IC12 PR3151 Flashcards

1
Q

contraindications for live attenuated vaccines

A

x preg
x infant <1
x immunocompromised (cd4<200, chemo, drugs)
x >1 vax (28 days)
x antibody products (3-10 month)

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2
Q

how long to split live vax

A

28 days

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3
Q

how long to split antibody products

A

3-10months

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4
Q

what to do w missed dose

A

take next possible date; respect interval

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5
Q

what to do w intervals

A

respect the interval

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6
Q

what are the vaccines in NCIS

A

BHDTIHPPMVHI
BCG
HepB
Dtap
Tdap
IPV
HiB
PCV
PPSV
MMR
VAR
HPV
INF

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7
Q

What are the doses

A

1 3 3 x 3 3 2 x 222 x

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8
Q

hep b how many booster

A

1

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9
Q

dtap how many booster

A

1 (2nd booster after birth)

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10
Q

tdap how many booster

A

2

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11
Q

IPV how many booster

A

1

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12
Q

Hib how many booster

A

1

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13
Q

what special conditions for influenza vax

A

take annually from 5 - 17 for special medical

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14
Q

what special conditions for PPSV

A

1-2 doses from 2-17 years

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15
Q

vaccines for NAIS

A

IPPTHHMV

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16
Q

which vax is for female ONLY

A

HPV

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17
Q

what are the general vax considerations

A

effectiveness
ADR
precautions: e.g., fever, live vaccines, allergy, preggos, live vax, bleeding risk

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18
Q

what are the airborne respi virus

A

IDMMP PHCB
influ
dipth
mmr
menningococ
pertussis

pneumococcal
haem inf
chicken pox (varicella)
bcg

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19
Q

what airbone resp virus have vaccines

A

IDMMP

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20
Q

what are the food and water transmission viruses includes faecal contact

A

HTCP

hepA
typhoid
cholera
polio

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21
Q

what are the blood/bodily fluids

A

hep B
hpv

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22
Q

what are the cutaneous viruses

A

rabies tetanus

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23
Q

what are the vector virus

A

JE yellow fever malaria

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24
Q

what are the live vaccines

A

mmr varicella rotavirus cholera yellow fever

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25
Q

what are the inactivated vax

A

hep A je tickborne E(tbe) rabies polio

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26
Q

what are the subunit vax

A

HIPPTM
HEPB
inf
pertussis
pneumococcal
typhoid
meningococco

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27
Q

what are the toxoid vax

A

TDAP

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28
Q

what are the recombinant vax

A

HPV hepB

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29
Q

Medical considerations before international travel

A

pre travel consult 4-6 weeks prior including risk assessment, standard in office interventions, focused education before the trip

30
Q

what are the bugs that spread malaria

A

plasmodium
falcifaram
vivax
knowlesi
malariae
ovlae

31
Q

what is the mosquito that spreads malaria

A

anopheles

32
Q

what is the malaria life cycle

A

exo erythro step
- multiple in the liver
- lay dormant (vivax and ovales)

erythro step
- multiply in rbc
- form gametocytes

sporigenic step
- breed, multiply

33
Q

malaria strategies for prevention

A

ABCDE
awareness of risk
bite prevention
chemoprophylaxis
diagnosis
environments

34
Q

what are the times where mosquito are less frequent

A

day time, high altitudes, desert regions, colder regions, dryer seasons (without rainfall)

35
Q

what are the drugs for malaria

A

atorvaquone proguanil
chloroquine
doxycycline
mefloquine

36
Q

atorvaquone method of admin

A

daily
2 days before and 7 days after
take with food or milky products

37
Q

atorvaquone ADR

A

gi side effects

38
Q

atorvaquone contraindx

A

x pregnancy
x lactation
x infants <5kg
x renal impairment w crcl <30ml/min
x hypersx

39
Q

chloroquine method of admin

A

weekly
1-2 weeks prior
4 weeks after
take with food or after food

40
Q

chloroquine ADR

A

gi side effects

41
Q

atorvaquone DDI

A

rifampicin, metoclopramide, efavirenz

42
Q

cholroquine contraindx

A

CYP3a4 qt prolonging drugs like azoles and macrolides

43
Q

chloroquine pregnancy lactation and child risk

A

none

44
Q

choloroquine precautions

A

precaution in patients with myasthenia gravis, psoriasis, seizure disorders, auditory disorders, liver impairment

