Human Occ II Final Flashcards by Sara Moss

The nervous system, muscular system, and skeletal system interact to influence and produce movement. Disruption to any of these may result in motor control
dysfunction.

Answers.
True
False

true

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The presence of tonus or muscle tension in the neck, trunk, and limbs is referred to as

Answer:
a. Postural tone
b. Primitive reflex
c. righting reaction

a. Postural tone

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When muscles feel soft, there is no resistance to passive movement, and PROM is excessive, how is its tone best described?

Answers:
a. Hypertonic
b. Hypotonic
c. Rigidity has set in
d. Normal muscle tone

b. Hypotonic

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Stereognosis is defined as:

Answers
a. The ability to identify objects through proprioception, cognition, and touch.
b. The ability to recognize numbers, letters, or forms written on the skin.
c. Awareness of body parts + position of the body and its parts in relation to themselves and the environment.
d. Unconscious information about joint position and motion arising from receptors in muscles, joints, ligaments, and bone.

a. The ability to identify objects through proprioception, cognition, and touch.

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Because certain cognitive skills depend on others, they are evaluated in a particular order. Which of the following is listed in order of recommended progression of

Answers:
a. Attention, reasoning and problem solving, orientation
b. Orientation, attention, memory.
c. Memory, attention, orientation.
d. Executive functioning, orientation, memory.

b. Orientation, attention, memory.

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During a hygiene activity, the OTA observes the patient overreaching for the toothpaste and knocking over the mouthwash. The OT should inform the OT supervisor that
the individual may have deficits related to:

Answers:
a, Dyssenergia
b Ataxia
c. Dysmetria
d. Atheoid movements

c. Dysmetria

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An OTA is working in a home health setting and is teaching a patient’s family member about safe positioning and joint protection for an individual with hypotonia. The OTA
should emphasize the importance of:

Answers:
a. Adding a weight to the hypotonic U to improve muscle strength.
b. Stimulating specific muscle groups.
c. Using a sling or static splint at all times to prevent contractures from forming.
d. Preventing trauma to joint structures.

d. Preventing trauma to joint structures.

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An OTA with 20 years of experience is asked to use neuromuscular electrical stimulation before having an individual prepare a light meal. The OTA should

Answers:
a. ask the occupational therapist to observe the treatment.
b. provide the procedure only if service competency has been established.
c. provide the procedure and document the results after the intervention.
d, ask the PT to administer the procedure.

b. provide the procedure only if service competency has been established.

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During a meal preparation activity, the OTA observes that a patient cannot reach into a bag of potato chips without crushing the contents. The OTA should document problems related to:

Answers:
a. Atheoid movements
b. Incoordination
c. Dyssenergia
d. Ataxia

d. Ataxia

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An OT is working with a patient who lacks thermal sensation and will be living alone. The OTA should plan intervention with a focus on:

Answers.
a. Compensatory strategies to avoid bums and precautions against injury in ADLs.
b. Ways to check water temperature before bathing.
c. Compensatory techniques to account for the loss.
d. Ways to monitor changes in sensation

a. Compensatory strategies to avoid bums and precautions against injury in ADLs.

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An individual who uses a wheelchair is unable to detect pain sensations. The OTA should:

Answers:
a Encourage the individual to ambulate using a rolling walker to relieve pressure and avoid skin integrity issues
b. Educate and train the patient about the importance of repositioning and checking the skin for breakdown.
c. Suggest that the individual transfer to a sturdy chair with a back and armrests during meals.
d. Ask a family member to remind the individual to do pressure relief every 30 minutes.

b. Educate and train the patient about the importance of repositioning and checking the skin for breakdown.

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An OT is developing a presentation for a head injury support group with a focus on sensory loss. The OTA should:

Answer
1. Educate the group about foods that are high in salt that may be easy to detect taste
2. Define hyposmia and parosmia to assist in identifying deficits.
3. Be aware that perceiving odors that do not exist may be an indicator of psychological problems.
4. Educate participants about safety issues related to diminished/absent smell and taste.

