Assessment

Question 1

Which of the following is not defined as a basic function of appraisal:
Select one:

A. assessing the presenting problem

B. gaining a basis for prediction

C. understanding a client’s personality resources

D. providing a client with information about him or herself

Answer 1

D. providing a client with information about him or herself

Because of the word “not,” this is a reverse type question. While some instruments of appraisal provide clients with information about themselves, appraisal (which is essentially synonymous with diagnosis) basically involves identifying the presenting problem, gaining an understanding of the client, and predicting the future course of the problem and the client.
The correct answer is: providing a client with information about him or herself

Question 2

If a test uses an existing passing score as a comparison to your score, it is:
Select one:

A.
criterion-referenced

B.
norm-referenced

C.
a standardized test

D.
a power test

Answer 2

A.
criterion-referenced

Criterion-referenced test-scores are interpreted in terms of a prespecified standard of performance. (b) Norm-referenced compares scores to scores in the sample norm. (c) Standardized test scores are determined in terms of standard deviations from the mean. (d) Power tests are made up of items of varying difficulty levels. An examinee’s score on a power test reflects the level of difficulty she or he has mastered.
The correct answer is: criterion-referenced

Question 3

Moos and his associates have developed three major dimensions to measure environments in order to classify the similarities and differences among them. These dimensions are useful in environmental assessment and include all of the following except:
Select one:

A.
a relationship dimension

B.
a system maintenance and change dimension
Incorrect

C.
an individual intrapsychic dimension

D.
a personal development dimension

Answer 3

C.
an individual intrapsychic dimension

Moos (1975) focused on the environment in which people interact. Answers (a), (b), and (d) exist in that environment and are measured by Moos. An individual intrapsychic dimension is not included; thus, (c) is “wrong,” and the correct answer to this reverse type question.
The correct answer is: an individual intrapsychic dimension

Question 4

Which of the following would be the best predictor of an individual’s IQ score:
Select one:

A.
the IQ of the rest of his family

B.
his age

C.
his birth order

D.
his gender

Answer 4

A.
the IQ of the rest of his family

Of the choices listed, only the IQ of family members has any validity for predicting an individual’s IQ.
The correct answer is: the IQ of the rest of his family

Question 5

You develop a diagnostic math test for a group of sixth-graders. You correlate scores on the diagnostic instrument with the examinees’ most recent grades in math classes. You do so to establish:
Select one:

A.
construct validity

B.
criterion-related validity

C.
content validity

D.
differential validity

Answer 5

B.
criterion-related validity

A predictor test has criterion-related validity if it is useful for predicting outcome on another (criterion) measure. In this case, the predictor would be the math test, and the criterion would be the grades in math classes. A high correlation between the predictor and the criterion measures indicates that the predictor has high criterion-related validity. (a) Construct validity refers to when a test is found to measure the hypothetical trait or construct it is intended to measure. Construct validity is determined through a systematic accumulation of evidence showing that a test actually measures what it is supposed to measure. (c) Content validity refers to the systematic evaluation of a test by experts who determine whether or not the test items adequately sample the relevant domain. (d) Discriminant validity is a test for a study’s construct validity. It involves establishing if a test has low correlations with measures of unrelated traits.

Question 6

You give a group of your clients a test of vocational interest. You then give the same group a different version of the same test. You find that the correlation between the first group of scores and the second group of scores is .55. What kind of reliability coefficient is this:
Select one:

A.
coefficient of equivalence

B.
coefficient of stability

C.
coefficient of internal consistency

D.
coefficient alpha

Answer 6

A.
coefficient of equivalence

A coefficient of equivalence is derived by administering two forms of the same test to a single sample and correlating the two sets of scores.

Question 7

For which of the following pairs is IQ score correlation the lowest:
Select one:

A.
siblings reared apart

B.
child reared apart from biological parent and his or her biological parent

C.
non-biological siblings reared together

D.
adoptive parent and child

Answer 7

D.
adoptive parent and child

The low correlations obtained between the IQS of adoptive parents and adopted children supports the notion that intelligence is primarily an innate, inherited characteristic.

