Hypertension Flashcards

1
Q

Essential/primary hbp =

A

no underlying cause (90% of cases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

2ndry hbp =

A

has an underlying cause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

In diabetes ___ complications of hyperglycaemia occur before ____

A

macrovascular before microvascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Diagnosis of a metabolic disorder, more/=3 of the following:

A

abdominal obesity, high tris, low HDL-C, hbp and high fasting glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Complications of hypertension =

A

HF, cerebral haem, atheroma, renal failure, sudden cardiac death

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

NO and prostaglandins =

A

vasodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

catecholamines and angiotensin 2 =

A

vasoconstrictors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

increased protein intake causes renal blood flow to ___ > ___bp

A

increase renal flow

decreases bp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

2ndry hypertension due to renal failure is almost always ___

A

salt sensitive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Causes of 2ndry hypertension

A

renal disease - glomerulo/pyelonephritis, cysts
endocrine - adrenal hyperplasia - Conn’s; Phaeochromocytoma
artery stenosis/coarctation of aorta
drugs eg. steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Phaeochromocytoma =

A

tumour of the adrenal medulla releases excess noradrenaline

increases TPR and CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Conn’s syndrome =

A

excess aldosterone independent of RAAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Cushing’s = excess ___

A

glucocorticoids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Benign hypertension definition =

A

asymptomatic and picked up incidentally

still life-threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Malignant hypertension definition =

A

accelerated hypertension - increase occurs over a short time - life threatening
Diastolic >130-140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Malignant hypertension can lead to -

A

cerebral oedema (seen as papilloedema), acute renal/HF
headache and cerebral haem
fibrinoid necrosis of vessels ie. blown apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Benign hypertension can lead to -

A
LV concentric hypertrophy => sudden death by low perfusion or arrhythmia
CCF
atheroma
stroke
renal disease
aneurysm rupture
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

CV mortality risk x2 with every __ increase in sbp and ___ increase in dbp

A

20 in sbp

10 in dbp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Offer ____ if clinic bp is >140/90

20
Q

ABPM =

A

more/=2 bp measurements/hr during waking hrs - roughly 14/day
automatic

21
Q

HBPM =

A

2 seated bp measurements 1 min apart, record x2/day for 4-7 days
discard 1st days and average the rest
self measured

22
Q

Stage 1 hypertension =

A

clinically >=140/90 and A/HBPM >=135/85

23
Q

Stage 2 hypertension =

A

clinically >=160/100 and A/HBPM >=150/95

24
Q

Severe hypertension =

A

> =180 clinically or dbp clinically >=110

25
Screening tests offered to anyone with hypertension
urine test - for protein bloods - for glucose, electrolytes, creatinine, estimated glomerular filtration rate, chol. Fundi - for hypertensive retinopathy 12-lead ECG
26
Grade 1 hypertensive retinopathy
slight/mod narrowing of retinal arteries AND arterovenous ratio >=1:2
27
Grade 2 hypertensive retinopathy
mod/severe retinal artery narrowing AND arterovenous ratio
28
Grade 3 hypertensive retinopathy
bilateral soft exudates (cotton wool spots)/flame-shaped haems
29
Grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy
bilateral optic nerve oedema = blurred disc - papilloedema AND hard (yellowish) exudates
30
hbp in afro-caribbean/black don't give __
ACEI/ARB first-line
31
For those under 55 and Caucasian hbp stepwise treatment =
ACEI/ARB >+CCB >+thiazide >+another diuretic/α/β-blocker + expert advice
32
If >55yo or black with hbp stepwise treatment =
CCB >+ACEI/ARB >+thiazide >+another diuretic/α/β-blocker+expert advice
33
Fibromuscular dysplasia
Corkscrew in renal/cerebral artery | Commonest in young females, treatable cause of hypertension
34
Causes widespread tumours and can cause phaeochromocytoma =
VHL - Von Hippel Lindau | defect in p53
35
Truely resistant hypertension is only diagnosed if ___
don't respond to spironolactone
36
Spironolactone causes an increase in ___ must be monitored | Be cautious of use in patients with __/___
creatinine and K+ | diabetes/slow GFR
37
Podagra =
gout that involves joint at base of big toe
38
Gout is a type of ____ Present with ____ joint Due to ____
arthritis red, hot, painful, tender, swollen joint uric acid excess crystallises and coolness precipitaes it into the blood
39
___---____---->uric acid
xanthine oxidase converts xanthine to uric acid
40
_____ (drugs) can cause gout as cause ___ not to be excreted as well
thiazide diuretics | uric acid
41
xanthine oxide inhibitors used to treat gout =
allopurinol, oxypurinol and phytic acid
42
___ competes with uric acid at distal tubule and decreases its excretion
aspirin (worsens gout)
43
____ can cause hbp by stopping production of prostaglandins and blocking NA+ excretion
Ibuprofen (NSAIDS)
44
bp lowering drug used in pregnancy
methyldopa labetalol nifedipine hydralazine (only if severe/ after 37wks as may cause neonatal thrombocytopaenia)
45
If v high systolic bp but low/normal diastolic suspect
aortic regurgitation OR stiff arteries