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BIOL 3200 > ICA Questions > Flashcards

ICA Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which statement about glycolysis is correct?
- Two net molecules of ATP are produced through substrate-level phosphorylation
- A proton gradient is established across the mitochondrial membrane
- Three molecules of NADH2 and one molecule of FADH2 are produced
- Glycolysis cannot proceed under anaerobic conditions

A

Two net molecules of ATP are produced through substrate level phosphorylation

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2
Q

Which of the following is NOT true of glycolysis?
- It produces 4 net ATP
- It requires an input of ATP to begin
- It occurs in the cytoplasm
- It produces NADH

A

It produces 4 net ATP

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3
Q

C. perfrings is an obligate anaerobic bacterium unable to survive in the presence of oxygen.

Which of the following enzymes will NOT be found in C. perfrings that you would normally find in an aerobic bacteria?

A

Superoxide dismutase and Peroxidase

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4
Q

Which of the following is NOT correct with respect to the redox pair NAD+/NADH?
- NADH can accept electrons from an electron transport system
- The reduced, nonaromatic ring of NADH is at a higher energy than the aromatic ring of NAD+
- The nicotinamide ring is heteroaromatic because it has a noncarbon atom is the 4th position
- The nicotinamide ring is a relatively stable aromatic structure

A

NADH can accept electrons from an electron transport system

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5
Q

You feed E. coli 3 glucose molecules. How many ATP are created ONLY using glycolysis?

A

6

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6
Q

Fermentation can be defined as?

A

Partial breakdown of organic food without the use of an electron transport system

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7
Q

Which of the following fermentation processes is responsible for making bread?

A

Ethanolic fermentation

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8
Q

Which is not an end product of fermentation?

A

Pyruvate

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9
Q

Microorganisms play an active role in the formation different kinds of products from fermentation. Which one of the following is mismatched?
- Ethanolic fermentation – ethanol and CO2
- Homolactic fermentation – lactic acid and CO2
- Heterolactic fermentation – lactic acid, ethanol and CO2
- Mixed acid fermentation - multiple acids and H2 and CO2

A

Homolactic fermentation - lactic acid and CO2

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10
Q

Fermentation produces more energy than anaerobic respiration.

A

FALSE

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11
Q

Methyl red positive tube contains more acids than a phenol red positive tube.

A

TRUE

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12
Q

The TCA cycle is capable of generating which of the following products from oxidation of each acetyl-CoA molecule

A

2 carbon dioxide molecules, 3 NADH, 1 FADH2, and 1 ATP

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13
Q

How many electron carriers in total are created from just the TCA from 2 glucose molecules?

A

16

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14
Q

You feed E. coli 3 glucose molecules. How many ATP are created ONLY through substrate level phosphorylation?

A

12

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15
Q

Cells can catabolize acetate or fatty acids using a modified TCA called glyoxylate shunt shown below.
Which of the following is NOT TRUE about glyoxylate shunt?
- It produces less CO2 than a TCA
- It produces more NADH than TCA
- It gets activated when glucose is absent or in less amount
- It produces less NADH than a TCA

A

It produces more NADH than TCA

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16
Q

An unknown bacterium can be tested for fermentation of lactose to mixed acid byproducts such as malic acid and succinic acid through which of the following tests?

A

Methyl Red test

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17
Q

Rank according to ATP yield, from high to low.
1. Fermentation
2. Aerobic respiration
3. Anaerobic respiration

A

2,3,1

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18
Q

Which of the following statements about anaerobic respiration is FALSE?
- It yields equal amounts of ATP when compared to aerobic respiration
- It yields lower amounts of ATP when compared to aerobic respiration.
- The complete Krebs cycle is utilized
- It does not involve the ETS

A

It yields equal amounts of ATP when compared to aerobic respiration

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19
Q

E. coli ETS includes which of the following components.

A

NADH oxidoreductase, Terminal Oxidase, and Mobile electron carrier

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20
Q

E. coli produces __________ ATP by substrate level phosphorylation and ___________ ATP from oxidative phosphorylation from 1 glucose.

