HPB Flashcards
1
Q
What are the types of Choledochal cysts?
A
5 types
1) Dilatation of CBD (80-90%)
2) Cystic diverticulum of CBD
3) Arising from duodenal CBD at ampulla
4) Cystic dilatations of both intra- and extra-hepatic biliary tree
4a) L/R HD and CBD (15%) L»R
4b) CHD and CBD
5) Cystic dilatation of intrahepatic biliary tree only
Malignancy risk 1/4 8% –> 2% with treatment
2/3/5 5% –> c.0% with treatment
2
Q
What is the eponymous name for a type 5 Choledochal cyst?
A
Caroli’s disease
3
Q
What type Choledochal cyst is found with Caroli’s disease?
A
Type 5
4
Q
How are choledochal cysts managed?
A
Usually with complete duct excision/reconstruction
Risk of pancreatitis, cholangitis, stricture, malignancy (6-30%, usually type 1/4a)
Infants also need early excision due to risk of liver fibrosis (<1month)
Risk of biliary malignancy persists after excision
Type 4 may need hepatectomy or liver transplant, others can usually be managed with Roux-en-y
5
Q
What are some characteristics associated with Choledochal cysts?
A
F:M = 4:1
Increased risk with anomalous pancreaticobiliary duct union (APBDU) or long common channel >10mm due to risk of enzyme reflux
80% present in childhood
6
Q
What is Mirrizzi Syndrome?
A
Compression of common hepatic duct by gallstone/gallbladder
Csendes classfication
1) Extrinsic compression
2)Involvement of <1/3 CBD circumference
3) Involvement of 1/3-2/3 CBD circumference
4) Complete destruction of CBD wall
5) Any + fistula
7
Q
Is HCC more common in Men or Women?
A
Men.
Less risk with PBC
Screen with USS and AFP
8
Q
In which patients with CRLM should ablative therapies be offered?
A
Only in those not suitable for liver resection.
-Selective internal radiation therapy (SIRT) is not recommended at present outside of research programmes
9
Q
What adjunctive treaments should be given to patients undergoing surgery for CRLM?
A
Combination chemotherapy –> higher DFS and prob OS
10
Q
What complications can occur after RFA for CRLM?
A
Bleeding, biliary tree injury, sepsis in 9%
11
Q
What factors are most prognostic of severe pancreatitis at presentation?
A
APACHE II>8
Obesity
12
Q
What factors are most prognostic of severe pancreatitis at 48hrs?
A
Glasgow score ≥3
CRP >150
Persistent organ failure
13
Q
What proportion of cases of pancreatitis are classified as idiopathic?
A
<20%
14
Q
What proportion of cases of pancreatitis are related to gallstones and alcohol?
A
35% and 25% respectively
15
Q
What is the primary means of improving pain control in patients with chronic pancreatitis?
A
Alcohol abstinence
16
Q
What is the effect of beta blockade on bleeding prophylaxis for varices?
A
Reduction from 25-15% over 24 months, with no difference in overall mortality.
Following bleeding reduction of 7% mortality
17
Q
What are the classification systems for CBD Injury?
A
Strasberg (A:E)
Bismuth (1:5)
18
Q
What is the Strasberg classification for BDI?
A
A - cystic duct/liver bed leak
B - partial ligation of biliary tree (mostly aberrant right hepatic)
C - partial transection of biliary tree not communicating with CBD
D - lateral injury of biliary system without loss of continuity
E - Ligation/division of biliary tree
19
Q
How does the Bismuth classification integrate with the Strasberg system?
A
Subdivides Strasberg E
E1 - CHD >2cm
E2 - CHD<2cm
E3 - hilum at confliuence
E4 - above hilum
E5 - Hilar injury + Strasberg C
20
Q
What is the incidence of cancer in a porcelain gallbladder?
A
6-10%
21
Q
In which patients with gallbladder polyps should Lap Chole be performed?
A
≥10mm or symptomatic
22
Q
How should <1cm GB polyps be followed up?
A
If ‘high risk’ (Age >50, PSC, Indian, Sessile)
<6mm - US at 6months then annually
6-9mm - Cholecystectomy
Otherwise
<6mm US at 1,3,5 years
6-9mm - US 6 months then annually
If increases by 2mm or more –> cholecystectomy
EAES guidelines
23
Q
What is the survival for patients undergoing potentially curative resection for cholangiocarcinoma?
