HTN Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Diuretics specifics

A

Includes thiazides, loop diuretics and K+ sparing diuretics.

MOA is relatively unknown but decreases blood volume by eliminating sodium and water resorption.
- decreases CO

indapamide has direct vasodialation properties, but other diuretics dont

Moderate effective as a monotherapy (20/10) but increases efficacy of other antihypertensive effects.
- MUCH greater efficacy in African-American and elderly

PK = PO with onset of action in 2-4 was (DONT increase dose, since increasing doseage does not benefit, but increases chances of ADRs)

ADRs: hypokalemia and hyperuricemia

Populations to be wary of
-diabetic patients (increases glucose) -hyperlipidemia (elevate plasma LDL and TG) presentations

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2
Q
B-adrenergic (class 2 LOLs) 
- speciafically propranolol and a-methyldopa
A

MOA: blocks B1 and B2 receptors in heart, kidney, and vascular system

  • decreases HR/contractility
  • decreases blood pressure
  • decreases renin release
  • induces Angll formation

PK: PO/IV
- moderate efficacy in monotherapy and better in combination patients

ADRs:

  • hyperlipidemia
  • erectile dysfunction
  • hyperlipidemia
  • exacerbate CHF
  • GI and CNS nausea

Populations to be wary of:

  • smokers: lower efficacy of BBs
  • diabetics: masked signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia (can lead to increased coma and SCD rates)
  • asthma: exacerbate the effects of asthma
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3
Q

What two specific B-adrenergic antagonists are very good at lowering BP in heart failure

A

Labetalol and carvedilol
- block B1/B2/a1 receptors

PO is for long term management
IV is for hypertensive emergencies (labetalol only)

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4
Q

Centrally-acting sympatholytics

- specifically Clonidine

A

MOA 2 ways:

1) post-synaptic a2 agonist in CNS
- decrease HP/TPR
2) pre-synaptic a2 agonist in the periphery
- decreases NE release from post-ganglion is nerve terminals

Efficacy is 35/20 and monotherapy is recommended

  • is the drug of choice for treatment of chronic HTN in women that are pregnant
  • often combined with diuretics

ADRs:

  • prominent erectile dysfunction
  • dry mouth/ sedation
  • can produce Frank hemolytic anemia (determined via positive Coombs test to the drug, make sure to test while on drug)
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5
Q

Peripherally-acting sympatholytics that are not in use

- specifically reserpine and trimethaphan

A

MOA: destroys both central and peripheral catecholamines storage granules in nerve terminals

  • produces severe decreases in HR, MAP and CO
  • also severe decrease in renal function (renin secretion)

PK: PO w/ high t1/2( 33hrs)
- low efficacy (5/5) as monotherapy (jumps to 15/10 w/ a diuretic on board)

ADRs:

  • parkinson-like syndrome
  • GI disorders (diarrhea)
  • erectile dysfunction
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • NOT USED OFTEN due to dangerous permanent affects*
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6
Q

Peripherally acting sympatholytics that are still in use

- specifically “azosins”

A

MOA: selective antagonist for vascular smooth muscle a1 receptors
- induces vasodilation and decreases SVR

PK: PO
- efficacy is moderate as monotherapy (15/10), goes up (25/25) w/ diuretic

possesses added benefits by lowering LDL, Tryglycerides and total cholesterol

ADRs:

  • erectile dysfunction
  • reflex tachycardia!! (Monitor this)
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7
Q

Calcium channel antagonists

- specifically verapamil/diltiazem

A

MOA: direct vasodilator by inhibiting both Ca2+ entry into smooth muscle and Ca2+ release into Sarcoplasmic reticulum
- decreases SVR

PK: IV/PO

  • efficacy varies
    1) verapamil (30/20)
    2) diltiazem (20/15)

ADRs:
- induce cardio depression (which can be used to counteract reflex tachycardia, but be careful).

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8
Q

Nifedipine

A

Specific class 4 calcium channel antagonist that is a dihydropyridine CCB

MOA: same as verapamil/diltiazem except DOES NOT affect cardio tissue (only systemic vasculation)

PK: PO
- good efficacy (30/20) as monotherapy

ADRs:
- almost always produces a reflex tachycardia (use BB to counter)

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9
Q

Direct-acting vasodilators

- specifically hydralazine

A

MOA: direct vasodilation via guanylate Cyclase stimulation

  • causes increase in intracellular cGMP and prevent degradation
  • increases Ca2+ sequestration = smooth muscle relaxation

PK: PO primarily effects arterioles (afterload) w/out affecting preload
- efficacy is (25/25) as monotherapy

  • can develop tolerance (tachyphylaxis) this is due to prominent baroreflex*
  • must use BBs and diuretics in connection if occurs

ADRs:

  • SLE syndrome (if slow acetylator)
  • palpaitations and tachycardia
  • ONLY used in resistant fulminant hypertension and management hypertensive emergencies*
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10
Q

Direct-acting vasodilator minoxidil

A

MOA: direct arteriolar vasodilation via stimulation of vascular smooth muscle K+ channel opening/ agonists
- results in membrane hyperpoalrization (prolonged phase 3)

PK: topical (for alopecia) and oral (for HTN specifically)

  • low efficacy by itself (5/5) with SLE-like ADRs
  • must use BBs and diuretics in conjunction, never use monotherapy

Only used for severe, refractory hypertension due to increased chance of developing tachyphylaxis

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11
Q

Sodium nitroprusside

A

Very potential vasodilator that is direct acting

  • decreases both afterload (arterial dilation) and preload (venodilation) which results in cardiac muscle relaxation
  • sequesters Ca+
  • increases cGMP and prevents degradation via Nitro oxide gas paraenterally infused agent.