A

4, 34

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21
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about mitochondrial ETS.
- Mitochondrial ETS pumps 12 H+ per NADH, 2 more than E. coli
- Mitochondrial ETS can produce ATP with out the use of ATP synthase
- Possess an intermediate cytochrome oxidase complex
- Mitochondrial ETS is capable of producing more proton motive force when compared with E. coli ETS per every glucose molecule

A

Mitochondrial ETS can produce ATP with out the use of ATP synthase

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22
Q

You encounter a previously unknown organism in a sample of seawater. Observing this organism under the microscope, you observe the following:

An intricate internal membrane system
Linear chromosomes
DNA sequence reveals that its genome is made of 4 types of nucleotides (A, T, C and G).
DNA sequence reveals that much of the genome of this organism does not code for protein.
What kind of organism is this?

A

Eukaryote

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23
Q

You encounter a previously unknown organism in a sample of seawater. Observing this organism under the microscope, you observe the following:

An intricate internal membrane system
Linear chromosomes
DNA sequence reveals that its genome is made of 4 types of nucleotides (A, T, C and G).
DNA sequence reveals that most of the genome of this organism does not code for protein.
Based on your answer to the previous question? How did you determine the type of organism?

A

Presence of internal membrane systems, most of the genome of this organism does not code for protein, and linear chromosomes

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24
Q

Now imagine that you have isolated a genomic sequence of an unknown organism from seawater but do not have any cells that you are able to observe or culture. The genome exists as two separate pieces of DNA that have their genes placed in functional groups and have relatively little intergenic (non-coding) DNA.

What kind of organism is this?

A

Bacterium, Archaeon, or Prokaryote

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25
Q

Now imagine that you have isolated a genomic sequence of an unknown organism from seawater but do not have any cells that you are able to observe or culture. The genome exists as two separate pieces of DNA that have their genes placed in functional groups and have relatively little intergenic (non-coding) DNA.

You discover that the smaller of the two pieces of DNA contains several genes involved in the hydrolysis (metabolism) of glucose.

Is this more likely to be a plasmid or a chromosome or both?

A

Chromosome

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26
Q

Now imagine that you have isolated a genomic sequence of an unknown organism from seawater but do not have any cells that you are able to observe or culture. The genome exists as two separate pieces of DNA that have their genes placed in functional groups and have relatively little intergenic (non-coding) DNA.

You discover that the smaller of the two pieces of DNA contains several genes involved in the hydrolysis (metabolism) of glucose.

How do you know if is it a plasmid or a chromosome or both?

A

It contains genes involved in the metabolism of glucose which are essential to the cell

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27
Q

Which of the following will be observed in a bacterium that lost its ability to make DNA ligase.

A

You will find many small fragments of DNA in the cytoplasm of the bacterium

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28
Q

Which of these represents a correct order of proteins involved in bacterial DNA replication?

A

DnaA → primase → DNA pol III → ligase

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29
Q

Which of the following is NOT true when it comes to Bacterial DNA Replication.
- Replication in bacteria begins only from one location in the chromosome
- Replication is bidirectional
- It is semiconservative
- It requires only one set of DNA polymerase

A

It requires only one set of DNA polymerase

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30
Q

You isolate a piece of DNA from a microorganism you cultivated from your teeth. The piece of DNA is 94 kbp in size and is circular. You sequence it and discover that it contains genes for pili, and antibiotic resistance. What is this piece of DNA?

A

plasmid

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31
Q

All of the following are required in a PCR reaction EXCEPT
- DNA template
- DNA polymerase
- DNA ligase
- Primers

A

DNA ligase

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32
Q

Which of the following is/are TRUE about PCR.
- It requires DNA polymerase
- It requires heating
- It required DNA ligase
- It requires DNA primers
- It involves Okazaki fragments

A

It requires DNA polymerase, heating, and DNA primers

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33
Q

The necessary ingredients for PCR reactions are mixed together in a test tube. The DNA polymerase is from Thermus aquaticus, and the DNA template is from an E. coli. The newly synthesized DNA would look like _____.

A

E. coli DNA

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34
Q

Taq DNA Polymerase is commonly used in Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) because:

A

It functions in high temperature environments

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35
Q

You are a public health official investigating an outbreak of Salmonella. To detect current cases you choose to examine patients blood for the ____________ antibody class.

A

IgM

36
Q

In adaptive immunity, the term “clonal selection” best refers to the

A

ability of specific B-cell subsets to proliferate and produce antibodies upon exposure to a specific epitope.

37
Q

Which of the following statements about MHC class II molecules are true?
- They are found only on antigen presenting cells
- They present extracellular antigens.
- They are found on all nucleated cells.
- They are found on the surface of most pathogens

A

They are found only on antigen presenting cells and present extracellular antigens

38
Q

An immune deficiency causes a severe reduction in the amount of MHC-II expressed on the surface of professional antigen-presenting cells. Predict which immune processes will be significantly impacted by this deficiency.