Educate participants about safety issues related to diminished/absent smell and taste.

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An OTA is working with an individual with a brain injury in a rehabilitation setting. During a homemaking activity, the individual puts the blankets on before the sheets and
laid the pillowcases on top of the pillows. This would indicate a deficit in:

Answers:
a. Body scheme
b. Right/Left discrimination
c. Agraphesthesia
d. Constructional apraxia

d. Constructional apraxia

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An OT is contributing to evaluating and individual with cognitive deficits. During the evaluation, the individual has difficulty identifying family members and what state they
reside in. The OTA should:

Answers:
a. Provide multiple cues to assist in orienting the patient
b. Ask the occupational therapist to reevaluate the individual to ensure accuracy
c. Document the disorientation observed and provide assistance only when needed
d. Withhold cues even if the individual becomes frustrated

c. Document the disorientation observed and provide assistance only when needed

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An individual with stroke is not able to complete the task of looking up a number in the telephone book while the OT asks her a question. This individual may have
deficits in

Answers:
a. Focused attention
b. Declarative memory
c. Divided attention
d. Executive functioning

c. Divided attention

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An OT is working with an individual in a rehabilitation setting. While in the cafeteria, the patient cuts in line in front of other people. This individual may be experiencing
deficits in:

Answers
a. selective attention
b. Declarative memory
c. Problem solving
d. Semantic memory

d. Semantic memory

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An OTA is working with an individual in a home health setting. The family reports that the individual can remember details from a fishing trip from 2 years ago but, cannot
remember the names of family members. The OTA suspects that the individual may have deficits in:

Answers:
a. Working memory but, long-term memory is intact
b. Both declarative and semantic memory
c. Everyday memory but, long-term memory is intact
d. Long-term memory but, perspective memory is intact

a. Working memory but, long-term memory is intact

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An individual with a head injury is nearing their discharge date and has consistently exhibited unsafe behavior and is unable to make decisions in response to the environment. The OTA should:

Answers:
a Notify the occupational therapist, who will perform appropriate evaluations to determine deficits
b. Document the observations and continue observing the individual during functional tasks
c. Simulate unsafe situations and monitor the individual closely during treatment
d. Discuss with the family the patient’s potential need for 24 hour supervision in the home environment for safety

d. Discuss with the family the patient’s potential need for 24 hour supervision in the home environment for safety

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An OTA is working with an individual who enjoys listening to music. The individual is able to turn on a CD player and insert a CD but does not attempt to find a solution when there is no music. This individual may have deficits in:

Answers:
a. Sequencing
b. Problem solving
c. Impulsivity
d. Abstract thinking

b. Problem solving

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Clients in this stage may “talk through” motor steps

Matching:
A. Autonomous
B. Cognitive
C. Associative

B. Cognitive

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Clients in this stage do not consciously think about steps in the motor sequence

Matching
A. Autonomous
B. Cognitive
C. Associative

A. Autonomous

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Clients in this stage make connections between current motor tasks and prior experiences

Matching
A. Autonomous
B. Cognitive
C. Associative

C. Associative

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Which of the concepts or stages noted above is seen first in an individual laming or relearning a motor skill?

Answer:
A Associative
B. Autonomous
c. Cognitive

c. Cognitive

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Which concept or stage is seen as the next progression?

Answers:
A. Associative
B. Autonomous
C. Cognitive

A. Associative

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What is the final stage of this progression? Answers: A. Associative B. Autonomous C. Cognitive

B. Autonomous

The client practices the entire task at one time. Matching: A. Whole learning B. Pure part learning C. Whole to part to whole learning D. Progressive part learning

A. Whole learning

The client practices a part of the task within the context of the entire task. Matching: A. Whole learning B. Pure part learning C. Whole to part to whole learning D. Progressive part learning

C. Whole to part to whole learning

The client practices a motor skill that generalizes to other tasks or areas of performance. Matching: A. Whole learning B. Pure part learning C. Whole to part to whole learning D. Progressive part learning

