Human Growth and Development

Question 1

Which of the following theories of child development is most accepted by researchers today:
Select one:

A.
environmentalist theory

B.
constructivist theory

C.
maturationist theory

D.
biological theory

Answer 1

B.
constructivist theory

Questions like this can be very subjective but the general consensus among current researchers is that child development and the learning process as articulated by the constructivists is most supported by research. Constructivists believe that learning and development occur when young children actively interact with the environment and people around them. This doesn’t necessarily translate into actual practice - many schools and other programs involving children are based on other theories.

Question 2

Which of these medications would be given to someone who was suffering from hallucinations?
Select one:

A.
lithium

B.
haloperidol

C.
an MAOI

D.
diazepam

Answer 2

B.
haloperidol

Haloperidol (Haldol) is used to treat hallucinations and other psychotic symptoms.

Question 3

The parents of a 4-year-old boy seek the assistance of a counselor to help them deal with discipline problems they are having with their child. Whenever the parents say “no” to the child, he reacts by having a tantrum. The tantrums have escalated since toddlerhood and the parents had hoped that the boy would outgrow his behavior. Instead, the tantrums seem to occur more and more often. The parents say that they have tried reasoning with him, giving him time-outs, even yelling at him, but nothing seems to work. The counselor suggests simply ignoring the behavior. If the parents decide to use this technique, they should be aware that:
Select one:

A.
it might have an adverse effect

B.
the tantrums might increase before they decrease

C.
the boy might adopt a more dangerous behavior to gain attention

D.
they will need to adapt their family structure to the boy’s non-tantrum behaviors

Answer 3

B.
the tantrums might increase before they decrease

Extinction often produces a temporary increase in the undesirable behavior before a decline is observed. This increase is sometimes referred to as a “response burst.”

Question 4

Salespeople are paid, on the average, after every 8th sale they make that is over $500. This is an example of a __________ schedule of reinforcement:
Select one:

A.
fixed interval

B.
variable interval

C.
fixed ratio

D.
variable ratio

Answer 4

D.

variable ratio

Question 5

For Erik Erikson, a two-year old child is most likely to be faced with which of the following psychosocial crises:
Select one:

A.
initiative vs. guilt

B.
autonomy vs. shame and doubt

C.
trust vs. mistrust

D.
industry vs. inferiority

Answer 5

B.
autonomy vs. shame and doubt

For Erikson, children between the ages of 1 and 3 must learn to be autonomous in order to feel confident about their own abilities later in life – that is, they must learn to assert their own wills and do things for themselves.

Question 6

A client comes into therapy exhibiting concern about the well-being of her grandchildren. Which one of Erikson’s stages of psychosocial development is this client likely in:
Select one:

A.
trust vs. mistrust

B.
initiative vs. guilt

C.
generativity vs. stagnation

D.
intimacy vs. isolation

Answer 6

C.
generativity vs. stagnation

The generativity vs. stagnation stage occurs late in a person’s life and is marked by an interest in the welfare of future generations.

Question 7

A couple leave their 11-month old son Neil at a babysitter’s for the first time. Upon their return, the babysitter is playing with Neil on the floor, and the baby does not notice his parents’ presence. The babysitter reports that Neil was an “absolute doll,” and he never cried when his parents left, not even for a moment. According to attachment theory, what does this indicate about Neil’s relationship with his mother:
Select one:

A.
Neil is securely attached

B.
the attachment is insecure/avoidant

C.
the attachment is insecure/resistant

D.
Neil is going to turn into a “daredevil”

Answer 7

B.
the attachment is insecure/avoidant

According to Ainsworth, a baby who shows no signs of distress over being left in a strange situation by his or her mother, and who avoids making contact with the mother upon her return, has an insecure/avoidant attachment. Mothers of avoidant children are either very impatient and unresponsive, or they overstimulate their children.

