HR Flashcards
What are the federal retention laws for applicant documents such as resumes and employment applications?
One year from filling the position, unless you suspect applicant is over 40 years of age, then it is recommended to keep records 2 years.
List the four elements necessary to hold working interviews.
- Must be on payroll.
- Must be eligible to work in U.S.
- Must be paid at least minimum wage.
- Must be covered under workers compensation
Veterinary Staff Ratio, Veterinary Production, Team Member Production, and Staff Payroll Percentages are 4 of the Key Factors involved in considering when to hire, what is the 5th Key Factor?
Hospital work flow
_________ refers to the degree to which the test actually measures what it claims to measure.
Validity
A pre-adverse action letter should be used when?
When considering not hiring a candidate due to details revealed in a pre-employment background check.
When it comes to enhancing employee productivity, which of the below answers is NOT one of the suggestions.
a. Engage and Empower.
b. Personal Focus.
c. Accountability and Acceptance
d. Performance Standards
c. Accountability and Acceptance
When it comes to Individual Development Plans; what are the three main details that should be addressed?
Development, Training, Career Management.
On-board with EASE stands for Encouragement, Align, Solve, and ________.
End
A doctor is using 2 exam rooms simultaneously for appointments, what type of scheduling is this considered?
High Density
Regarding the practice client schedule; what is the definition of an emergency?
Where no doctor is immediately available and one must be pulled from another client
Your practice has decided that they want clients to bond with the entire practice, what are the risks associated with that Bonding Philosophy (multiple Choice)?
a. The clients may not like all the doctors
b. Lack of continuity of patient care.
c. Doctors find it an unrewarding way to practice.
a. The clients may not like all the doctors
b. Lack of continuity of patient care.
When empowering a team member, it is important to define the task/tasks with clarity. Which part of the SMART System will do that?
Specific
When it comes to management of daily work assignments ______________ and ___________ are the keys to a successful veterinary practice.
Delegation and Empowerment
The Benefits of Cross-Training include (Multiple choice);
a. Employee knowledge of the practice as a whole, and the roles of others in the practice, grows.
b. When team members are ill or absent, client service and wait times do not have to decline.
c. Places another level of employee accountability into the system, helping to reduce the occurrence of fraud and theft.
All of the Above
FIT is how a candidate will complement the culture, and POTENTIAL is the measure of growth the new hire would be expected to experience. Define IMPACT.
Impact – is the measure of results the candidate has achieved in the past and is likely to achieve in the future.
As it relates to interviewing candidates, what are the benefits of the use of a rating scale?
A Rating Scale can be helpful when hiring because it is challenging to compare candidates equally and consistently, especially if there are multiple members of the management team interviewing candidates for the same position.
What are Phase Training lists and what are four benefits of using them?
Outlines the progressive steps in the training for a specific position within the practice.
- Helps insure team members are trained properly
- Aids in titrating information/instruction to the employee to avoid overloading them early in the process.
- Provides a resource for training preparation for the trainer.
- Provides reference and review material for the new employee and phase Training can accommodate a new employee that already has some experience.
Information revealed in the background checks can be helpful with hiring decisions and should be conducted on all candidates who make it to the final hiring pool to choose from. True or false?
False – Background checks should only be made after a contingent employment offer has been made.
What is a reasonable budget to spend on training annually?
1-2% of annual revenue of the practice.
New employees must have immediate knowledge of what 5 safety details?
- Location of the first aid kit/s, eye wash stations and exits.
- Location of all personal protective equipment, and instructions on proper use prior to first use.
- Location of all mandatory posters.
- Location of the hospital Safety Manual.
- Copies of all applicable OSHA standards
List the 3 most common reasons a staff member leaves a practice
- Lack of positive feedback.
- Lack of training opportunities.
- Failure of management to include them in the larger strategic vision of the practice
Name 4 elements of enhancing employee productivity
- Shared Purpose
- Tools to do the job.
- Standard operating procedures.
- Performance Standards.
- Engage and Empower
- Recognize and Reward.
- Physical fitness.
- Personal focus.
- Team focus.
The ____________ and ______________ of the practice help define the core competencies that should be expected of employees.