A
25-40% at 5 years.
Chemoradio resistant
24
Q
What are some characteristic findings of PSC?
A
Reveresed portal venous flow and early portal hypertension
25
After sphincterotomy and balloon trawl, how frequent is recurrent cholecystitis (elderly)?
80% no further episodes
26
What is the second most common manifestation of MEN-1
Gastrinoma (after Parathyroid)
27
What is Budd-Chiari syndrome?
Occlusion of hepatic veins, presenting with pain, hepatomegaly and ascites
May be associated with OCP use or thrombophilic tendencies
Treat with TIPPS
28
Who should receive screening for HCC?
Cirrhotic patients (any cause) Should have 6 monthly USS +/- AFP (unless Hep B then def AFP)
29
Which patients with pancreatic cysts should be referred for resection?
1) Obstructive jaundice with cystic lesions in head
2) Enhancing solid component in cyst
3) Main pancreatic duct ≥10mm
Consider FNAC if more information needed + CEA assay
30
Which patients should have surveillance for pancreatic cancer?
- Hereditary pancreatitis and a PRSS1 mutation
- BRCA1/2, PALB2/CDKN2a mutations with 1+ FDR
- Peutz Jaegers syndrome
-Consider with 2 FDR or Lynch syndrome
Screen with MRI/MRCP/EUS
In hereditary pancreatitis offer pancreatic CT
31
What nutritional support is required for patients with pancreatic cancer?
Pancreatin (creon)
32
When should patients receive neoadjuvant therapy for pancreatic cancer?
For borderline resectable, as part of a trial.
However the recent PREOPANC trial suggests that NACRT is beneficial regardless
33
What adjuvant treatment is recommended for pancreatic cancer?
Gemcitabine and capecitabine
34
What vessels influence resectability of a pancreatic adenocarcinoma?
Arteries - CHA, SMA, CA
Veins - SMV, PV
35
What defines a borderline resectable pancreatic tumour?
Arterial
1)Head
- Contact with CHA
- Contact with SMA≤180d
2)Body
Contact with CA≤180 or ≥180 without aorta or GDA
Venous
- Contact with SMV/PV >180d SMV/PV but reconstructable
- Contact with IVC
36
What defines a locally advanced/irresectable pancreatic tumour?
Arterial
1) Head - SMA/CA >180
2) Body - SMA/CA >180 or aortic involvement
Venous
Unreconstructable SMV/PV
37
In which pancreatic cystic neoplasm is Ca19-9 useful?
IPMN where there is suspicion of malignant transformation
38
What tests should be sent at EUS FNA for PCN?
CEA + Cytology/KRAS/GNAS and Lipase levels
Cannot differentiate between MCN/IPMN
39
What factors make IPMN at high risk of progression to malignancy?
-Jaundice
-Enhancing mural nodule ≥5mm
-MPD ≥10mm
High risk
MPD5-9.9, Cyst ≥40mm or enlarging ≥5mm per year increased risk
40
How should patients with IPMN be followed up?
6 monthly for 1 year then annually
41
What threshold of main duct dilatation should be take as an indication for surgery?
Absolute indication at >10mm, probably >5mm in either MD-IPMN or MT-IPMN if fit or other risk factor
Malignancy rate of 30-90%
42
Which size of mucinous cystic neoplasm should undergo surgical resection?
≥40mm or symptomatic or risk factors (mural nodule) or jaundice
43
What is the rate of malignancy transformation of serous cystic neoplasm?
0% this is benign - follow up for 1 year only and discharge
44
What factors increase the risk of a pancreatic fistula following Whipples?
Soft remnant (22%)
Age >70
Jaundice for long period (not severity)
CAD or EBL>1000ml
Preoperative CRT decreases the risk!
There may be a lower rate with pancreaticogastrostomy, but this is controversial. Stents and octreotide conflicting data
45
What is the risk of a pancreatic fistula after Whipple?
15% (lower for distal panc)
46
What is the most common cause of Haemobilia?
Trauma
Triad of pain, UGI bleed and jaundice
47
What is the optimal treatment of T2-3 GB cancer?