Question 8

Which of the following is true about the effects of employment on mothers:
Select one:

A.
working mothers are generally more satisfied with their lives than nonemployed mothers.

B.
working mothers tend to become depressed over conflicting roles and responsibilities.

C.
working mothers tend to score higher on measures of stress and psychosomatic symptoms than nonemployed mothers.

D.
maternal employment is associated with a high increase in the husband’s involvement in household tasks and childrearing.

Answer 8

A.
working mothers are generally more satisfied with their lives than nonemployed mothers.

This is most consistent with research findings (Kessler and McRae, 1982; Veroff, Douvan, and Kulka, 1981). Although working mothers worry about time spent with children and adequate childcare, they score lower on measures of stress, depression, and psychosomatic symptoms than mothers who stay home, and they report more overall satisfaction with their lives. Even though fathers pick up the slack when mothers work, this increase has been reported as modest (Hoffman, 1986).

Question 9

In general, school counselors do not engage in:
Select one:

A.
diagnostic assessment

B.
remediation

C.
education

D.
screening of teachers

Answer 9

D.

screening of teachers

Question 10

According to Kohlberg, the stage of moral development where moral judgments are based on rules and laws set forth by legitimate authorities is part of:
Select one:

A.
preconventional morality

B.
postconventional morality

C.
concrete operational morality

D.
conventional morality

Answer 10

D.
conventional morality

Conventional morality, the middle stage, according to Kohlberg, is, itself, divided in two stages. In one stage, the person relies on others’ approval to decide on the right action. In the next stage, laws and rules set forth by legitimate authorities are important.

Question 11

According to Kohlberg, a person in the sixth stage of moral development is guided in his or her moral judgments primarily by:
Select one:

A.
democratically-accepted laws and contracts

B.
principles of conscience

C.
cultural standards and values

D.
the actor’s intentions

Answer 11

B.
principles of conscience

Kohlberg’s original theory of moral development included six stages. In the sixth (highest) stage of development, which is not reached by most people, moral judgments are based on self-chosen principles that are considered universal in application

Question 12

A teenage girl is reprimanded at school by her chemistry teacher for failing to do her homework the night before. She is upset by this because she is a good student who has never misbehaved, but she accepts the criticism without responding to it. Later that day, she yells at her younger brother when he enters her bedroom while she is doing her homework. She rarely yells at her brother. Her behavior illustrates:
Select one:

A.
projection

B.
displacement

C.
sublimation

D.
reaction formation

Answer 12

B.
displacement

In this case, displacement is the defense mechanism that is operating. Displacement is the transfer of an instinctual drive from its original target (the teacher in this case) to a less threatening target (the little brother) so that the drive can be more safely expressed.

Question 13

Which of the following is the best description of “accommodation”
Select one:

A.
individuals actively construct their knowledge through their interactions with the environment

B.
the incorporation of new knowledge into existing cognitive structures or schemes

C.
the modification of existing schemes to incorporate new knowledge

D.
cognitive development stems from a drive toward cognitive equilibrium

Answer 13

C.

the modification of existing schemes to incorporate new knowledge

Question 14

An unpredictable pattern of responding is produced by which of the following schedules of reinforcement:
Select one:

A.
fixed interval

B.
fixed ratio

C.
fixed ratio

D.
variable ratio and variable interval

Answer 14

D.
variable ratio and variable interval

This question refers to Skinner’s schedules of reinforcement for behavior modification. Both of the variable schedules produce an unpredictable rate of responding (with the variable ratio schedule producing behavior most resistant to extinction).

Question 15

In their theories of development, both Piaget and Kohlberg emphasize which of the following:
Select one:

A.
cognitive maturation

B.
individual differences

C.
critical periods

D.
unconscious conflicts

Answer 15

A.
cognitive maturation

The theories of Piaget and Kohlberg both deal with cognitive development. Piaget stresses cognitive processes such as centration, reversibility, and deductive reasoning; Kohlberg’s theory is of moral development, which he viewed as a process of cognitive maturation.