Question 8

A personnel manager gives all employees a battery of five tests before they are hired. The maximum score on each test is 100 and the passing score on each is 65. An applicant scores 99, 97, 95, 100, and 64 on the tests. The personnel manager is using the method of multiple cutoff. Therefore, she will:
Select one:

A.
use each score as a predictor of future job performance in a particular area

B.
use her own judgment to decide which score(s) accurately reflect(s) the applicant potential

C.
hire this applicant

D.
reject this applicant

Answer 8

D.
reject this applicant

With this method, there is a cutoff score on each test in the battery. The applicant must score at or above the cutoff score established, which, in this case, is 65. The one test score of 64 means this applicant will be rejected.
The correct answer is: reject this applicant

Question 9

Junior, a one-year-old infant, takes an infant IQ test and achieves a score of 130. Research on the predictive validity of infant intelligence tests suggests that when Junior reaches adulthood, he will achieve an IQ of:
Select one:

A.
greater than 130

B.
less than 130

C.
about 130

D.
either 130, less than 130, or greater than 130

Answer 9

D.
either 130, less than 130, or greater than 130

Research indicates that infant intelligence tests administered before the age of two have little or no validity for predicting future intelligence.

Question 10

An expectancy table is used to:
Select one:

A.
predict an individual’s criterion score given his predictor score

B.
determine an individual’s true criterion score given his predicted criterion score

C.
estimate an individual’s expected score on a predictor given his previous performance on the predictor

D.
determine an individual’s expected score on a predictor given his demographic characteristics

Answer 10

A.
predict an individual’s criterion score given his predictor score.

Expectancy tables allow a test user to interpret examinees’ predictor scores in terms of potential scores on a criterion. They are a form of criterion-referenced interpretation.

Question 11

On a standardized test measuring your reasoning skills, you score at the 65th percentile. This means that:
Select one:

A.
you scored higher than 65% of the other test takers

B.
you scored lower than 65% of the other test takers

C.
you answered 65% more of the items correctly than did someone scoring at the mean

D.
your score cannot be compared to other examinees because it is a standardized test

Answer 11

A.
you scored higher than 65% of the other test takers

A percentile indicates the percentage of other people taking the same test who scored lower than you; conversely, you can determine the percentage of people you scored higher. So, A is correct - you scored higher than 65% of the other test takers.

Question 12

An eighth-grade student is tested on a standardized mathematics achievement test. Her score is compared to other eighth graders locally, statewide, and nationally. Compared to others at the local level, she scored at the 60th percentile. Compared to others at the state level, she scored at the 70th percentile. Compared to others nationally, she scored at the 80th percentile. What does this information tell us about how other students in her local area compare to students statewide and nationally:
Select one:

A.
students in the local area perform better than the state average but lower than the national average

B.
students in the local area perform better than both the state and national averages

C.
students in the local area perform lower than both the state and national averages

D.
students in the local area perform lower than the state average but better than the national average

Answer 12

B.
students in the local area perform better than both the state and national averages

The student, in comparison to students at the local level, is at a lower percentile than she is at either the state or national levels. This means that other students locally perform better than both the state and national averages - this student’s percentile is lower locally because she’s up against better “competition.”

Question 13

Advocates of a behavioral assessment approach have defined several differences between behavioral and traditional assessment approaches. For example, in contrast to traditional assessment, behavioral assessments emphasize the analysis of:
Select one:

A.
traits

B.
states

C.
signs

D.
dynamics

Answer 13

B.
states

Traditional assessment tends to focus on global traits such as ego strength. Behavioral assessment emphasizes directness and deals with modes of responses that are more situationally specific (i.e., states).

Question 14

Personality and interest tests are:
Select one:

A.
tests of typical performance

B.
tests of maximum performance

C.
normative measures

D.
ipsative measures

Answer 14

A.
tests of typical performance

Typical performance gives information about how the examinee usually performs. This is the information obtained from personality and interest tests. (b) Achievement and aptitude tests are usually tests of maximum performance. (c) Normative measures or standardized tests are administered under standard conditions to a representative sample to establish “norms” for whatever is being measured. (d) Ipsative measures indicate relative strengths and weaknesses of interest in an examinee.

Question 15

When you administer an achievement test, your purpose is most likely to be which of the following:
Select one:

A.
to assess the individual’s ability to manipulate quantitative data

B.
to measure how much the individual’s skills have developed

C.
to measure the individual’s vocational potential

D.
to assess how actively the individual is involved in the vocational choice process

Answer 15

B.
to measure how much the individual’s skills have developed

Achievement tests are designed to measure how much an individual has learned, how developed his/her skills are, or what competencies he/she has acquired. Choice (a) describes a purpose for the tests of mental ability. “Mental ability” (intelligence) refers to an individual’s ability to manipulate verbal, quantitative, and other abstract symbols. Choice (c) describes a purpose for the aptitude tests, which are tests designed to estimate an individual’s potential for future performance. And response (d) is associated with the personality inventories. These tests are used to collect information on an individual’s attitudes, preferences, or problems. Some personality measures are useful for assessing how actively involved the individual is in the vocational choice process.

