 types of influenza strains (A, B, and C) - 16 HA serotypes and 9 NA serotypes, which are used to classify different strains

ex. H1N1

the segmented genome promotes genetic diversity caused by mutation (ANTIGENIC DRIFT) and reassortment (ANTIGENIC SHIFT) of segments on infection with two different strains

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13
Q

where does influenza replicate?

A

nucleus because of capstealing

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14
Q

which drugs treat influenza?

A
  1. protein, required for uncoating

2. Zanamivir and oseltamivir - inhibit the neuraminidase (NA) protein

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15
Q

what is antigenic drift?

A

mutation, antigenic drift, caused by errors produced by RNA polymerase.

reason for epidemics

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16
Q

what is antigenic shift?

A

reassortment, antigenic shift, caused by co-infection of viruses.

reason for pandemic

can ONLY happen with segmented viruses

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17
Q

what are the characteristics of the RSV genome?

A

pneumoviridae family = (-) non-segmented ssRNA

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18
Q

what are the characteristics of RSV?

A

forms ‘syncytia’ (giant multinuclear cells)

low-grade fever and wheezing in children

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19
Q

what are the characteristics of the rhinovirus genome?

A

picornaviridae family = naked, icosahedral (+) ssRNA

low optimum temperature for growth

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20
Q

what are the symptoms of rhinovirus?

A

low-grade fever

headache

cough

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21
Q

what are the characteristics of the adenovirus genome?

A

naked, icosahedral linear dsDNA

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22
Q

what are the symptoms of adenovirus?

A

respiratory infection

keratoconjunctivitis

gastroenteritis

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23
Q

how do you prevent adenovirus?

A

there’s a live attenuated vaccine for military use only

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24
Q

what are the characteristics of the influenza genome?

A

orthomyxoviridae family = segmented, (-) ssRNA

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25
Q

what are the symptoms of influenza?

A

shivering

malaise

headache

fever of about 39°C

myalgia (myal – muscle, gia – pain)

backache

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26
Q

how do you prevent influenza?

A

vaccines available: inactivated and live attenuated vaccines

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27
Q

acute viral gastroenteritis:

A. has a 1-3 day incubation period

B. can be fatal due to severe dehydration

C. can be prevented by suitable personal hygiene

D. is spread by the fecal-oral route

E. all of the above

A

E

28
Q

negative stranded means the genome:

A. needs to replicate first and then transcribe

B. is used as a template by cellular polymerase

C. is complementary to the mRNA

D. can initiate infection inside the cells without prior transcription

E. has early and late genes but the latter are transcribed first

A

C. is complementary to the mRNA

29
Q

which property is unique to viruses?

A. they are small in size

B. they replicate only intracellularly

C. their genome can be made of RNA

D. infection involves receptor binding and endocytosis

E. presence of an outer lipid membrane

A

C. their genome can be made of RNA

30
Q

which of the following viruses will be detergent sensitive?

A. polio

B. rabies

C. adenovirus

A

B. rabies

31
Q

which of the following viruses does not encode virion-associated polymerase?

A. rabies

B. infleunza

C. rotavirus

D. poliovirus

E. ebola

A

D. poliovirus

32
Q

the MMR vaccine is used against:

A. mononucleosis, measles and respiratory syncytial virus

B. mycoplasma, mumps and rubella

C. measles, mumps and rabies

D. malaria, melioidosis and respiratory syncytial virus

E. measels, mumps and rubella

A

E. measels, mumps and rubella

33
Q

which of the following processes takes place during the infection cycle of rotaviruses?

A. polyprotein processing

B. membrane fusion

C. transcription

D. reverse trancription

E. budding

A

C. transcription

RNA viruses still go through transcription to make mRNA from the RNA genome so all RNA viruses have to go through transcription no matter what!

34
Q

which of the following are unique for (+)RNA viruses?

A. they require an RNA-dependent polymerase

B. their replicative intermediate is a partially double-stranded structure

C. the genome is converted to ds form as the first step after infection of cells

D. putting the genome RNA alone into cells would result in progeny virus

A

D. putting the genome RNA alone into cells would result in progeny virus

their genome is infectious!