Question 16

According to Erikson, the primary task of the anal stage of psychosocial development is the development of __________________, and failure to successfully accomplish this task leads to ____________________:
Select one:

A.
an ego identity; identity diffusion

B.
a capacity for industry; a sense of inferiority

C.
a sense of basic trust; suspicion and mistrust

D.
a sense of autonomy; doubt and shame

Answer 16

D.
a sense of autonomy; doubt and shame

According to Erikson, autonomy vs. shame is the psychosocial conflict of the muscular-anal (age 1-3) stage of psychosocial development.

Question 17

A repeated, senseless, intrusive, and anxiety-producing thought that a person knows is illogical but cannot control is referred to as a(n):
Select one:

A.
compulsion.

B.
delusion.

C.
obsession.

D.
illusion.

Answer 17

C.
obsession.

The DSM-5 defines obsessions as “recurrent and persistent thoughts, urges, or images that are experienced as intrusive or unwanted” (APA, 2013, p. 235). As an example, a person is exhibiting an obsession if her constant worrying that she will catch a disease from co-workers keeps her from completing her work.

Question 18

Theorists who focus on the development of the individual often view life as a series of developmental milestones. Which of the following individuals is not considered a developmental theorist:
Select one:

A.
Piaget

B.
Erikson

C.
Thelen

D.
Skinner

Answer 18

D.
Skinner

Piaget, Erikson, and Freud all focused on the development of the individual through ages and accompanying conflicts, behaviors, and other developmental milestones. Skinner was a behaviorist, and examined the establishment of specific behaviors, not the development of the individual.

Question 19

The most likely DSM-5 diagnosis for a person who experiences genital pain during sexual intercourse that causes significant distress and cannot be better explained by a non-sexual mental disorder, relationship distress, or a medical condition is which of the following?
Select one:

A.
Dyspareunia

B.
Vaginismus

C.
Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder

D.
Other Specified Sexual Dysfunction

Answer 19

C.
Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder

The DSM-5 diagnosis of Genito-Pelvic Pain/Penetration Disorder combines the DSM-IV-TR diagnoses of Dyspareunia and Vaginismus.

Question 20

Eliana, age 32, tells you that she often has trouble concentrating on her work and falling asleep at night because she’s constantly worrying about having cancer. She states that her older sister had surgery for breast cancer last year and her mother’s sister and uncle both had lung cancer. Eliana says she gets a physical exam every six months and has been reassured by the doctor that she’s okay; but she knows that, for some people, there are no symptoms of cancer until it’s too late to do anything about it. Eliana also tells you that she keeps checking her breasts for lumps and gets scared whenever she coughs because she thinks it might be an early sign of lung cancer. Eliana’s symptoms are most suggestive of which of the following DSM-5 disorders?
Select one:

A.
Body Dysmorphic Disorder

B.
Somatic Symptom Disorder

C.
Hypochondriasis

D.
Illness Anxiety Disorder

Answer 20

D.
Illness Anxiety Disorder

Illness Anxiety Disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with having a serious illness, an absence of somatic symptoms or the presence of mild somatic symptoms, a high level of anxiety about one’s health, and performance of excessive health-related behaviors (care-seeking type) or maladaptive avoidance of doctors, hospitals, etc. (care-avoidant type).

Question 21

Jalia J., age 34, is often very irritable with family members and friends, has trouble controlling her anger, has a history of frequent job changes and brief sexual affairs, and often complains that she is bored. Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for Jalia is __________ Personality Disorder.
Select one:

A.
Schizoid

B.
Narcissistic

C.
Histrionic

D.
Borderline

Answer 21

D.
Borderline

Jalia’s symptoms are most consistent with the DSM-5 diagnostic criteria for Borderline Personality Disorder, which is characterized by instability in self-image, interpersonal relations, and affect.

Question 22

Systematic desensitization and aversive counterconditioning are therapies based on
Select one:

A.
operant conditioning

B.
classical conditioning

C.
reality therapy

D.
strategic therapy

Answer 22

B.
classical conditioning

Systematic desensitization and aversive counterconditioning are based on the notions of conditioned and unconditioned stimuli, which are part of classical conditioning.