Question 16

A nine-year-old girl is given a standardized IQ test as part of the admissions procedure to enter a private school for gifted children and her IQ is 135. One year later the girl is re-tested. You would expect her obtained IQ score on re-testing to be:
Select one:

A.
higher than 135

B.
135

C.
lower than 135

D.
either higher or lower than 135, but close to it

Answer 16

C.
lower than 135

This question is related to the concept of regression to the mean. According to this principle, extreme scores (i.e., very high or very low scores) are likely to be less extreme (i.e., closer to the mean) upon retesting. Since 135 is a very high IQ score, the child’s IQ score is likely to be slightly lower when she is re-tested.

Question 17

Which of the following descriptive words for tests are most opposite in nature:
Select one:

A.
speed and power

B.
subjective and aptitude

C.
norm-referenced and standardized

D.
maximal and ipsative

Answer 17

A.
speed and power

Pure speed tests and pure power tests are at opposite ends of a continuum. A speed test is one with a strict time limit and easy items which most or all examinees are expected to answer correctly. Speed tests measure examinees’ response speed. A power test is one with either no time limit or a generous one, and has items ranging from easy to very difficult (usually ordered from least to most difficult). Power tests measure level of content mastered.

Question 18

Increasing the length of a test MAY increase a test’s:
Select one:

A.
reliability and validity

B.
validity but never reliability

C.
reliability but never validity

D.
ease of scoring

Answer 18

A.
reliability and validity

Increasing test length will increase reliability. Sometimes, validity tends to increase when reliability increases. Answer (d) is incorrect, because a longer test will be more difficult to score.

Question 19

A test of mechanical aptitude is being used to select participants for jobs on the assembly line at an airplane manufacturing company. An analysis has determined that the test measures two factors: fine motor skills and spatial reasoning. This fact provides evidence of the test’s:
Select one:

A.
construct validity

B.
concurrent validity

C.
incremental validity

D.
content validity

Answer 19

A.
construct validity

A test has construct validity to the degree that it measures the amount of a theoretical construct possessed by an examinee. Construct validity is assessed in many ways, such as conducting a factor analysis and determining whether or not test scores have an expected correlation with the underlying factors identified by the analysis. (b) Concurrent validity is a type of criterion-related validity. Criterion-related validity is of interest when test scores are used to predict an examinee’s likely performance on another set of measures. Concurrent validity is assessed by collecting criterion data prior to or at about the same time as the data on the predictor. (c) Incremental validity refers to the extent to which a predictor increases decision-making accuracy. Incremental validity is also a type of criterion-related validity. (d) Content validity refers to the extent to which a test accurately samples the domain that it purports to measure. Content validity is determined primarily by expert judgment.

Question 20

Normative and ipsative measures differ from one another in the following way:
Select one:

A.
ipsative measures require examinees to compare test items to one another while normative measures require examinees to respond to each test item independently

B.
only ipsative measures yield scores that can be compared between subjects

C.
only ipsative measures are used to measure attributes such as personality traits or interests

D.
ipsative measures require examinees to respond to each test item independently while normative measures require examinees to compare test items to one another

Answer 20

A.
ipsative measures require examinees to compare test items to one another while normative measures require examinees to respond to each test item independently

Normative measures require examinees to respond to each item independent of every other test item, while ipsative measures require examinees to compare test items to one another. Normative measures yield scores that provide an estimate of the absolute strength of each attribute measured by the test for each examinee and permit comparisons between examinees. In contrast, ipsative measures yield scores that indicate the relative strengths of the various attributes being measured within each examinee.

Question 21

The counseling department at a university is interested in measuring the relationship between the GRE scores of students entering the program and the students’ grade point average upon graduation. They discover that the correlation between the two measures is .60. What is the amount of variability shared between grade point average and GRE:
Select one:

A.
0.8

B.
0.6

C.
0.36

D.
0.06

Answer 21

C.
0.36

Shared variability, or the amount of variability shared by two variables, is equal to the square of the correlation coefficient (r) of the two variables, or r2. If the correlation is .60, then the amount of shared variability is .602, or .36.