Formal resection of sections IVb and V
For T1 - open cholecystectomy and regional LN sampling
48
What future liver volume is required for resection in healthy patients?
>20%.
For patients with significant liver disease this is 40%
If less than this, can conduct portal vein embolisation to induce enlargement of normal liver
49
What is the most common cause of benign biliary stricture?
Cholecystectomy, up to 75% unrecognised and 30% >5 years post surgery
50
What proportion of cases of PSC are associated with IBD?
70%
51
What are the principle risks of ERCP?
Bleeding 1%
Duodenal perforation 0.4%
Cholangitis 1.1%
Pancreatitis 3.5%
52
What is the most common composition of gallstones?
Mixed
20% Cholesterol
TPN can result in pigment stones
53
How are Hydatid cysts best treated?
Usually with surgery after instillation of mebendazole.
Care must be taken to avoid rupture which can cause a Type 1 hypersensitivity/ anaphylaxis
Echinococcus granulosus
54
How is pancreatic drainage affected by pancreatictic divisum?
The Duct of Santorini drains via the minor papilla and the duct of Wirsung drains via the major papilla
7% prevalence
55
What is the normal thickness of the GB wall?
<3mm
56
What medications can reduce the risk of post ERCP pancreatitis?
Indomethacin and possibly diclofenac
57
What are the risk factors for post ERCP Pancreatitis?
Normal bilirubin
Young age
Pancreatic duct injection
Precut sphincterotomy
Balloon dilatation of spinchter
SOD
58
What is a contraindication to TACE for HCC?
Portal vein thrombosis.
Sorafenib is useful in cases of irresectable disease.
59
What is the Barcelona Clinic Liver Classification for HCC?
Stage 0, A,B,C,D
60
What is the recommended treatment for Hepatocellular Adenomas?
If >5cm or symptomatic or male --> resection
Rupture risk >5cm --> 10% mortality
61
What is the recommended treatment for hepatic cyst adenomas?
Resection (10% malignant, cannot distinguish)
Most common R>L lobe 85% Female, 95% mucinous
62
What is the incidence of CBD stones with normal duct size and LFTs and age <55
5%
63
What is the minimum number of liver segments that must be preserved in liver resection?
2 contiguous
64
What are risk factors for pancreatic adenocarcinoma?
Smoking + ETOH ++
DM
Gallstones and cholecystectomy
Chronic pancreatitis (5% over 20 years)
65
What is the most common type of Choledochal cyst?
Type 1 - fusiform dilatation of CBD
66
What is the Todani classification?
Choledochal cysts
Type 1 - fusiform CBD (most common)
Type 2 - CBD diverticulum
Type 3 - Choledochocele (at ampulla)
Type 4 - type 1 extending to IHDs (second most common)
Type 5 - intrahepatic cystic disease (Carolis disease)
67
What is the risk of tumour seeding with HCC?
2.7%
68
What is the most common site of metastasis with HCC?
Lung (direct to IVC) > LN
69
When is a Kasai procedure used?
Congenital biliary atresia
70
Which type of gallstone is most frequently found in the CBD?
a Brown pigment stone
71
How does a Hydatid cyst classically present?
Triad of jaundice, pain and urticarial rash
72
How quickly does the liver regenerate following resection of sections 2/3
4-6months
73
How quickly does the liver regenerate following resection of sections 2/3
4-6months
74
What is the characteristic imaging finding for Focal nodular hyperplasia?
Stellate scar (70%)
Usually distinguished from Liver cell adenoma on MRI - iso or hypointense on T1 and iso or hyperintense on T2
75
What neoadjuvant treatment is given for CLRM?
Consideration of excision of primary tumour if symptomatic
FOLFOX +/- Cetuximab/Bevacizumab
76
What are the typical features of HCC on CT (3)?
1) Arterial enhancement
2) Rapid washout on porto-venous/delayed phase
3) Heterogenous appearance of tumour
77
What are the common causes of liver abscess?
Appendicitis, biliary, diverticulitis,
rarely tumours (consider colonoscopy)
78
How can a cholangiocarcinoma be differentiated from a HoP tumour on USS?
in Hilar cholangio (Klatskin) there is only intrahepatic biliary dilatation (not extra hepatic)
79
What proportion of PNETs are functioning?