Question 23

The developmental tasks associated with Robert Havighurst occur:
Select one:

A.
throughout childhood only

B.
throughout childhood and adolescence only

C.
throughout childhood, adolescence, and early adulthood only

D.
throughout the entire life span

Answer 23

D.
throughout the entire life span

Havighurst viewed development in general, and the tasks associated with development in particular, as occurring throughout the entire life span. He divided a person’s set of developmental tasks as occurring in six different time frames: 1) infancy and early childhood; 2) middle childhood; 3) adolescence; 4) early adulthood; 5) middle age; and 6) later maturity.

Question 24

According to Piaget, there are four underlying processes that facilitate cognitive development. The four processes are:
Select one:

A.
sensori-motor, preoperational, concrete operations, formal operations

B.
schema, assimilation, accommodation, and equilibrium

C.
#N/A

D.
automatic operations, concrete operations, formal operations, abstract reasoning

Answer 24

B.
schema, assimilation, accommodation, and equilibrium

Be sure you read this question carefully. The question is not asking for Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development, which are listed in answer A. The question is looking for the processes that underlie cognitive development. According to Piaget, these are: 1) schema (an individual’s self-constructed mental structures); 2) assimilation (the fitting of new stimuli into existing schema); 3) accommodation (creating new schema or modifying old schema); and 4) equilibrium (balancing assimilation and accommodation).

Question 25

A child’s ability to imagine, remember, and pretend develops most markedly in which of the following stages of cognitive development, according to Piaget:
Select one:

A.
sensori-motor

B.
preoperational

C.
concrete operations

D.
formal operations

Answer 25

B.
preoperational

During the second, or preoperational stage, children develop and use the skills of remembering, imagining and pretending. These skills are present in other stages of course, but the question is asking in which stage is the development of these skills most accelerated.

Question 26

According to the developmental theory of Vygotsky, which of the following plays the most significant role in the development of cognition:
Select one:

A.
genetic factors

B.
environmental factors

C.
consistent conditioning

D.
social interaction

Answer 26

D.
social interaction

Vygotsky’s theory, sometimes called Social Development Theory, stresses the role of childhood social interactions, both in and out of the classroom, in the development of cognition. While it is true that environmental factors (B) play a role, according to Vygotsky, D is the better answer because it specifically mentions interactions.

Question 27

A child in Piaget’s preoperational stage of cognitive development is most likely in Kohlberg’s _________________ level of moral development:
Select one:

A.
postconventional

B.
preconventional

C.
conventional

D.
legalistic

Answer 27

B.
preconventional

The preoperational stage occurs between the ages of 2-7; the preconventional stage occurs between the ages of 4-10.

Question 28

Fixed ratio, fixed interval, variable ratio, and variable interval schedules of reinforcement are:
Select one:

A.
continuous schedules of reinforcement

B.
intermittent schedules of reinforcement

C.
consistent schedules of reinforcement

D.
classical conditioning-based schedules of reinforcement

Answer 28

B.
intermittent schedules of reinforcement

The ratio and interval schedules of reinforcement assume that reinforcement is not given every time; i.e., they are intermittent, not continuous. Answer (d) is wrong because reinforcement is based on notions of operant conditioning, not classical conditioning.

Question 29

The ideal balance between parents who are too rigid in their discipline and parents who are too flexible describes which of the following styles:
Select one:

A.
authoritarian

B.
permissive

C.
Democratic

D.
rationalistic

Answer 29

C.
Democratic

The authoritative parenting style (sometimes called “democratic”) is the ideal balance between too much discipline (authoritarian) and too little discipline (permissive).