Mission and Values
Why are core competencies important in staff development?
Because they can be tiered to beginner, intermediate and expert and because they can be considered in terms of reward based compensation
Name at least 4 of the 10 elements that should be considered in virtual team training
1 – Put your training on a diet. 2 – Gain attention from the start 3 – Establish Relevance 4 – Present information with a twist 5 – Ask compelling questions 6 – Conduct realistic demonstrations 7 – Provoke discussion 8 – Employ interactive activities 9 – End with a bang 10 – Prepare, prepare, prepare
In the 70/20/10 Learning and Development Model; define the elements involved.
- 70% of learning within an organization should come from on the job training.
- 20% from coaching and mentoring.
- 10% from actual courses, lectures, and formal training.
An effective appointment system should have what two goals?
- To eliminate client wait time.
- To maximize the efficiency of the doctors, the support staff and the facility by minimizing downtime between clients or patient procedures.
In the example of Dense Scheduling in Practice Made Perfect; list the breakdown of the three 5 minute sections for a 15 minute annual wellness appointment (goal of the 1st five minutes, 2nd five minutes, etc.)
- The first five minutes is the technician check in period for patient history and vitals.
- The doctor is present for the next five minutes to perform the physical exam, answer questions, gather information and discuss preventative care.
- In the remaining five minutes the technician and/or doctor may collect lab samples, fill prescriptions or vaccinate.
What are three ways to try to avoid appointment problems with clients
- Appointment cards should always be given to clients who make the appointment while in the clinic.
- Proper hospital protocols that prepare the team for unexpected appointment challenges.
- Advanced reminders within 24 hours of the appointment is considered best practice.
Name five of the nine details to consider regarding appointment scheduling criteria for making appointment schedules.
- The number of doctors available during any particular period.
- The relative efficiency of the doctors.
- The time allotted to each appointment.
- The number of patients presented by each client.
- Types of cases seen.
- The number of exam or consult rooms.
- The hours of hospital operation, including the hours for scheduled and nonscheduled activities.
- Favored client times for veterinary care.
- Veterinary technician appointments.
An unusual number of established clients arriving early or late to the appointment may be a sign of what?
Ongoing appointment scheduling and time management problems at your hospital.
When it comes to staff scheduling __________ is one of the most desired employee benefits; therefore it is an important component in staff morale, productivity and retention.
Flexibility.
Name and define the five potential employee scheduling options
- Rotating Schedule: the staff, their duties and shifts rotate.
- Hybrid Schedule: a mix of fixed and variable days. Example: fixed weekdays with rotating weekends.
- Skill Based Scheduling: based on the known skill set of the employee and the needs of the practice. The greater the skill set the employee develops, the more flexible their scheduling options.
- Split Scheduling: when an employee works for more than one business unit within a single workday. Example: a technician works in the surgical practice from 9:00 am to 2:00pm and then moves into the outpatient practice from 3:00pm to 8:00pm.
- Per Diem: scheduled one day at a time as needed by the practice. This is most common among relief veterinarians.
Ultimately the _____________ is responsible for the efficiency, function and flow of the practice.
Manager
When it comes to managing daily work assignments; what does SMART stand for and what are the definitions?
a. Specific – define the task. Why is it important and what are the expected outcomes.
b. Measurable – how is the task going to be measured in terms of progress or completion?
c. Agreed - both parties agree on the importance of the task and how the results will be achieved. What resources will be needed to achieve these results?
d. Realistic - the task being delegated and the goals being sought are realistic with the time constraints that are in place.
e. Time Bound – how and when will the results be expected? Create check-in points on the calendar. A check-in point prevents micro-management and keeps lines of communication open.
True or False –Staff meetings are a good way to create team bonding and introduce new policies or products, but they rarely show a financial return on investment.
False – Well done staff meetings raise practice benchmarks, thereby providing for total quality management, increased profits and improved compliance with staff recommendations and client acceptance.