10%
80
What is the incidence of R1/2 resection in Cholangiocarcinoma?
25%
81
How much bile is produced daily?
500-1500ml/day
82
How frequently are bile salts recycled?
Up to 6 times per day in TI
83
What are the primary bile salts?
Cholate and chenodoyxcholate
Secondary formed by bacterial action --> deoxycholate (absorbed) and lithocholate (excreted)
84
What volume of pancreatic secretions are released in 24 hours?
About 1000ml, ph of 8
85
From where are enzymatic pancreatic secretions released?
Acinar cells
(Trypsinogen, procarboxylase, amylase, elastase)
86
Which hormone is the most potent in increasing pancreatic secretions?
CCK
87
How is trypsinogen activated?
By enterokinase in duodenum
88
How is the change in urine and bowel colour with obstructive jaundice mediated?
Bilirubin is conjugated normally but not excreted into bowel and degraded in stercobilinogen so stools pale and urine dark
89
What is the characteristic finding on imaging for FNH?
Central scar
90
What is the most common benign liver tumour?
Haemangioma (about 5%) >>FNH>HCA
91
What are the typical findings of a liver haemangioma?
Hyperechoic lesion , sharp lesion, posterior enhancement, absence of halo sign (US)
T2 strongly hyperintense
T1 Hypointesnse
92
What syndrome is associated with hepatic giant haemangioma?
Kasabach-Merritt syndrome
- consumptive coagulopathy and inflammatory reaction syndrome associated with giant haemangioma
93
How often does FNH have multiple lesions?
20-30%
Most solitary and <5cm
Hyperplastic hepatocellular lesion associated with arterial malformation
Associated with ECM genes, TGF-B, Wnt/B-catenin
94
How is FNH best diagnosed?
For lesions >3cm, MRI --> biopsy
For lesions <3cm, add CEUS if uncertain --> biopsy
95
How should OCPs be managed with FNH?
No indication for stopping, no follow up during pregnancy
96
How should patients with FNH be followed up?
Not at all
97
What is the risk of HCAs?
Bleeding, rupture, malignant transformation
Especially where lesions ≥5cm
98
What factors are associated with the development of HCA?
COCP (30-40x)
Obesity nad metabolic syndrome
Female gender
HNF1-A mutation most common
Beta-HCAs and men highest risk of malignancy
99
What imaging is best for HCA?
MRI - up to 80% can be subtyped, especially HNF1-a and inflammatory
100
In which patients should HCAs be excised?
Men
Beta catenin mutations
Women after 6 months of lifestyle if ≥5cm.
If <5cm then annual surveillance (MRI)
101
What is the epithelial lining of the gallbladder?
Columnar
102
From where is the arterial supply of the gallbladder derived?
Cystic artery via right hepatic artery
103
What is the orientation of the structures within the hepatoduodenal ligament?
Posteriorly - portal vein
Anteromedially - proper hepatic artery
Anterolaterally - CBD
104
From where is the arterial supply of the CBD derived?
Branches of hepatic artery (40%) and retroduodenal gastroduodenal artery (60$)
105
How are the left and right hemilivers separated?
Cantlie's line - from GB fossa and IVC (right and left branches of hepatic artery)
106
What are the 4 sections of the liver?
Right anterior/posterior
Left medial/lateral
107
What is the blood supply to the caudate lobe?
From both right and left hepatic arteries/veins
108
From where do replaced right and left hepatic arteries arise?
right SMA (up to 25% of cases)
left LGA
109
What is the embryological origin of the left portal vein?
Does not follow the artery and ducts. Connected to umbilical vein and ductus venosus
110
What is the normal dimensions of an adult spleen?
12.5cm long x 7.5cm wide
111
In which ligament does the splenic vessels lie?
Lienorenal (also has tail of pancreas!)
112
What are the classical cause of massive splenomegaly? (5)
Myelofibrosis
CML
Malaria
Gaucher's syndrome
Visceral leishmaniasis (kala-azar)
113
From where is the arterial supply to the pancreas derived?
Head - pancreaticoduodenal artery (SMV)
Rest - splenic artery (Splenic vein)
114
Where do most pancreatic secretions drain in pancreas divisum?
The minor papilla (duct of Santorini)
[Major duct drains duct Wirsung]
115
Which duct has the longest extra hepatic course?