A

Phagocytosis by macrophages, antibody production, and cell killing by cytotoxic T cells

39
Q

Which of the following can be used to make vaccines?

A

Purified components of microorganisms, Killed microorganisms, Live microorganisms, and mRNA that codes for an antigen

40
Q

Innate immunity involves all of the following host defenses EXCEPT
- production of antibodies to bind specific pathogen proteins.
- production of small peptides that destroy the bacterial membrane.
- engulfment of microbes by phagocytes.
- secretion of mucus to prevent microbial entry.

A

production of antibodies to bind specific pathogen proteins

41
Q

Opsonization is a process whereby innate and adaptive immunity work together to

A

phagocytize an invader

42
Q

Which body sites are colonized by normal microbiota?
- Lungs
- Kidneys
- Small Intestine
- Stomach
- Urinary bladder

A

Lungs, small intestine, stomach, and urinary bladder

43
Q

Under what circumstances can microbiota cause disease?

A
  • If other normal flora microbes are reduced or eliminated, as with antibiotic treatment
  • Can cause disease when they accidentally penetrate beyond their normal flora sites
44
Q

How do the lungs avoid being colonized by pathogens?

A
  • The lungs are also protected by alveolar macrophages that ingest and kill pathogens that make it past the ciliary elevator.
  • By using a mechanism called the mucociliary escalator to avoid being colonized
45
Q

A man has been taking excessive amounts of antacids for heartburn. Which innate defense mechanism might be altered by his actions?

A

increase in the pH of stomach acid and exposes himself to more GI tract infection

46
Q

Match Type III Secretion system with the organism that utilize for their pathogenesis

A

Salmonella species

47
Q

Match Type IV Secretion system with the organism that utilize for their pathogenesis

A

Bordetella pertussis

48
Q

Thick polysaccharide capsules are important virulence assets for which of the following species?

A

Neisseria meningitidis and Sptreptococcus pneumonia

49
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes virulence factors

A

M protein

50
Q

Staphylococcus aureus virulence factors

A

Alpha toxin, Toxic shock syndrome toxin, Exfoliant toxins A & B, and Protein A

51
Q

E. coli O157:H7 virulence factors

A

Shiga-like toxin

52
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae virulence factors

A

Capsule

53
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis virulence factors

A

Multi drug resistance

54
Q

S. aureus disease

A

Scalded skin syndrome

55
Q

Y. pestis disease

A

Bubonic plague

56
Q

P. falciparum disease

A

Cerebral malaria

57
Q

T. palladium disease

A

syphilis

58
Q

S. pyogenes disease

A

Necrotizing fasciitis

59
Q

All of the following are good indications of a pathogenicity island in a microbial chromosome EXCEPT
- GC/AT ratio higher or lower than the rest of the chromosome.
- presence of clusters of virulence genes
- residual phage genomes flank the island.
- presence of RNA nucleotides

A

Presence of RNA nucleotides

60
Q

The alpha toxin of Staphylococcus aureus have similar effect on human cells as the antibiotic _______ on gram negative bacteria.

A

Gramicidin

61
Q

Based on your knowledge of microbial genetics and microbial pathogenesis, where do you think the genetic information for endotoxins are located?

A

Chromosomes

62
Q

Based on your knowledge of microbial genetics and microbial pathogenesis, where do you think is/are the likely location/s of the genetic information for E. coil shiga exotoxins?

A

Plasmids, chromosomes, and phage genome

63
Q

Consider an MIC result of 5 μg/ml of penicillin for bacterial strain A, 25 μg/ml for strain B, 15 μg/ml for strain C, and 20 μg/ml for strain D. Which bacterial strain can be interpreted as the most resistant to penicillin?

A

B

64
Q

Consider a mutation in which the change is from UAC to UAG. Which type of mutation is this?