45
Q

doxycycline method of admin

A

take daily with a full glass of water standing up and avoid going to sleep after
1-2 days before
4 weeks after

46
Q

doxycycline contraindx

A

divalent ions

47
Q

doxycline adr

A

photosx, gi discomfort, ototoxicity, calcification of tissues, hepatotoxicity, CDAD, and renal, photosx

48
Q

doxycycline pregnancy risk

A

contraindicated in children <8 and pregnancy + breast feeding

49
Q

mefloquine method

A

take weekly
1-2 weeks
4 weeks

50
Q

mefloquine ADR

A

gi, headache, insomnia, vivid dreams, fatigue, neuropsych disorder

51
Q

mefloquine contra

A

patients with hypersx, psychiatric disorders, convulsion disorders, cardiac conduction problems

52
Q

mefloquine prgnancy risk

A

okay in preg, lactation, and infants >5kg

53
Q

mefloquine sales

A

exemption drug

54
Q

types of repellents

A

DEETS, picaridin, IR3535, 2undecanone

55
Q

risk level for malaria and the treatment

A

risk 1: no risk –> preventive measures
risk 2: non-falciparam –> preventive measures + A /D/M
risk 3: falciparum –> preventive measure + D/M (m has increasing resistance in Thailand, Cambodia, Myanmar)

56
Q

what is the criteria superficial SSI

A

within 30 days (only in the superficial or subq layer of the skin)

culture evidence
signs and symptoms of pain or inflammation
purulent drainage

DOES NOT COUNT:
x burn infections
x stitch abscess
x episiotomy
x newborn circumcision site

57
Q

what is the criteria for deep tissue SSI

A

within 30 days or a year after implant (muscle layer)

abscess or other evidence of infection
fever or pain
purulent drainage

58
Q

what is the criteria for organ or space SSI

A

within 30 days or a year after implant

culture evidence
abscess or other evidence of infection
purulent drainage from a stab wound in the organ

59
Q

SAP indications: what is a clean surgery and is SAP recommended

A

superficial layers and surgical prophylaxis not recommended unless there is an implant

60
Q

SAP indications: what is a clean-contaminated surgery and is SAP recommended

A

deeper layers but with minimal contamination. SAP is recommended

61
Q

SAP indications: what is a contaminated surgery and is SAP recommended

A

there is macroscopic soiling of operative field. SAP is recommended but it is considered a treatment method and not an SAP

62
Q

What is the choice of therapy for a cardiac SAP? include alternative agents

A

Cefazoline or cefuroxime and or vancomycin.

second line treatment is vancomycin and or clindamycin

63
Q

what is vancomycin commonly added with in SAP

A

addition of cefazolin to cover MSSA since vancomycin has poor coverage against MSSA.

64
Q

what is the choice of therapy for GI SAP? include alternative agents

A

cefazolin w/w/o metronidazole.

second line: gentamicin + metronidazole OR clindamycin

65
Q

What is the choice of therapy for a genitourinary SAP? include alternative agents

A

ciprofloxacin w/w/o cotrimoxazole

unless laproscopy –>cefazolin

66
Q

SAP options for patient with beta lactam allergy? consider the two types of allergy.

A

if severe: dont use

if non igE mediated: consider cephalosporins.

67
Q

SAP duration of therapy

A

should not be longer than 24 hours

68
Q

SAP initiation

A

should be 30min to 1h prior to the surgery.

for vancomycin and fluoroquinolones –> at least an hour

69
Q

When to redose for SAP

A

1) when the patient has extensive burns
2) when the patient blood lose >1500ml
3) when the procedure more than 2 half lives of the drug

70
Q

non sap procedures to prevent SSI

A

1) ensure normothermic >35.5degC
2) ensure blood glucose <10mmol/L
3) avoid shaving hair or using razer unless needed. if needed, remove with clippers or depilatory agent
4) use of plastic wound protectors for gi AND biliary
5) alcohol disinfection where possible
6) adequate tissue oxygenation