35
Q

you met a 6 year old boy with a low fever and swollen parotid glands. he has been inactive for the last 2 and he tell you that he doesn’t feel so good. he had measles at age 4 but otherwise he has no other medical history. you suspect that the disease is caused by a microbe that belongs to which family?

A

paramyxoviridae

it’s mumps!!

36
Q

what do you do with RSV-infected children?

A

isolate them

37
Q

which is true about rhabdoviridea?

A. egress by killing cells

B. genome is infectious

C. does not require transcription

D. endocytosis and budding for entry and exit

E. rimantidine blocks their replication

A

D. endocytosis and budding for entry and exit

38
Q

what kind of genome do rhabdoviridae have?

A

(-) enveloped ssRNA

39
Q

what kind of genome do coronaviridae have?

A

(+) ssRNA

40
Q

what is true about coronaviridae?

A. genome is infectious

B. transcription in nucleus

C. kills cells for release

D. oseltamivir blocks their replication

E. causes pink eye

A

A. genome is infectious

41
Q

which of the following is true for rotaviruses?

A. they use cap stealing

B. their genome is segmented dsRNA

C. mRNA is synthesized in 3 phases like adenoviruses

D. release takes place by budding

E. their have helical symmetry

A

B. their genome is segmented dsRNA

42
Q

a 7 year old girl recieved one shot of MMR at 7 months old. what should be done with her?

A

give her 2 shots of MMR

anything before 12 months doesn’t count!

43
Q

what is the most important determinant of antigenic shift?

A

reassortment

44
Q

what is the most important determinant of antigenic drift?

A

mutation

45
Q

you’re analyzing samples from patients at a clinic. your last sample is a 45 year old woman who presented with fever, rhinorrhea and dificulty breathing. after processing the sample you isolate an icosahedral virus with DNA. which symptom is also caused by some serotypes of this virus?

A. Reye’s syndrome

B. otitis media

C. croup

D. epilepsy

E. heart disease

F. pink eye

A

F. pink eye

46
Q

a 5 month old baby comes to the hospital with rhinorrhea, fever and cough for the last 2 days. expiratory wheezes are heard during auscultation. what could be sometimes used prophylatically against this disease?

A

monoclonal antibodies

this is RSV!

47
Q

what is the sequence of events during an adenovirus infection?

A
  1. adsorption
  2. endosome acidification
  3. uncoating
  4. DNA synthesis
48
Q

what is the correct sequence of events for a flavivirus infection?

A

receptor-mediated endocytosis –> genome translation –> negative strand synthesis

it’s a (+) ssRNA

49
Q

which virus replicates in the cytoplasm?

A. influenza
B. smallpox
C. HSV
D. parvovirus B19

A

smallpox

50
Q

what is false about DNA virus genomes?

A. parvovirus genome is single stranded

B. number of adenovirus genes < number of herpesvirus genes

C. the largest genomes are linear and double stranded

D. all of the poxvirus genes are essential for virus replication

E. gene expression is temporally regulated

A

D. all of the poxvirus genes are essential for virus replication

with big genomes, there’s a lot of unnecessary genes

51
Q

which answer is NOT true for an L gene?

A. may be a capsid component

B. negative regulator of IE gene transcription

C. expressed only after DNA synthesis

D. packaged in virion

E. complicated viral gene promoter

A

B. negative regulator of IE gene transcription

52
Q

a previously healthy 29 year old pediatric nurse has a 3 day history of malaise, arthalgia and nonpruritic rash. the rash is a faint, maculopapular irregular reticulate exanthem that covers her thighs and inner aspects of her upper arms. symmetric synovitis is present in several distal and proximal interphalangeal joint and in her metacarpophalangela joints. small effusions, warmth and tenderness are noted in her left wrist and right elbow. no other joints are effected. what is the most likely cause?

A. varcella-zoster virus

B. measles (rubeola) virus

C. parvovirus B19

D. adenovirus

E. HIV

A

C. parvovirus B19

53
Q

which of the following is a parvovirus B19 keyword?