B. Pure part learning

The client practices procedural programs or steps to complete the task. Matching: A. Whole learning B. Pure part learning C. Whole to part to whole learning D. Progressive part learning

D. Progressive part learning

Motor learning skills occur in the following sequence: Answers: A Refinement, retention, acquisition B. Acquisition, refinement, retention C. Retention, refinement, acquisition

B. Acquisition, refinement, retention

This stage of motor learning is characterized by the client demonstrating inconsistent and inefficient motor behavior. Answers: A. Refinement B. Acquisition C. Retention

B. Acquisition

The block (massed) practice method of motor learning Answers. A Provides limited learning and generalization B. Improves motor performance quickly C. Requires the client to repeat patters of movement D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Which of the following concerning practice methods is correct? Answers: A. Blocked practice leads to slower motor learning with less functional gain B. Blocked practice leads to faster motor learning with more functional gain C. Random sequence practice leads to slower motor learning with more functional gain D. Random sequence practice leads to faster motor learning with less functional gain

C. Random sequence practice leads to slower motor learning with more functional gain

The two types of extrinsic feedback are knowledge of: Answers: A Task and performance B. Performance and results C. Results and skills D. Task and skills

B. Performance and results

In a physical dysfunction setting, the main purpose of an instructional group is to: Answers: A. Encourage social interaction and group dynamics B. Focus on task performance with others with similar deficits C. Improve psychosocial skills for group interaction D. Provide individual feedback for problem solving

B. Focus on task performance with others with similar deficits

During an initial dressing session with a hemiplegic patient, the OT practitioner has the patient adjust his shirt himself after donning with assistance from the OTA throughout all preceding steps. The practitioner is using: Answers: A Backward chaining B. Forward chaining C. Hemi-dressing technique D. Just right challenge

A Backward chaining

In order of occurrence, 4 steps of instruction are: Answers: A. Preparation, demonstration, return demonstration, follow up B. Demonstration, return demonstration, follow up, preparation C. Follow up, demonstration, return demonstration, preparation D. Return demonstration, demonstration, preparation, follow up

A. Preparation, demonstration, return demonstration, follow up

The purpose of guiding during motor learning is to: Answers: A Correct mistakes in coordination B. Provide familiar sensory input C. Provide verbal cues D. Teach compensatory motor patterns

B. Provide familiar sensory input

ADL's Matching A. meal preparation, shopping, managing finances, etc. B. Engaging in the community and among friends, family, peers, and coworkers C. grooming, bathing, dressing, etc. D. elements of choice and creativity that are done for personal pleasure, relaxation, and amusement E. employment for pay and other productive activities F. Sleep, rest, and overall health

C. grooming, bathing, dressing, etc.

lADL's Matching A. meal preparation, shopping, managing finances, etc. B. Engaging in the community and among friends, family, peers, and coworkers C. grooming, bathing, dressing, etc. D. elements of choice and creativity that are done for personal pleasure, relaxation, and amusement E. employment for pay and other productive activities F. Sleep, rest, and overall health

A. meal preparation, shopping, managing finances, etc.

Occupations of work Matching A. meal preparation, shopping, managing finances, etc. B. Engaging in the community and among friends, family, peers, and coworkers C. grooming, bathing, dressing, etc. D. elements of choice and creativity that are done for personal pleasure, relaxation, and amusement E. employment for pay and other productive activities F. Sleep, rest, and overall health

E. employment for pay and other productive activities

Play and leisure Matching A. meal preparation, shopping, managing finances, etc. B. Engaging in the community and among friends, family, peers, and coworkers C. grooming, bathing, dressing, etc. D. elements of choice and creativity that are done for personal pleasure, relaxation, and amusement E. employment for pay and other productive activities F. Sleep, rest, and overall health

D. elements of choice and creativity that are done for personal pleasure, relaxation, and amusement

Social Participation Matching A. meal preparation, shopping, managing finances, etc. B. Engaging in the community and among friends, family, peers, and coworkers C. grooming, bathing, dressing, etc. D. elements of choice and creativity that are done for personal pleasure, relaxation, and amusement E. employment for pay and other productive activities F. Sleep, rest, and overall health