What are some ways to engage team members at a staff meeting? (Multiple choice)?
a. Publicly praise work well done and celebrate successes
b. Do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions
c. Share important information, changes and progress towards goals so that people want to be at the meeting and not miss out on the announcements
d. Learning games or ice breaker exercises
All of the Above
Training meetings should be 20 – 40 minutes long for attendees to remain engaged.
a. True
b. False
False
Employee Performance Reviews should include (multiple choice);
a. Conversations about wage and compensation structure.
b. Clarity about goals and direction
c. Addressing team member accomplishments
d. Address concerns over policy and procedures
b. Clarity about goals and direction
c. Addressing team member accomplishments
d. Address concerns over policy and procedures
One potential employee performance review pitfall is _____________.
a. Managements pre-conceived ideas or expectations.
b. Measuring the trivial.
c. Not giving the employee all the time they need to discuss their concerns.
b. Measuring the trivial.
Which element below is NOT included in the A B C D E F Formula?
a. Accountability
b. Decision Confirmed
c. Consequences
a. Accountability
Avoidance of the other person(s), personal attacks, hurtful gossip, barbed humor and lack of cooperation are all potential symptoms of what dynamic within your practice?
a. Vague guidelines/policies regarding conflict resolution.
b. Symptoms of conflict within the practice.
c. Lack of accountability and leadership.
b. Symptoms of conflict within the practice
What are the top 3 that cause conflict in the workplace environment?
a. Gossip, lack of training, lack of communication.
b. Lack of diversity, lack of training, lack of accountability.
c. Lack of communication, lack of training, lack of accountability.
a. Gossip, lack of training, lack of communication.
After meeting with two team members who are experiencing conflict and you have told them that you have confidence in them to find a solution, how much time do you give the before you meet again to hear their solution ?
a. One week.
b. One or two days.
c. By the end of the day.
b. One or two days.
In what type of employment relationship can an employee only be disciplined or terminated for a sufficient reason (some examples are misconduct, negligence or theft)?
a. Justified action.
b. Just grounds.
c. Just cause.
c. Just cause.
Do not misrepresent the qualifications or character of a former employee if you have knowledge of that employee’s propensity for violence, or illegal behavior in order to avoid liability claims of _______________.
a. Negligent referral.
b. Derelict referral.
c. Adverse referral.
a. Negligent referral.
An employment contract that details a specific length of employment is an exception to At Will employment. True or False?
True
What are the responsibilities in the role of the facilitator in a staff meeting?
- Starting and ending the meeting on time.
- Controlling topics.
- Preventing negativity from overcoming the team.
- Prioritizing topics.
- Tactfully preventing a team member from dominating the meeting.
All of the Above
It is vital that staff meetings stay on track, and __________________ can help facilitate this.
Agendas
List five of the seven ways to engage employees during a staff meeting.
- Using visual aids
- Tasteful appropriate humor
- Publicly praise work well done and celebrate successes
- Do not allow meetings to turn into gripe sessions
- Share important information, changes and progress towards goals so that people want to be at the meeting and not miss out on the announcements
- Request/require team members to present topics
- Learning games or ice breaker exercises
What details should be included in meeting minutes?
- Record decisions and assignments.
- Designate responsible parties.
- Record the deadline agreed upon during the meeting.
- Who was present
- What topics, if any, will be revisited at the next meeting?
What is the best way to end a staff meeting?
On a positive note.
List four of the six elements that should be included in an employee performance review.
- Conversation about mission, vision, and values of the practice
- Clarity about goals and direction
- Addressing team member accomplishments
- Address concerns over policy and procedures
- Address potential conflict with team members or management
- Address any lapses in standards or judgement (many times these conversations should happen in the moment and not wait for a performance review)
Employee performance reviews should be developed from the ________ _________.
Job Description
What renders an employee performance review useless?
Lack of clear performance expectations in the job description because without them team members cannot be held accountable.
What are the three most common types of employee performance reviews?
- 360 Peer Review
- Self-Review
- Job Satisfaction Survey
What are the four disciplines necessary for an effective employee review?
- Hold all employees accountable for their local performance outcomes.
- Teach all employees to identify, deploy and develop their strengths.
- Align all performance appraisals and review systems around identifying, deploying and developing employee strengths.
- Design and build each role to create world class performers in the role.
The most successful employee performance review programs typically combine what four elements?