Left hepatic
116
How many hepatic veins enter the IVC?
2 - left and middle tend to fuse prior to joining IVC
117
What are risk factors for the development of pancreatic fistula after Whipples (5)?
Soft pancreas
Age >70
Long period of jaundice (not severity)
IHD
Blood loss >1000ml
May be higher with pancreatic-jej. May be reduced by octreotide
118
What size main duct IPMN is indicated for resection?
>5mm relative
>10mm absolute
119
What size main duct IPMN is indicated for resection?
>5mm relative
>10mm absolute
120
What liver segments should be resected in T2-T3 GB cancer?
IVb and V
121
What patient characteristics make GB polyps high risk?
Age > 50
History of PSC
Indian ethnicity.
If >6mm ->LC
122
Which marker is elevated in autoimmune pancreatitis?
IgG4
Also gives Riedel's thyroiditis, scleroing sialadenitis, pseudo-tumours and retroperitoneal/mediastinal fibrosis
123
What criteria are required for resectability of CRLM?
1) Complete resection possible
2) At least 2 adjacent liver segments can be spared
3) Remaining liver is at least 20% of original volume of liver
124
When is the incidence of OPSI highest post splenectomy?
First 2 years
125
How frequently will patients with gallstone develop pancreatitis?
5%
126
In whom with a cholangiocarcinoma might a transplant be indicated?
-Not locally resectable perhilar tumour
-≤3cm radial diamater
- no evidence of intra/extra hepatic metastases
127
How can cholangiocarcinomas be classified?
Bismuth Corlette classification
128
What is the most common mutation seen with Pancreatic adenocarcinoma?
KRAS (50%)
129
What are the contrast appearances of a liver haemangioma?
Early peripheral enhancement followed by very delayed central enhancemen
130
What are the characteristics of mucinous cystic neoplasm of the pancreas?
Much more common in women
Mostly in Tail of pancreas
Septated with fibrous wall
High risk of malignant transformation --> resection
Ddx pseudocyst
131
In which pancreatic lesion is a central stellate scar seen?
Serous cystadenoma
Benign
VHL association
132
In which pancreatic tumour are calcification, solid and cystic components seen?
Solid pseudo papillary neoplasm
133
In which pancreatic tumour are calcification, solid and cystic components seen?
Solid pseudo papillary neoplasm
134
Anatomically what is the distal pancreas?
To the left of the SMV
135
What is the AAST classification of pancreatic injuries?
1 : minor contusion/lac
2: major, no ductal disruption
3: Major, distal ductal disruption/transection
4: Major, proximal ductal disruption/transection or involvement of ampulla
5: Massive disruption of pancreatic head
136
How do somatostatinomas present?
DM
Cholelithiasis
Steatorrhoea and diarrhoea
Weight loss/malabsorption
Hypochlorhydria/achlorhydria
137
In which conditions are Rokitansky-Achoff sinuses seen?
Adenomyomatosis or chronic cholecystitis
138
what drugs have been shown to reduce the rate of post ERCP pancreatitis?
PR diclofenac, indomethacin
139
What is the drainage of the splenic vein?
IMV joins Splenic vein then merges with SMV --> Portal vein
140
What is the Water Lily sign?
Detachment of endocyst membrane floating within cyst content in hydatid cyst - CE3a transitional cyst
141
What is the difference between the left lateral sector and left lateral segment?
LL Segment = 2+3
LL sector = 2
LM Segment = 4
LM sector = 3+4
142
How is post hepatectomy bleeding graded?
ISGLS grading
A: PHH ≤2 units
B: PHH >2 units no invasivve
C: Requiring angioembolisation or laparotomy
143
In which patients with Cirrhosis should surveillance be less favoured?
PSC
Auto-immune hepatitis
Women with PBC/Alcohol
144
What is the next investigation for cirrhotic patients undergoing liver surveillance where a lesion is identified?
CT --> MRI
145
Which single factor gives the highest risk of pancreatitis when undergoing an ERCP?
SOD
146
How should a T1b gallbladder tumour be treated?
at least 6 lymph nodes, possibly sections 4b and 5
147
Which anti rejection drug is associated with nephrotoxicity
Calcineurin inhibitors
148
In which condition is a fish mouth papilla seen on imaging?