ADRs: (all only if extended continuous use and because of these, this drug is only used in HTN emergencies)

  • methemoglobinemia
  • cyanide poisoning
  • cellular hypoxia

PK: parenteral use only and only in HTN emergencies

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12
Q
ACE inhibtors (ACEIs) 
- specifically captopril, enalapril, linsinopril “Prils”
A

MOA: blockers angiotensin converting enzyme

  • prevents angiotensin 1 -> angiotensin 2 conversions.
  • also raises bradykinin levels and prevents degradation
  • is sustained while on ACEI and produces vasodilation

PK: PO (w/out food)

  • maximal effects take 4-8 weeks to develop (slow acting)
  • efficacy is good (25/20)

ADRs:

  • dry, persistent coughs (due to build up of bradykinin, must take off if asked to by patient)
  • proteinuria
  • angioedema

Populations to be careful of:

  • African American: less efficacy due to genetics. (must use BBs w/ and cant be monotherapy)
  • pregnant patients (CONTRAINDICATED)
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13
Q

Angiotensin receptor blockers

“Sartans”

A

MOA: specific antagonists of angiotensin 2 by binding to AT1 receptors on vascular smooth muscle in the adrenal cortex, brain, heart
- prevents angiotensin 1 -> angiotensin 2 without directly blocking the ACE anzyme

PK: PO administration (w/out food)
- efficacy is (25/20) and does not have decreased effects w/ African Americans

ADRs:

  • N/A
  • PREGNANCY IS CONTRAINDICATED
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14
Q

Why are ACEIs and angiotensin receptor blockers (AT1 blockers) contraindicated in pregnant patients

A

Renin-angiotensin system is very important in fetal development
- are teratogenic after 1st trimester and can produce visible malformations in the child.

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15
Q

What is angina?

A

Severe pressure or constricting pain in chest which may/may not radiate to the extremities and neck
- usually causes by the release of bradykinin and adenosine onto nociceptive afferents

can be counteracted by agents or procedures that improve myocardial perfusion or decrease its metabolic demands
- done via two ways: improve oxygen delivery or decrease work-load to the myocardium

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16
Q

Ischemic in the heart

A

Occurs when the work-load on the myocardium is greater than its oxygen supply
- causes angina pain due to increases bradykinin and adenosine

17
Q

The Steal Phenomenon

A

The radical objection to vasodilator therapy in the presence of coronary ischemia
- states that vasodilators cant improve anything since the coronary vessels are already maximally dilated in chronic ischemic states (reactive Hyperemia)

18
Q

Clinical utility of vasodilators

A

CHF

HTN

Peripheral vascular disease

Cerebrovascular/coronary insufficiency

Surgical management of BP

19
Q

Vasodilator broad mechanisms

A

Block endogenous vasoconstrictors

Direct relaxation of vascular smooth muscle

  • can be endothelium- dependent (such as acetylcholine and Bradykinin)
  • can be non-endothelium dependent vasodilators such as NO-donators which provide their own endothelium- derived relaxing factor (EDRF)
20
Q

Sodium nitroprusside specifics

A

MOA: EDRF- independent molecule that breaks down to Nitric oxide, cyanide and methemoglobin subparticles.

  • the nitric oxide provides the rapid direct vasodilation effects by mass increasing intracellular production of cGMP.
  • this causes mass sequestration in calcium causes venous and arterioles vasodilation
21
Q

Nitroglycerin specifics

A

MOA: organic nitrate donor (EDRF- donor) which produces Nitric oxide.

  • stimulates increase cGMP which sequesters calcium and prevents smooth muscle constriction (causes vasodilation)
  • lowers in both afterload and preload and reduces myocardial work-load

1st line is for treating angina and is very efficient also treats HTN

PK: multiple routes (however sublingual is the fastest onset of action)

  • can also be oral, ointment, patches, etc.
  • sublingual produces an immediate psychological relief (placebo effect) in patients who frequently use this drug.

ADRs:

  • headache due to cerebral vasodilation (can grow tolerance)
  • methemoglobinemia
  • grows tolerance and baroreflex tachycardia (however it does not increase HTN due to systemic vasodilation)
  • flushing of soft tissues
  • sublingual burning sensation (does not go away, this is a good thing to measure if the drug is working and is not expired)
22
Q

Isosorbide dinitrate (ISDN)

A

MOA: similar to nitroglycerin

used in both treatment and prophylaxis of angina

PK: PO and sublingual dosing only
(Sublingual is the best route w/ rapid route)

ADRs: similar to nitroglycerin

23
Q

Dipyridamole

A

Non-nitrate coranary vasodilator
- not very effective and is really not much better than a placebo at treating angina and vasospastic angina

MOA: stimulates an increase in production coronary vessel adenosine.

  • adenosine binds to A2 receptors on AV node and coronary vessels which stimulates vasodilation in coronary vessels
  • also inhibits platelet adhesion*
24
Q

Endothelium derived relaxing factor (EDRF) vs endothelin definitions

A

EDRF (NO)

  • soluble gas produced by vascular endothelial cells
  • produces potent cGMP-mediated vasodilation and is a CNS neurotransmitter
  • underproduction promotes angina, vasospasm and HTN

Endothelin

  • peptide produced by vascular endothelial cells
  • produces a potent receptor mediated vasoconstriction and is a CNS neurotransmitter
  • over production promotes angina, vasospasm and HTN