- Regular informal feedback from supervisors.
- Performance goals that are set by the employee and the supervisor.
- Action plans to address performance or disciplinary problems.
- Formal reviews that document the “Big Picture”.
List five of the nine potential pitfalls regarding employee reviews.
- Spending more time on performance review than performance planning. More time should be spent preventing performance problems
- Be careful comparing employees.
- Forgetting the review is about performance and not blame.
- Stopping reviews when pay is no longer tied to the review.
- Believing the manager is in a position to accurately assess team members.
- Cancelling or postponing reviews.
- Measuring the trivial.
- Surprising a team member during the review.
- Thinking all employees and all jobs should be assessed the same way.
A practice without conflicts could indicate what type of practice dynamic, and what are potential negative side effects of those dynamics?
a. Staff members may be afraid to speak up. The practice culture is one where team members are trained to do what they are told. The team all thinks so much alike that there is little creative tension to promote innovation or change.
b. This type of environment can sap the team’s enthusiasm and initiative. It can also encourage passive resistance because open conflict and difference of opinions isn’t tolerated.
What are the potential risks of delaying a discussion once an issue is known?
a. May result in additional conflict.
b. May be interpreted that management is not interested in the problem.
What is the four step method for successful intervention regarding conflict management?
1 - Confront The Behavior – call the 2 employees into your office (if 2 departments, call in the supervisors), explain that their behavior isn’t acceptable and that you expect them to turn it around.
2 - Talk It Out – explain that they are professionals and you expect them to listen to one another and work out a solution. Parties take turns talking and listening without interrupting, which should begin to discover solutions.
3 - Hold Team Members Accountable For Solutions – once they have heard each other out, tell them you have confidence in them to find a solution, and give them 1 or 2 days and meet again to hear their solution.
4 - Follow-up and Feedback – hold short, weekly check-ins where you ask each team member in front of the other how things are going. Gradually phase out the meetings as the conflict resolves, and compliment them when you see evidence of cooperation.
Define At-Will Employment
a. Form of employment in which the employee is serving the employer at the will of both parties. This allows the employer to terminate its employees with or without cause.
Define the ideal witness to a termination.
The same gender, and in a supervisory position, not a direct peer of the employee being terminated.
What is the suggested protocol for an employee who is performing poorly due to a short term personal life stressor?
They should be advised that it is unsatisfactory, and that if not for these problems, they would be terminated, but will be given the opportunity to improve once the short term problems are resolved. Re-evaluate at that time
Name 4 express exceptions to At-Will employment.
a. Collective bargaining agreements.
b. Specific contracts that indicate a specific length of employment.
c. Dismissals based on race, sex, color, national origin, or religion, prohibited by Title VII of The Civil Rights Act.
d. Dismissal because of pregnancy, prohibited by the Pregnancy Discrimination Act.
e. Dismissal based on age if over 40, prohibited by the Age Discrimination in Employment Act.
f. Dismissals because an employee refuses to work in a workplace they consider unsafe, or because they have exercised their rights under the Occupational Safety and Health Act.
g. Dismissal due to bankruptcy, prohibited by the Bankruptcy Reform Act.
h. Dismissal because of service on a federal jury, prohibited by federal law.
Which plans are a blend of Fee For Service and HMO medical plans. They do not require a visit to a primary care provider prior to visiting a specialist, although they do have a network of preferred providers and it is more costly to go outside that network.
a. Point of service plan.
b. Managed care plan.
c. Preferred provider organization plan.
c. Preferred provider organization plan.
Which addition to medical insurance is owned by the employer;
a. Health Savings Account or
b. Flexible Spending Account.
b. Flexible Spending Account.
The Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act requires employers with ____ or more employees to provide group medical insurance or receive a penalty.
a. 20 full time employees.
b. 50 full time employees
c. 50 total (part time/full time) employees.
b. 50 full time employees
Why are employee medical documents stored separately from their main personnel file?
a. While it is sometimes appropriate or necessary for a direct supervisor to see some personnel records, there is rarely a reason for them to see medical records.
b. The ADA and FMLA require that medical records be stored separately.
c. Both A & B
d. Neither A or B
c. Both A & B
Employee Wage Garnishment Orders and Credit Reports are to be filed;
a. With the payroll records.
b. With the main employment records.
c. Either location is acceptable.
d. Neither location is acceptable.
d. Neither location is acceptable.