Main duct IPMN
149
What is the surgical aim of resection for cholangiocarcinoma?
Tumour free margin of >5mm
150
For Bismuth-Corlette 1/2 tumours what is the surgical treatment of choice?
- Below/at (Klatskin) hepatic duct confluence
- Resection of EHBD + GB + lymphadenetctomy + RnY
Consider segment 1 resection with II + disease
151
For Bismuth-Corlette 3 tumours what is the surgical treatment of choice?
Involving CHD, confluence and one main duct
- Resection of EHBD + GB + lymphadenetctomy + RnY + R (3a)/L (3b) hepatectomy
152
For Bismuth-Corlette 4 tumours what is the surgical treatment of choice?
Usually not resectable
153
What adjuvant treatment is given to resected Cholangiocarcinomas?
R0 - Bilcap trial - Capecitabine - improves OS
R1 - chemorads
154
How are tumours of the CBD treated?
Pancreaticoduodenectomy
155
If no varices are seen in patients with CLD at endoscopy when should OGD be repeated?
3 years
156
How is compensated advanced chronic liver disease screened?
Transient elastography repeated on 2 separate days (Fasted)
<10 no
10-15 maybe
>15 likely
157
How can compensated advanced chronic liver disease be definitively diagnosed?
-Liver biopsy showing cirrhosis or severe fibrosis
- Collage proportionate area
- OGD varices
- Hepatic venous pressure gradient >5mmHg
158
What is clinically significant portal hypertension?
Hepatic Venous Pressure Gradient ≥10mmHg
In patients with virus associated CLD can use transient elastography (≥20-25 on 2+ occasions)
159
Which patients with CLD can avoid screening endoscopy for varices?
TE <20kPa and Platelets >150
160
What MELD score suggests risk of cirrhosis complications?
≥12
161
In patients with cirrhosis and no varices on OGD, when should an OGD be repeated?
3 years
162
Which patients with Hepatitis B Cirrhosis should have screening USS/AFP for HCC?
-Significant Cirrhosis/Fibrosis (METAVIR ≥F2 or Ishak ≥3)
- Age >40 + FH + HBV DNA ≥20,000iU/ml
163
What is Puestow's procedure?
Lateral (side-side) pancreaticojejunostomy
Advantages - no removal of tissue
Disadvantages - needs 6mm duct, does not drain head
164
What is Frey's procedure?
Coring out of pancreatic head and lateral (side-side) pancreaticojejunostomy
Advantages - drains head
Disadvantages - removes tissue
165
What is Beger's procedure?
Resection of pancreatic head (almost all), then reconstruction with a single loop of jejunum
166
What autoantibody May be raised in PBC
Antimitochondrial antibody
167
what is the optimum management of a Type 3 Todani Choledochal cyst?
Spincteroplasty +/- excision (low risk malignant transformation)
168
What are the CT appearances of a HCC?
Arterial enhancement
Rapid washout on porto-venous phase
Heterogenous appearances
169
What treatment options are available for non-resectable HCC?
Direct tumour ablation methods (RFA, microwave)
Trans-arterial chemoembolisation
Systemic treatment options (chemotherapy, sorafenib (TKI), nivolomab)
170
How are Hepatic Hydatid cysts optimally treated?
Grade according to WHO classification
If inactive or degenerative phase - usually watch and wait
otherwise if small- Albendazole for 6 months
if medium/large --> surgical resection and albendazole
171
What is the imaging modality of choice for pancreatic cystic neoplasms?
MRCP
172
What is the threshold level of CEA in pancreatic cyst EUS + FNA?
>192 distinguishes mucinous from non-mucinous tumours
Amylase <250U/l excludes pseudocyst
173
How should patients with IPMN not treated surgically be surveilled?
6 monthly review, Ca19-9 and MRI/EUS for 1 year, then annually
(European guidelines 2018)
174
When should a splenic cyst be operated?
>5cm - high risk of rupture
If ehinocococcal care taken to avoid spillage and percutaneous intervention
175
What criteria diagnose an HCC without a biopsy?
Concordant imaging and AFP >400
LIRADS diagnostic (LR-4/LR-5)
176
When might SIRT be indicated for HCC?