B. Engaging in the community and among friends, family, peers, and coworkers

Restorative Activities Matching A. meal preparation, shopping, managing finances, etc. B. Engaging in the community and among friends, family, peers, and coworkers C. grooming, bathing, dressing, etc. D. elements of choice and creativity that are done for personal pleasure, relaxation, and amusement E. employment for pay and other productive activities F. Sleep, rest, and overall health

F. Sleep, rest, and overall health

To reason and practice holistically, the OT/OTA must consider these 3 components: Answers: A. Occupation, Participation, Advocacy B. Preparatory tasks, preparatory methods, adaptive equipment C. Person, Environment, Occupation D. Permanent change, ADL, IADL

C. Person, Environment, Occupation

What are types of performance skills? Answers: A. Completing daily occupations B. Completing mobility tasks C. Completing ADL tasks while standing, statically and dynamically D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Performance Patters are defined as Answers: A Motor, process, social interaction B. Habits, roles, rituals, routines C. Play, leisure, work, education D. Values, beliefs, spirituality

B. Habits, roles, rituals, routines

4 contextual domains are: Answers: A. Doing, being, becoming, belonging B. Abilities, limitations, surroundings, participation C. Physical, tangible, mental, sensory D. Personal, cultural, temporal, virtual

D. Personal, cultural, temporal, virtual

Preparatory methods are passive intervention applications used to improve a specific client factor in order to increase participation in occupation Answers: True False

true

Which are 3 types of occupational therapy intervention? A. Activity adaptations, environmental modification, advocacy B. Group intervention, point of service documentation, preparatory tasks and methods C. Education and training, purposeful activities, discharge planning

A. Activity adaptations, environmental modification, advocacy

Remediation is defined as Answers: A. Facilitating skill development B. Improving participation C. Increasing the likelihood of success D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Compensation consists of Answers: A. ADL, IADL, restorative activities B. E-stim, ultrasound, hot packs C. Modifying, upgrading, or downgrading activities D. Whirl pool, wound care, dressing changes

C. Modifying, upgrading, or downgrading activities

Therapeutic exercise, like using theraputty to increase hand strength/dexterity is an example of Answer A. Restorative activities B. Preparatory methods C. Preparatory tasks D. Occupations

C. Preparatory tasks

Activities that restore normal movement patterns, muscle strength, endurance, and coordination, such as having a patient use a dressing frame fitted with laces, buckles, buttons, and zippers to increase manual dexterity is an example of Answers: A. Occupational performance B. Therapeutic activity C. Activity tolerance D. ADL

B. Therapeutic activity

Special sensory systems include Answers: A Two point discrimination and stereognosis B. Tactile, deep pressure, and pain C. Vision, hearing, smell, taste, and balance D. All of the above

C. Vision, hearing, smell, taste, and balance

What is the definition of hyperesthesia? Answers: A Decreased sensation B, Increased sensitivity C. Complete loss of sensation D. Diminished pain sensation

B, Increased sensitivity

What is the definition of hypoalgeisia? Answers: A Diminished pain sensation B. Decreased sensation C. Complete loss of sensation D. Increased sensation

A Diminished pain sensation

What may a peripheral nerve injury (PNI) affect? Answers: A Cell body B. Myelin sheath c. Neuromuscular junction D. All of the above

D. All of the above

An OTA is working with an individual who has sensory loss in the hand due to CNS dysfunction and enjoys working with hand tools. The OTA should teach the individual to Answers: A Hold the tools in a manner to prevent ulnar deviation B. Avoid tasks that involve using several tools c. Apply light force, rest involved areas, and change tools frequently d. Use tools only when a family member supervises use

c. Apply light force, rest involved areas, and change tools frequently

Visual acuity refers to: Answers: A Fixing the gaze for as long as is required B. Shifting attention from one visual target to another with smooth succession C. Sharp, clear, and accurate information D. Complex interaction between optical system and CNS processing