Question 30

Two university professors engage in a debate about the etiology of phobic reactions. Dr. Smith claims that phobias result when a person is rewarded for avoiding a certain stimulus. Dr. Jones claims that phobias occur as a result of repeated pairings of a fear-evoking stimulus with a neutral stimulus to the point that the neutral stimulus is feared. Dr. Smith is making the case for __________ conditioning, while Dr. Jones is making the case for __________ conditioning:
Select one:

A.
backwards; higher order

B.
higher order; backwards

C.
classical; operant

D.
operant; classical

Answer 30

D.
operant; classical

Dr. Smith is arguing that phobias occur as a result of operant conditioning, or as the result of rewards and/or consequences for phobic behavior. Dr. Jones holds that phobias occur as the result of the pairing of two stimuli, until the second stimulus comes to elicit the same involuntary response as the first. This describes the classical conditioning paradigm. (a) and (b) are both subsets of classical conditioning.

Question 31

A parent should be most concerned if his:
Select one:

A.
seven-year-old child starts to stutter

B.
five-year-old child is afraid of having “bad dreams”

C.
three-year-old child occasionally wets the bed

D.
two-year-old child is afraid of other children

Answer 31

A.
seven-year-old child starts to stutter

Stuttering is considered atypical if it develops at the age of seven. Choices (b), (c), and (d) describe normal developmental phenomena.

Question 32

You reward a child whenever he does not argue or fight with others for a prespecified period of time. Which of the following behavioral techniques are you using:
Select one:

A.
differential reinforcement

B.
Premack Principle

C.
negative reinforcement

D.
time-out

Answer 32

A.
differential reinforcement

This question gives an example of differential reinforcement for other behaviors, whereby the person is reinforced every time he/she engages in a behavior that is not the one targeted for elimination.

(b) With the use of the Premack Principle, a high-frequency behavior is utilized as a positive reinforcer for a low-frequency behavior in order to increase the low-frequency behavior.
(c) In negative reinforcement, performance of a behavior increases as the result of the removal of a stimulus following the behavior.
(d) Time-out involves removing all sources of positive reinforcement, after the expression of a particular behavior, for a brief, prespecified period of time in order to decrease the behavior.

Question 33

The procedures known as “time-out” and “response cost” share in common which of the following:
Select one:

A.
both are forms of operant extinction

B.
both eliminate the need for punishment

C.
both entail using negative reinforcement

D.
both entail withholding positive consequences

Answer 33

D.
both entail withholding positive consequences

Time-out and response cost are both types of negative punishment that involve the removal of positive reinforcement. Time-out involves removing opportunities for reinforcement for a period of time following a behavior to reduce that behavior. Response cost entails removing a particular reinforcer following a behavior to eliminate the behavior.

Question 34

A school administration decides that teachers can no longer use any form of punishment to reduce students’ misbehavior. This means that, of the following, teachers can rely on:
Select one:

A.
verbal reprimands

B.
overcorrection

C.
time-out

D.
D.R.O.

Answer 34

D.
D.R.O.

A stimulus qualifies as a punisher if its application or withdrawal following a behavior reduces the frequency of that behavior. Of the techniques listed, only D.R.O. (differential reinforcement for other behaviors) does not involve punishment. Although it is used to eliminate an undesirable behavior, it does so by reinforcing alternative behaviors rather than by applying or withdrawing a stimulus following the undesirable behavior. The intention of verbal reprimands (a) is to reduce or eliminate a behavior. Consequently, reprimands qualify as a form of punishment. Overcorrection (b) is a type of punishment that involves two phases – restitution and positive practice. Time-out (c) is also classified as a type of punishment since it is used specifically to decrease undesirable behaviors. Time-out involves withdrawing a stimulus that functions otherwise as a positive reinforcer (e.g., a fun and/or social environment).