A

Nonsense mutation

65
Q

You inoculated 100 bacteria A, with a generation time of 20 minutes, into 100 ml of nutrient broth. At the same time, you inoculated 100 bacteria B with generation time of 20 minutes into 200 ml of nutrient broth. After incubation for 24 hours, if all cells divide by binary fission and remain viable in log phase, you can reasonably expect to have

A

The same number of cells in both cultures

66
Q

You inoculated 100 bacteria A, with a generation time of 20 minutes, into 100 ml of nutrient broth. At the same time, you inoculated 200 bacteria B with generation time of 20 minutes into 200 ml of nutrient broth. After incubation for 24 hours, if all cells divide by binary fission and remain viable in log phase, you can reasonably expect to have

A

More bacteria B in the 200mL

67
Q

C. botulinum is an aerotolerant anaerobic bacterium able to survive in the presence of oxygen with the help of certain metabolic antioxidants.

Which of the following enzymes would you expect to find in C. botulinum that you would not find in a strict anaerobe?

A

superoxide dismutase

68
Q

Serial dilutions can be used to estimate the total number of ONLY living bacteria not dead bacteria.

A

TRUE

69
Q

One cell with generation times of 60 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium. How many cells are there after 5 hours?

A

32

70
Q

2 bacterial cells with generation time of 20 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium. How many cells are there after 2 hours? (Assuming all cells divide by binary fission in log phase and remained viable).

A

128

71
Q

A virus such as influenza virus might produce 800 progeny virus particles from one host cell infected by one virus.

How would you mathematically represent the exponential growth of the virus?

A

800^n

72
Q

A cafeteria worker who fails to wash his hands thoroughly and fails to wear gloves inoculates a pie with 4 E.coli cells in when he uses his finger to test whether it is done.

By the time you purchase the pie, there were 128 E.coli cells. How many generations did the cells go through between the initial inoculation and the time you bought the pie? Assuming all cells multiplied in a log phase.

A

5

73
Q

A cafeteria worker who fails to wash his hands thoroughly and fails to wear gloves inoculates a pie with 4 E.coli cells in when he uses his finger to test whether it is done.

By the time you purchase the pie, there were 128 E.coli cells. How many minutes it took from the time he touched it until you purchased it? Assuming all cells multiplied in a log phase.

FYI, E. coli have a generation time of 20 minutes.

A

100

74
Q

The a part of the lipopolysaccharide (LPS) that is found in the outer membrane of Gram-negative bacteria is also known as _________.

A

endotoxin

75
Q

After you run a couple of experiments, you got the following results.
Cell wall = Contains peptidoglycan
Cell membrane type = lipid bilayer
Fatty acid linkage = ester bonds
Cell envelope = contain mycolic acids

What are organism A?

A

Mycobacterium species

76
Q

Which arrangement is commonly seen in organisms in the Genus Staphylococcus?

A

clusters

77
Q

Student in the lab performs a Gram stain on Staphylococcus aureus, a Gram positive cocci. The student skips the decolorizing step. When the student observes the slide under 100x magnification what do they see?

Assume all other steps were followed properly

A

Gram positive cocci

78
Q

A student in the lab performs a Gram stain on E. coli, a Gram negative bacilli. The student skips the decolorizing step. When the student observes the slide under 100x magnification what does the student see at the end of the experiment?

Assume all other steps are followed properly.

A

Gram positive bacilli

79
Q

Bacteria and archaea are different in all of the following EXCEPT
- Size and shape
- Cell wall composition
- rRNA sequence
- Cell membrane composition

A

Size and shape

80
Q

What is true regarding proteins that are embedded within the cell membrane?

A

They provide structural support

81
Q

What are two commonalities between Gram negative and Gram positive cell envelop?

A

Peptidoglycan and Cell membrane

82
Q

Calculate the total magnification of the microscope you use in your microbiology lab when using 20X objective lens.

A

200

83
Q

Calculate the numerical aperture (NA) of the objective lens shown below if the medium between the objective and sample if air.

Theta = 15 degrees

A

0.26

84
Q

An objective lens with a magnification of 40X created an angle of cone of light measured from the center of 30o (see below).

Calculate refractive index (n) of the medium between the tip of the objective and the sample if the NA is 0.67?

A

1.34

85
Q

An objective lens with a magnification of 40X created an angle of cone of light measured from the center of 30o (see below).

Name the medium between the tip of the objective and the sample if you calculated the NA to be 0.67 with the given setup above?

A

Water

86
Q

If 0.2 μm = 200 nm, 150 μm = ______ nm

A

150,000 nm

87
Q

Sari is a microbiology student attempting to identify a microbe that she can study for her senior thesis project. Which of the following headlines refers to a microbe that she might find interesting?

A

“Brain-eating amoeba strikes two teens in one week”

BIOL 3200 (6 decks)

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