C. Sharp, clear, and accurate information

Visual scanning refers to: Answers: A. Fixing the gaze for as long as required B. Shifting attention from one visual target to another with smooth succession C. Sharp, clear, and accurate information D. Complex interaction between optical system and CNS processing

B. Shifting attention from one visual target to another with smooth succession

The term "legally blind" is classified as: Answers: A Moderate low vision - 20/70 B. Severe low vision - 20/200 C. Profound low vision - 20/500 D. Near blindness - 20/1200

B. Severe low vision - 20/200

Visual attention incorporates the following: Answers: A Focused attention, including selective attention used for structured tasks B. Ambient attention, including peripheral vision used for unstructured tasks C. Normal attention, including scanning left to right for all objects within all views possible D. Both A and B E. All of the above

D. Both A and B

The definition of alexia is: Answer A Inability to appreciate spatial relationships, distance, and motion B. Loss of reading ability C. Impaired visual closure D. Objects standing out from the background

B. Loss of reading ability

The definition of spatial agnosia is: Answers: A. Inability to appreciate spatial relationships, distance, and motion B. Loss of reading ability C. Impaired visual closure D. Objects standing out from the background

A. Inability to appreciate spatial relationships, distance, and motion

Visual disability refers to: Answers: A Anatomical change in the visual system-optic atrophy, cataract B. Functional changes in vision resulting from the disorder-visual acuity, visual field, ocular motility C. Resulting from the impairment that limits performance of ADL D. Need for extra support

C. Resulting from the impairment that limits performance of ADL

Visual handicap refers to: Answer: A. Anatomical change in the visual system-optic atrophy, cataract B. Functional changes in vision resulting from the disorder-visual acuity, visual field, ocular motility C. Resulting from the impairment that limits performance of ADL D. Need for extra support

D. Need for extra support

An individual who develops far-sightedness associated with aging would have which of the following diagnoses Answer A Myopia B. Hyperopia C. Presbyopia D. Astigmatism

C. Presbyopia

An individual who has variations in curvature of the cornea would have which of the following diagnoses Answers: A Myopia B. Hyperopia c. Presbyopia D. Astigmatism

D. Astigmatism

Visual agnosia is... Answers: A. Loss of any portion of all four quarters B. Inability to distinguish an object from its background C. Ability to recognize the distance between objects D. Failure to recognize common items that can be seen

D. Failure to recognize common items that can be seen

An OT is working with an individual who has blurred vision. During a cooking activity, the OTA should Answers: A Work with the individual in a group setting B. Teach safety techniques first C. Restrict use of the stove D. Ask a family member to participate

B. Teach safety techniques first

An individual who has difficulty with visual acuity would benefit from this compensatory strategy Answers: a. Closing one eye b. Scanning in a left to right pattern c. Increased lighting for better illumination d. Wearing dark glasses

c. Increased lighting for better illumination

When treating visual field loss, which of the following ideas applies: Answers: A Using safety tape around home to mark boundaries B. Using matching activities that require discrimination C. Using a comb as a toothbrush D. Using a mirror to augment visual awareness

A Using safety tape around home to mark boundaries

An individual who enjoys reading has a visual scanning deficit. The OTA should Answers: A. Provide a referral to a vision specialist B. Use compensatory strategies C. Use matching games and sorting activities D. Provide deep pressure

C. Use matching games and sorting activities

Which of the following is true in relation to interventions addressing deficits in cognition and perception Answers* A Client factors cannot be observed directly B Deficits are inferred based C Clients in all practice settings can present with deficits in cognition and perception D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Figure-ground perception is... Answers: A. Loss of any portion of all four quarters B. Ability to distinguish an object from its background C. Ability to recognize the distance between objects D. Failure to recognize common items that can be seen

B. Ability to distinguish an object from its background

The adaptive approach for cognitive impairment works towards which of the following: Answers: A. Modifying a task or the environment to enhance occupational performance B. Restoring cognitive skills c. Changing the overall thought process D. Altering how one reacts to a cognitive deficit