Question 35

A 71-year-old retired college professor obtains a score of 90 on an IQ test, exhibits problems with both judgment and abstract thinking, frequently repeats what he has just said in conversations, and has substantial memory loss that he doesn’t seem to be aware of. His wife says that, in the past year, he “just hasn’t seemed like himself.” Based on these symptoms, the most likely diagnosis for this man is:
Select one:

A.
Delirium.

B.
Major Depressive Disorder.

C.
normal age-related cognitive decline.

D.
Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimers Disease.

Answer 35

D.
Neurocognitive Disorder due to Alzheimers Disease.

Answer d is correct. Additional information would be needed to determine the appropriate diagnosis for this man but, of the conditions listed in the answers, Neurocognitive Disorder Due to Alzheimer’s Disease is most consistent with his symptoms and age. Reduced awareness and attention (e.g., a reduced ability to focus or shift attention and a reduced orientation to the environment) is required for a diagnosis of Delirium (answer a). Major Depressive Disorder may include prominent cognitive symptoms (especially among older adults), but the onset of cognitive symptoms for depression is usually abrupt and the person is overly concerned about his/her memory loss (answer b). Finally, this man’s impairments are more severe than those associated with normal age-related cognitive decline (answer c).

Question 36

The parents of 9-year-old Benny say that he is often angry and resentful, refuses to follow directions or comply with requests at home and at school, is stubborn and argumentative, and blames others for his mistakes. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis for Benny?
Select one:

A.
Conduct Disorder

B.
ADHD

C.
Oppositional Defiant Disorder

D.
Bipolar I Disorder

Answer 36

C.
Oppositional Defiant Disorder

Answer c is correct. Benny’s behaviors do not include the characteristic symptoms of ADHD or Bipolar Disorder and are not severe enough to qualify for a diagnosis of Conduct Disorder. However, they seem to reflect a negative, hostile attitude, which makes Oppositional Defiant Disorder the best answer. The essential feature of Oppositional Defiant Disorder is a “pattern of angry/irritable mood, argumentative/defiant behavior, or vindictiveness lasting at least six months as evidenced by at least four characteristic symptoms (e.g., refusal to follow directions or comply with requests, often argues with authority figures, often blames others for his/her misbehavior, and is often angry and resentful).

Question 37

Unlike Erikson, Freud emphasizes:
Select one:

A.
development over the lifespan

B.
psychosocial maturation

C.
the resolution of developmental conflicts

D.
psychosexual conflicts

Answer 37

D.
psychosexual conflicts

Freud’s and Erikson’s developmental theories differ in a number of respects. For instance, while Erikson focuses on psychosocial conflicts, Freud emphasizes psychosexual conflicts. Another difference is that Erikson’s theory addresses development throughout the life span, whereas Freud’s theory deals with development up to the age of 12.

Question 38

Learning theory is most helpful in understanding personality development when it:
Select one:

A.
deals with descriptions of personality

B.
presents ideal models of personality

C.
deals with acquisition, maintenance, and change of behavior

D.
is applied to the understanding of abnormalities of personality

Answer 38

C.
deals with acquisition, maintenance, and change of behavior

Learning theory goes beyond the culture to analyze how the individual acquires his or her personality. The focus is the variables that regulate the acquisition and maintenance of social learning and emotional development, as well as changes in behavior. In this general process, learning theory sometimes specifically deals with descriptions of personality (“a”), ideal models (“b”), and abnormalities (“d”).

Question 39

Systematic desensitization is a concept developed by:
Select one:

A.
Skinner

B.
Wolpe

C.
Bandura

D.
Piaget

Answer 39

B.
Wolpe

Joseph Wolpe is the psychiatrist who developed systematic desensitization as a procedure for unlearning fears. Systematic desensitization is a classical conditioning procedure for reducing anxiety that is based upon the principle of reciprocal inhibition (counterconditioning). Systematic desensitization involves pairing hierarchically-arranged anxiety-evoking stimuli with relaxation in order to eliminate the anxiety response.

Question 40

Which of the following is typically most important for successful recovery from emotional and mental disorders:
Select one:

A.
effective coping skills

B.
successful psychotherapy

C.
an adequate social support system

D.
pharmacotherapy

Answer 40

C.
an adequate social support system

The recovery of patients with an adequate social system is typically faster and more permanent than the recovery of patients who lack social support.