A. 5ths disease in children

B. arthritis in adults

C. transient aplastic crisis in individuals with underlying hemolytic disorders like sickle cell

D. fetal infection causes death in utero

E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

54
Q

A 25-year-old policeman who received a needle puncture while trying to arrest a heroin user presents with cold-like symptoms for the past 2 weeks and a rash on his chest for the past 2 days. Lymph nodes are palpable. He lives in Springfield, MA and has not traveled in the past year. Blood tests are negative for EBNA and VA. which test is INITIALLY recommend typically to diagnose the disease?

A

ELISA

55
Q

Which of the following would be the most likely outcome of HIV?

A. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE)

B. Lymphoma

C. Wasting disease

D. Arthralgia

E. Repeated infection caused by bacteria, but not by viruses

A

C. Wasting disease

56
Q

A 59-year-old Cuban sailor comes to the clinic with symptoms consistent with CNS dysfunction and skin lesions. Blood smears show very high numbers of lymphocytes. What is the most appropriate treatment to control the pathogen causing these symptoms?

A. None. There is no treatment.

B. Lamivudine

C. Zidovudine

D. A combination of lamivudine and zidovudine

E. Acyclovir

A

A. None. There is no treatment.

this is HTLV1

57
Q

Which of the following is/are produced during the IE phase of herpesvirus transcription?

A. Regulatory proteins

B. Thymidine kinase

C. Polymerase

D. Tegument

E. Host cofactors

A

A. Regulatory proteins

58
Q

A patient come to the clinic confused and disoriented. CSF samples cultured in a battery of agar plates produces no bacterial of fungi pathogens. However, inoculation of human cell monolayers and CT scans result in the photos shown. PCR analysis allowed the identification of DNA most likely belonging to which of the following?

A. Herpes simplex 1

B. Herpes simplex 2

C. Varicella zoster

D. Any of the above

A

A. Herpes simplex 1

59
Q

You treat and HSV1 patient with acyclovir and there is no response. Virus isolated from this patient will have a mutated:

A. Tegument

B. Antireceptor

C. Neuraminidase

D. Polymerase

E. Thymidine kinase

A

E. Thymidine kinase

60
Q

Zoster is the result of which of the following?

A. Primary infection with herpes simplex

B. Primary infection with chickenpox

C. Persistent infection with herpes simplex

D. Persistent infection with chickenpox

E. Reactivation of herpes simplex

F. Reactivation of chickenpox

A

F. Reactivation of chickenpox from neurons*

61
Q

A patient who recently underwent renal transplantation develops low-grade fever sore throat and fatigue. There is no lymphadenopathy. What is the most appropriate treatment for this individual?

A

gancylovir

this is CMV!

62
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is associated with CMV infection?

A. Neurological problems

B. Lymphoma

C. Miscarriage

D. Genital rash

E. Zoster

A

miscarriage

this is CMV

63
Q

A 23-year-old female presents with fever (37.5C), sore throat, malaise and fatigue for several days. Physical examination reveals lymphadenopathy and tenderness of her abdomen’s left upper quadrant. Blood samples are positive for heterophile antibody. Which is the following are you most likely to observe in a blood sample?

A. Erythrocyte syncytia

B. Atypical lymphocytes

C. Owl’s eye inclusions

D. Extremely low hematocrit

E. Opportunistic bacteria

A

B. Atypical lymphocytes

this is EBV

64
Q

Which of the following is the most likely potential complication of EBV?

A. Endocarditis

B. Allergy

C. Immunosuppresion

D. Hypersensitivity

E. Ruptured spleen

A

E. Ruptured spleen

65
Q

Which of the following is the result of infection with a beta-herpesvirus?

A. Shingles

B. Chickenpox/varicella

C. Heparangia

D. Rubella

E. Roseola

A

E. Roseola

66
Q

A 67-year-old patient originally from Syria comes to the office with mucocutaneous lesions (see photo). Analysis of biopsies show that these are cancer cells that originally belonged to which of the following types?

A. T-cells

B. B-cells

C. Epithelial cells

D. Langerhans cells

E. Endothelial cells

A

E. Endothelial cells

ID Week 2 (20 decks)

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