Which entity or entities require employers to keep detailed payroll and benefits data? Access should be limited and ideally stored separately (Multiple Choice).
a. The Internal Revenue Code
b. Fair Labor Standards Act
c. Equal Employment Opportunity Commission.
d. All the above.
a. The Internal Revenue Code
b. Fair Labor Standards Act
At the core of any safety plan or manual is the _____________ law.
a. OSHA Act
b. Workplace Safety and Health
c. Right to Know
c. Right to Know
A section on Chemotherapy should be included in every veterinary Health Safety Manual regardless of whether that practice performs chemotherapy. True or False?
a. True.
6) One way to begin to create an Operations and Procedure Manual is to refer to the _________ of the practice.
a. Job descriptions.
b. Tasks check lists.
c. Health safety manual.
a. Job descriptions.
Which plan enables employees to make their medical insurance premium payment before taxes are deducted from their paycheck, and can also mean substantial pretax savings for employers?
Section 125 Plans.
Regarding evaluating medical insurance plans; name at least four ingredients that should be included when creating a checklist to aid evaluation.
- Basic type of plan (PPO, HMO, POS).
- Details of coverage.
- Size of the providers and related services and facilities within the network.
- Cost to employer, employees, dependents, and deductibles and co-pays.
- Employee eligibility.
- Simplicity of administration.
What common veterinary employee benefit does the IRS require be reported as taxable, and what percent is the cut off for not reporting it?
The employee pet health discount policy that discounts services at greater than 20%. All discounts after 20% need to be reported as taxable.
Name at least five documents that should be in a personnel file.
- Employment application, resume, interview notes, background checks.
- Job description.
- Offer of employment letter.
- Performance evaluations, education, and training.
- Disciplinary documents.
- Emergency contact information.
- Tax withholding forms (W-2)
- Copy of degrees, diplomas, certifications.
- Contracts, agreements, non-compete agreements.
- Employee action forms such as change of wage, position, and department.
- Leave of absence and attendance records (except FMLA).
What one personnel file document should be stored away in a separate file of other similar documents?
I-9
Name at least four documents that might be found in an employee medical personnel file.
- Health and life insurance forms.
- Physician notes, return to work notice, limited duties notice or accommodations.
- Insurance or workers compensation claims.
- Physical exam results.
- Family And Medical Leave Act documentation.
What element of a job description can help you avoid hiring someone who is unable to perform essential duties of the position?
Listing what is considered an impediment to satisfactory performance such as being afraid of aggressive pets.
What specifics should be included in the accountability section of a job description?
a. Where does this position reside in the hierarchy of the practice?
b. Who do they report to?
c. Who evaluates their performance?
d. How much authority does this position have?
Job descriptions are required by federal law – True or False?
a. False
How often should job descriptions be evaluated for accuracy, and what changes to the practice might indicate an update is necessary?
Job descriptions should be evaluated for accuracy annually (more often in the case of staff reduction or growth)
What three purposes do hospital manuals serve?
- A reference tool for standards of care and practice guidelines.
- Training and instructional tool.
- They define a standard to which employees can be held accountable to reach.
Which of the ten subjects below is not considered a common element in an Employee Manual?
- Practice Mission, Vision and Values.
- Laws of importance (ADA, EEOC, FMLA, sexual harassment policy, pregnancy safety and confidentiality.
- Define full-time Vs Part-time employees.
- An Organizational Chart showing the proper hierarchy of the practice.
- Employment policies - too numerous to list in entirety, but examples include;
- Compensation; over-time, personnel records, payroll schedule.
- Benefits offered.
- Non-compete agreement.
- Jury Duty.
- Training procedures.
- An Organizational Chart showing the proper hierarchy of the practice.
Explain the difference between the Hospital Operations and Procedure Manual and the Employee Policies, Procedures, and Guidelines Manual.