Question 22

A junior high school counselor gives an IQ test to a 13-year old student. The student scores very high on the test. The counselor would expect the student to have:
Select one:

A.
below-average athletic ability

B.
average athletic ability

C.
above-average athletic ability

D.
no interest in athletics
Feedback

Answer 22

B.
average athletic ability

Notice that the question asked what the counselor would “expect.” In appraisal, an expected value is the value you think a variable would take on, assuming only the information you are given. There is no consistent correlation between most IQ tests and athletic ability. If there is no correlation between two variables, then the value you expect for the second variable based on the first variable is the mean. The best answer, then, is the one that reflects average athletic ability. Think about it this way: if you know absolutely nothing about a person, you would assume they’re average. If IQ and athletic ability were strongly correlated, however, the answer would be “a” (if they were negatively correlated) or “c” (if they were positively correlated).

Question 23

A career counselor gives all of her new clients a measure of career maturity that scores people on a 100-point scale from 1 to 100. After collecting data on over 100 clients, she notices that the scores are normally distributed. The mean score is 65, indicating a level of moderate career maturity. The standard deviation of scores is 10. Based on this information, she would expect that 68% of her clients will have scores between:
Select one:

A.
1 and 100

B.
35 and 95

C.
45 and 85

D.
55 and 75

Answer 23

D.
55 and 75

In a normally distributed distribution, approximately 68% of scores will be in the range of one standard deviation below the mean and one standard deviation above the mean. In this case, the standard deviation is 10 and the mean is 65. One standard deviation below the mean is 55 and one standard deviation above the mean is 75. So, the career counselor would expect about two-thirds, or 68%, of the scores to be in this range.

Question 24

A client at a vocational development center is taking a test to help determine her career interests. The function of this test could be best described as:
Select one:

A.
prediction

B.
discrimination

C.
monitoring

D.
evaluation

Answer 24

B.
discrimination

Vocational or career interest tests (and all interest tests for that matter) are considered to be used for the purpose of discrimination (i.e., determining what category a person belongs in).

Question 25

The developer of a new career interest inventory gives a copy of the inventory to a group of career counselors and asks each of them to rate the value of each of the items on a seven-point scale. The test developer is trying to assess:
Select one:

A.
internal consistency reliability

B.
construct validity

C.
criterion-related validity

D.
content validity

Answer 25

D.
content validity

By having experts in a particular domain judge the value of the items, the test developer is trying to assess the content validity of the test. Also, note the similarity between the words “value” and “validity.”

Question 26

An expectancy table is used to interpret an examinee’s test score in terms of his or her:
Select one:

A.
expected outcome on a criterion

B.
standing in a normative group

C.
expected “true” test score

D.
mastery of the test content

Answer 26

A.
expected outcome on a criterion

An expectancy table provides examinees’ likely outcome on a criterion measure, given their score on a predictor measure.

Question 27

You are working as a consultant for a large corporation. The president of the company tells you that there is something wrong with the test he is giving to applicants for upper management positions. Specifically, many applicants who have failed the test and have been turned down for positions have gone on to be great successes at other companies. Apparently, the test yields too many:
Select one:

A.
true negatives

B.
true positives

C.
false negatives

D.
false positives

Answer 27

C.
false negatives

This test does not have criterion-related validity since applicants who have been rejected were later proved to be successful. Thus, the test yields too many false rejections (false negatives).

Question 28

A test designed to measure levels of alcohol intoxication yields high scores for examinees who are under the influence of marijuana, PCP, and caffeine. The test lacks:
Select one:

A.
differential validity

B.
divergent validity

C.
predictive validity

D.
content validity

Answer 28

A.
differential validity

Differential validity means correlation in one classification category only. This test cannot correlate one category (alcohol intoxication) only since marijuana, PCP and caffeine are included in the measurement for alcohol. (b) Divergent or discriminant validity is a method for assessing a test’s construct validity. A test has discriminant validity when it has low correlations with measures designed to assess unrelated traits. (c) Predictive validity is a type of criterion-related validity determined by correlating predictor scores with subsequently-obtained criterion scores. (d) Content validity is the extent to which a test adequately samples the domain of information, knowledge, or skill that it purports to measure.

Question 29

Which of the following is not a major section of the Standards for Education and Psychological Testing (1999)?
Select one:

A.
test construction, evaluation, and documentation

B.
fairness in testing

C.
testing applications

D.
tests and assessments in use and in development

Answer 29

D.
tests and assessments in use and in development

The Standards for Education and Psychological Testing (1999) were developed jointly by the American Educational Research Association, the American Psychological Association, and the National Council on Measurement in Education. This document addresses professional and technical issues of test development and test use in education, psychology, and employment.
A. Incorrect See answer D.
B. Incorrect See answer D.
C. Incorrect See answer D.
D. CORRECT Choices A, B, and C comprise the three major parts of the Standards. The Standards do not cover actual, specific tests in use or development.