A. Modifying a task or the environment to enhance occupational performance

Deficit in memory could be noted in which of the following steps: Answers: A. Difficulty paying attention to stimulus B. Storing information C. Retrieving information D. All of the above

D. All of the above

The definition of visual agnosia is: Answers: A Failure to recognize common items that can be seen B. Loss of reading ability C. Impaired visual closure D. Objects standing out from the background

A Failure to recognize common items that can be seen

The remedial approach for cognitive impairment works towards which of the following: Answers: A. Adapting a task or the environment to enhance performance B. Establishing or restoring cognitive skills C. Changing the overall thought process D. Altering how one reacts to a cognitive deficit

B. Establishing or restoring cognitive skills

An OT is working with an individual who has difficulty performing motor acts necessary to put on clothes. The OTA should Answers: A. Provide constant verbal cues for dressing B. Ask a family member to dress the individual C. Combine several approaches, such as NDT, functional, and adaptive strategies D. Use photographs for visual cuing

C. Combine several approaches, such as NDT, functional, and adaptive strategies

The "4" in A & O X4 stands for which of the following: Answers: A. Alive and oriented to situation, self, place, and time B. Alert and occupied with person, time, place, and others C. Alert and oriented to place, time, self, and situation D. Alert and oriented to self, place, time, and situation

D. Alert and oriented to self, place, time, and situation

Higher level cognitive functions, emotional stability, attention, and memory are components of Answers: A Graded activities B. Personality C. Global mental functions D. Specific mental functions

D. Specific mental functions

An individual with an attention dysfunction is able to tolerate therapy in a low-stimulus environment. The OTA should Answers: A. Continue treating the individual in a quiet environment until discharge B. Ask the occupational therapist to update the treatment plan accordingly C. Recommend that the individual attend therapy with others who have the same deficit D. Provide therapy in an environment with more activity

D. Provide therapy in an environment with more activity

A simple visual screening may consist of assessing which of the following: Answers. A. Convergence B. Visual acuities C. Saccadic movements D. All of the above

D. All of the above

Working memory is... Answers A. Memory for tasks to be completed in the future B. Deep seeded memory of basic facts C. Actively using information with the intention of retaining it D. Memory for episodes or life events

C. Actively using information with the intention of retaining it

An individual who has a head injury frequently displays behavioral problems. The individual would benefit from Answers: A. Medication to help control the behavior and counseling from a staff member who has training to work with inappropriate behaviors B. Consistent, specific, direct feedback regarding the inappropriateness of the behavior from all people working with the individual C. A strong emotional response from the staff to demonstrate the inappropriateness of the behavior D. Refraining from attending any therapy until the individual is able to monitor behavior and act in an appropriate manner

B. Consistent, specific, direct feedback regarding the inappropriateness of the behavior from all people working with the individual

Diseases of the motor unit generally causing muscle weakness and atrophy of the skeletal muscle that originates in the nerve AIl Answer Choices A. Poliomyelitis B. Myopathic C. Neurogenic D. Guillain-Barre syndrome E. Muscular dystrophies F. Postpolio syndrome G. Myasthenia gravis H. Peripheral nerve injury

C. Neurogenic

Diseases of the motor unit generally causing muscle weakness and atrophy of the skeletal muscle that originates in the muscle All Answer Choices A. Poliomyelitis B. Myopathic C. Neurogenic D. Guillain-Barre syndrome E. Muscular dystrophies F. Postpolio syndrome G. Myasthenia gravis H. Peripheral nerve injury

B. Myopathic

Viral disease affecting the anterior horn cells of the grey matter of the spinal cord and the motor nuclei of the brain stem All Answer Choices A. Poliomyelitis B. Myopathic C. Neurogenic D. Guillain-Barre syndrome E. Muscular dystrophies F. Postpolio syndrome G. Myasthenia gravis H. Peripheral nerve injury

A. Poliomyelitis

Primarily characterized by increased weakness of muscles that were previously affected by the polio infection muscles All Answer Choices A. Poliomyelitis B. Myopathic C. Neurogenic D. Guillain-Barre syndrome E. Muscular dystrophies F. Postpolio syndrome G. Myasthenia gravis H. Peripheral nerve injury