Hospital Operations and Procedure Manual is a comprehensive text that details every aspect of specifically how you want work to be done. An Employee Policies, Procedures, and Guidelines Manual details clarity and purpose to the practice mission and values, and also details expectations, compensation & benefits, legal disclaimers and other details surrounding employee specific policy and procedures.
Where is it recommended to keep the Hospital Safety Manual?
A central location.
Emotional intelligence is often described by five levels of competence in which to focus personal improvement.
What are those five levels?
- Self-Awareness
- Self-Control
- Self-Motivation
- Empathy
- Effective Management of relationships
What are the 12 Cs for team building?
- Clear Expectations
- Context
- Commitment
- Competence
- Charter
- Control
- Collaboration
- Communication
- Creative Innovation
- Consequences
- Coordination
- Cultural Change
David Pink defines motivation as “the desire to do things because they matter”. However, three elements must exist for intrinsic motivation to occur. What are they?
- Autonomy
- Mastery
- Purpose
When these three factors occur in tandem, intrinsic motivation occurs. Intrinsic motivation fosters increased performance, job satisfaction, and employee engagement
Whether an individual is classified as an employee or an independent contractor is an important factor in determining the responsibilities of your practice under a variety of acts and regulations, and one of those is the Fair Labor and Standards Act. One test the FLSA may use in determining an employee from an independent contractor is called the Economic-Realities Test. The Economic Realities Test turns on whether the individual is economically dependent on the business for which it renders service.
What six factors are generally considered by the courts in applying the Economic-Realities Test under the FLSA?
Six factors are generally considered by the courts in applying the economic-realities test under the FLSA:
- The degree of control exercised by the practice over the individual’s work performance (control over work hours, appointments and assignments, priority of work, hourly payment arrangement).
- The extent of the relative investments by the practice and the individual in equipment and supplies used (for example, drugs and medical supplies).
- The individual’s opportunity for profit and loss through managerial skill (if the practice provides the opportunities and bears the risk of profit and loss, it is more likely that the individual is an employee).
- The skill and initiative required by the work. Lower skill requirements weight toward employee status, but this does not necessarily mean that more skilled individuals, such as veterinarians, will qualify as independent contractors.
- The permanence of the relationship. Longer work relationships imply employee status, especially when the nature of the work assignments does not vary much.
- The extent to which the worker’s services are an integral part of the practice.
Define the CRAFT formula for compliance.
C = R + A + FT C=Compliance standards of Care R=Recommendation A=Acceptance FT= Follow-through
In regards to identifying your practices “trade area”, there are two common calculations: Radius Rings, and Drive Times. Which calculation is considered the best?
Drive Times
The HR Scorecard helps to evaluate the state of HR in your practice. It does so by breaking HR down into five categories and then issuing a series of questions in each category that aim to help you focus on how effective your practice is in that category. What are the five HR categories in the HR Scorecard?
Basic Workplace Policies Staffing Compensation and Benefits Training, Developing, and Retaining Employees Regulatory Issues
In regards to changing organizational culture; there are five key steps in making a culture change within a practice. What are those five steps, and of those five steps, which step states (among other things) that “The bottom line is that if a leader wants to create a different culture within the hospital, the leader has to go first”?
DEFINE THE CULTURE
ALIGN BEHAVIORS WITH THE DESIRED CULTURE
COMMIT TO THE CHANGE
***SUPPORT THE SHIFT
Component of Competency to do a Certain kind of work at a Certain level which can also be considered a “talent”
Aptitude
The Process of looking up and compiling criminal records, commercial records, and financial records of an individual or organization.
Background Screening.
Generally indirect and non-cash compensation made to an employee.
Benefits.
A Working partnership between managers and employees to provide structure, guidance and support to employees
Coaching
An Estimate of Salary or wage expenditures for a set period of time.
Compensation budget.
Limited to persons authorized to use information, documents, etc.
Confidentiality.
A process by which business decisions are analyzed. The Benefits of a given situation or business-related action are summed and then the costs associated with taking that action are subtracted.
Cost Benefit Analysis
The condition of having or being composed of differing elements.
Diversity.
A kind of intelligence or skill that involves the ability to perceive assess and positively influence one own and other people’s emotions.
Emotional Intelligence