Question 30

Aptitude tests are to achievement tests as __________ is to ability to perform a task.
Select one:

A.
general ability

B.
ability to learn a task

C.
previous learning

D.
any of the above

Answer 30

B.
ability to learn a task

In the past it was presumed that aptitude tests measured innate abilities and achievement tests measured learning experiences. Research (e.g., Goh and McElhorn, 1992) has shown, however, that innate ability and environmental factors account for the same amount of variability in both achievement and aptitude tests. The currently accepted distinction between the two forms of testing is that aptitude tests measure a person’s potential capacity for future learning and achievement tests measure what a person has already learned; i.e., his/her developed capacity (Walsh and Betz, 1990). The distinction between these two types of tests is not absolute, however, and some authors (e.g., Aiken, 1985) recommend that the term “ability test” be used to refer to both forms of testing, with “ability” being defined as a person’s capacity to perform a task.
A. Incorrect “General ability” is too broad.
B. CORRECT “Ability to learn a task” is the only good answer offered.
C. Incorrect “Previous learning” has much to do with achievement, while previous learning also affects aptitude.
D. Incorrect Only B is correct.

Question 31

Each item on a 60-item math test is given equal weight. Scores are computed by taking the fraction of correct items divided by total number of items, and converting that fraction to a decimal number. For example, a person who answered 45 out of 60 correct got a score of .75. Person X got a score of .70 on this test. If Person X’s score were converted to percentage correct, what would the new score be?
Select one:

A.
70%

B.
0.45

C.
it depends on the distribution of scores

D.
there is not enough information provided to be able to answer this question

Answer 31

A.
70%

This question requires both that you understand the concept of a percentage, and figure out that the question is much less complex than it might appear to be.
A. CORRECT The heart of the question is, “.70 out of 1.00 is equal to what percentage?” If you know what a percentage is, it is very easy to derive the answer–70%.

Question 32

Which of the following is NOT true about the General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB)?
Select one:

A.
it involves both paper-and-pencil and performance tests

B.
it provides scores on factors that cover both intellectual and manual aptitude

C.
it is used for vocational counseling and job placement

D.
it includes personality assessment

Answer 32

D.
it includes personality assessment

The General Aptitude Test Battery (GATB) was developed by the United States Employment Service for use with high school students and adults for vocational counseling and job placement and referral. It consists of eight paper-and-pencil and four apparatus tests that provide scores on nine factors: general learning ability, verbal aptitude, numerical aptitude, spatial aptitude, form perception, clerical perception, motor coordination, finger dexterity, and manual dexterity.

Question 33

As a result of the court’s decision in Griggs v. Duke Power, employers must:
Select one:

A.
be able to demonstrate the relationship between selection tests scores and job performance

B.
not use IQ tests for selection or placement purposes under any condition

C.
provide examinees with a copy of any test used for decision-making purposes if requested

D.
not use selection instruments that yield different scores for different groups of applicants (e.g., males and females)

Answer 33

A.
be able to demonstrate the relationship between selection tests scores and job performance

Griggs v. Duke Power Company (1971) set a number of standards for using tests. For instance, it required companies to prove, when challenged, that their selection tests are valid.

Question 34

Prediction is to discrimination as predicting a client’s success in academic and career behaviors is to:
Select one:

A.
evaluating how well intervention goals are being achieve

B.
identifying a client’s level of career maturity

C.
evaluating a client’s profile in relation to occupational and/or academic groups

D.
assessing the content of a client’s career choice

Answer 34

C.
evaluating a client’s profile in relation to occupational and/or academic groups

The major functions of testing in vocational/career counseling are prediction, discrimination, monitoring, and evaluation. Prediction and discrimination are relevant to the content of a client’s career choice, while monitoring is relevant to the process of a client’s career choice. In prediction, standardized test data are used to predict a client’s success in various areas, such as academic and career behaviors. Discrimination involves using tests and inventories to help the client learn what occupational and/or academic groups he/she resembles in terms of interests, values, personality traits, etc. Monitoring data are used to identify a client’s level of career maturity (i.e., readiness to make a career choice). Evaluation entails using tests to determine the effectiveness of an intervention (e.g., whether and to what extent intervention goals are being achieved).
A. Incorrect See above.
B. Incorrect See above.
C. CORRECT Based on the information above, you can see that the correct analogy is “prediction is to discrimination as predicting a client’s success in academic and career behaviors is to evaluating a client’s profile in relation to occupational and/or academic groups.”
D. Incorrect See above.