F. Postpolio syndrome

Acute inflammatory condition involving the spinal nerve roots, peripheral nerves, and in some cases) cranial nerves All Answer Choices A. Poliomyelitis B. Myopathic C. Neurogenic D. Guillain-Barre syndrome E. Muscular dystrophies F. Postpolio syndrome G. Myasthenia gravis H. Peripheral nerve injury

D. Guillain-Barre syndrome

Results in muscle weakness or flaccid paralysis, atrophy, and hyporeactive or asent deep tendon relaxes All Answer Choices A. Poliomyelitis B. Myopathic C. Neurogenic D. Guillain-Barre syndrome E. Muscular dystrophies F. Postpolio syndrome G. Myasthenia gravis H. Peripheral nerve injury

H. Peripheral nerve injury

A disease of chemical transmission at the nerve-muscle synapse or neuromuscular junction resulting in skeletal muscle weakness particularly the muscles or the eyelids and eves and oropharyngeal muscles All Answer Choices A. Poliomyelitis B. Myopathic C. Neurogenic D. Guillain-Barre syndrome E. Muscular dystrophies F. Postpolio syndrome G. Myasthenia gravis H. Peripheral nerve injury

G. Myasthenia gravis

A group of motor unit disorders caused by disease of the muscles and comprised of nine genetic degenerative diseases primarily affecting voluntary muscles All Answer Choices A. Poliomyelitis B. Myopathic C. Neurogenic D. Guillain-Barre syndrome E. Muscular dystrophies F. Postpolio syndrome G. Myasthenia gravis H. Peripheral nerve injury

E. Muscular dystrophies

Clients suffering from Guillain-Barre syndrome may be referred to occupational therapy while still paralyzed. This initial phase of treatment focuses on _______, _________, and _______

PROM positioning splinting

If the peripheral nerve root was cleanly severed and surgically repaired. The rate of regeneration will vary from ______ and _______ per month. Answers A. Regeneration is rare B O to .25 of an inch C. 5 inch to 1 inch D. 1 to 2 inches

C. 5 inch to 1 inch

In many cases, clients with Guillain-Barre Syndrome will completely recover within: Answers. A. A few weeks to a few months B. 6 months to 1 year C. Most patients will have some form of permanent motor weakness or paralysis of the limbs D. Within 6 months but with some form of sensory loss

A. A few weeks to a few months

Lesions can result from: (list 3)

Infections Nerve root compressions Toxins Neoplasms Vascular disorders Degenerative diseases Congenial malformations

List two of the four main types of Muscular Dystrophies (MD)

Correct Answer: 1) Duchenne MD 2) Becker MD 3) Facioscapulohumeral MD 4 Myotonic MD

Medical treatment for poliomyelitis during the acute phase includes _______, ________, and _______

bed rest positioning applications of warm packs to reduce pain and promote relaxation

Peripheral nerve regeneration begins approximately how long after surgery? A 90 davs B. 1 month C. within 6 months D. peripheral nerve damage is typically permanent

B. 1 month

Proximal lesions regenerate faster than distal lesions. Answers: True False

True

The axillary nerve is rarely damaged by itself, but is often damaged along with traumatic injury to the brachial plexus. This lesion will cause?

Weakness and paralysis of the deltoid muscle. resulting in imitations in horizontal abduction

The motor unit is the elementary functional unit in the motor system. It's components are the _______ _________ and the ________ ________ that it innervates

motor neurons muscle fibers

The network of lower anterior cervical and upper dorsal spinal nerves is collectively called the

brachial plexus

When treating clients with Postpolio, the first step is the development of an occupational profile. List 3 questions that should be asked during the interview:

1. Which activities cause pain? 2. Which activities have been curtailed or eliminated because of pain? 3. When are symptoms likely to occur? (time,circumstances) 4. What kinds of aids or equipment are they using? 5. Is human assistance presently being used?