Question 35

In general, research has demonstrated that tests such as the Bayley Scales of Infant Development:
Select one:

A.
are valid predictors of academic performance in grammar and high school

B.
are valid for assessing the intelligence of children in the elementary grades

C.
have little validity for predicting adult intelligence test scores

D.
have moderate to high validity for predicting academic success

Answer 35

C.
have little validity for predicting adult intelligence test scores

Bayley’s test is designed to evaluate intelligence in infants and preschool children, ages 2-30 months.
A. Incorrect This is not true.
B. Incorrect This is not true.
C. CORRECT Tests such as the Baley are difficult to administer due to the short attention span and lack of interest in small children. Also, the abilities of infants are not stable. Therefore, infant intelligence tests have little validity for predicting future intelligence.
D. Incorrect This is not true.

Question 36

Tests are widely used in industry to predict training and on-the-job success. Recent meta-analyses of research investigating the validity of tests in industrial settings have shown which of the following to be true about the validity of tests for predicting job performance ratings?
Select one:

A.
interest inventories are more valid than either ability or personality tests

B.
ability tests are more valid than either interest inventories or personality tests

C.
interest inventories and ability tests are about equally valid and more valid than personality tests

D.
interest inventories and personality tests are about equally valid and more valid than ability tests

Answer 36

B.
ability tests are more valid than either interest inventories or personality tests

Research indicates that general ability tests have some validity for predicting occupational success. Interest inventories and personality tests, however, have little validity for this purpose.

Question 37

Which of the following represents the best performance?
Select one:

A.
percentile score of 90 in a normal distribution

B.
T-score of 75

C.
stanine score of 9

D.
z-score of +3.0

Answer 37

D.
z-score of +3.0

A z-score of +3.0 is three standard deviation units above the mean. By contrast, a T-score of 75 is 2.5 standard deviation units above the mean, a stanine score of 9 is two standard deviation units above the mean, and a percentile rank of 90 is (in a normal distribution) about 1.5 standard deviation units above the mean.

Question 38

Scores on the GRE are reported in terms of a comparison between the examinee’s scores and the scores of others taking the test. Thus, the GRE is a _____________________ test.
Select one:

A.
criterion-referenced test

B.
content-referenced test

C.
norm-referenced test

D.
mastery test

Answer 38

C.
norm-referenced test

Norm-referenced interpretation involves comparing an examinee’s test scores with the scores from a normative sample. The sample provides a standard by which the test performance is interpreted.
A. Incorrect The scores on a criterion-referenced test are interpreted according to a predetermined standard rather than in terms of an examinee’s standing in a normative sample.
B. Incorrect The scores on a content-referenced test are also interpreted according to a predetermined standard.
C. CORRECT See above.
D. Incorrect A mastery test or a power test allows unlimited time for examinees to answer test questions. Mastery te

Question 39

A vocational counselor uses a test of career maturity to predict how much money a group of her most gifted students will be earning in ten years. The test would have more validity if:
Select one:

A.
she gave the test to all of her students rather than just the gifted ones

B.
it were a test of vocational interest rather than a test of vocational maturity

C.
all of the items on the test asked questions that were very similar in form and content

D.
it were given to a smaller group of students

Answer 39

A.
she gave the test to all of her students rather than just the gifted ones

The more restricted the range (variability) of test scores, the lower the correlation coefficient.
A. CORRECT Including all of the students in the test would have increased the range of scores and, thereby, increased the validity coefficient the counselor obtained.
B. Incorrect Interest inventories are not good predictors of occupational (or educational) success, since job success (performance) is more closely related to ability than interests–i.e., although interest might affect performance, it is no substitute for ability (e.g., Campbell and Hansen, 1981).
C. Incorrect Though all of the questions should pertain to the same (i.e., relevant) content domain, they should not all be very similar in form and content.
D. Incorrect This is not true.

Question 40

A counselor working from a ______________ approach would be least likely to use appraisal:
Select one:

A.
trait-and-factor

B.
behavioral

C.
person-centered

D.
psychodynamic
Feedback

Answer 40

C.
person-centered

Person-centered counselors do not believe in formal techniques of appraisal and diagnosis. This is because they believe that the client is the expert on his or her problems and that appraisal techniques shift the responsibility for identifying those problems onto the therapist.