Child Pugh A, unresectable, TACE failed
177
What is the pathophysiology of acute pancreatitis?
Acinar cell injury and impaired secretion of zymogen
Increased calcium --> zymogen + lysosome --> trypsinogen --> trypsin
178
What are the characteristics of chronic pancreatitis?
Progressive irreversible fibrosis of pancreatic parenchyma with calcification and dilatation of pancreatic ducts
179
What is the natural history of chronic pancreatitis?
Early phase <5 years - acute attacks
Middle phase 5-10years - duct strictures and calcifications
Late phase 10+ years - exocrine insufficiency + DM
180
When is surgery useful in chronic pancreatitis?
Obstructive CP + Dilated pancreatic duct better than ERCP
If damaged head then Frey's procedure, otherwise probably Puestows pancreaticojej
181
What a re the causes of Chronic Pancreatitis?
TIGARO
Toxic/metabolic (Alcohol, smoking, CRF, medications)
Idiopathic
Genetic (AD - PRSS1 mutation/AR, cystic fibrosis)
Autoimmune (assoc with Sjogrens, IBD)
Recurrent severe acute pancreatitis
Obstructive (Pancreas divisum, duct obstruction)
182
For acute pancreatitis when Gallstones and Alcohol are excluded, what conditions should be excluded?
Metabolic (Hypercalcaemia, hyperlipidaemia)
Prescription drugs
Microlithiasis
Hereditary pancreatitis
Autoimmune (IgG4)
Ampullary/pancreatic tumours
Anatomical anomalies
Practically - standard bloods, history for drugs and FH, EUS/MRCP and IgG4
183
What is the difference between Calot's and the Cystohepatic triangle?
Calots bounded by CD, CHD and CA
Cystohepaic bounder by CD, CHD and Inferior border of liver
184
What common variants of biliary anatomy are encountered?
-- Accessory/posterior cystic artery
-- Short and tortuous right hepatic artery (Moynihan's hump) in CHT
- Very short cystic duct or long and parallel to CBD
- right posterior sectoral duct joining cystic duct
- duct of Luschka
185
What are grades of pancreatic fistula?
Drain fluid amylase >3x serum amylase on D3
A: biochemical leak
B: clinical impact
C: severe clinical impact
186
What are the steps in performing a Whipple's procedure?
Mobilising hepatic flexure of colon
Extensive Kocherisation to left renal vein
Cholecystectomy + hepatic artery dissection
GDA ligation and distal gastrectomy
Retropancreatic tunnel and CBD dissection
Transection of pancreas
Pancreatic reconstruction --> PJ
Roux en-y Hep J
Gastric reconstruction
187
How would a HepJ for biliary injury be performed?
-- Right subcostal or extension
-- Visualise ducts and cholangiogram for confirmation
-- Kocherise duodenum and close CBD distally
-- Hilar plate opened to expose LHD and RHD over IVb and V
-- If distal - HJ
-- If at confluence Hepp-Coinaud approach - incise over confluence for side-side
-- If above confluence - either separate HJ or HHJ
- Roux loop of 30cm
-- End-side or side-side hepJ with 4/5-0 PDS
--?Stent
--JJ
188
How is a TIPPS performed?
Cannulation of RIJ --> RHV
Needling of RPV to confirm position
Passage of angiographic guidewire and then catheterised and dilated to 8-10mm
Partially covered stent insertd (covered HV/IVC, uncovered PV)
189
What are the indications for TIPPS?
Refractory Ascites (Level 1a)
Secondary prevention of variceal haemorrhage (Level 1a)
190
What is the anatomy pre and post Whipple?
191
What are the complications of liver resections?
Any complication 35%
Post-hepatectomy liver failure 5.3%
Biliary leakage 8%
30d mortality 1.5%
All higher with left or trisectionectomy or history of Cirrhosis
192
What is the relationship of the RHA to the bile ducts?
Posterior to CHD 75%
Anterior to CHD 8.3%
Posterior to CBD 16.7%
193
what is the Barcelona liver clinic staging system?
For staging of HCC, integrates PS, Childs-Pugh and size
Resection reserved for CP-A and early disease
194
What are the potential causes of a bile leak not seen on ERCP?
Cannulation beyond leak site
-- cystic duct stump
-- right posterior sectoral duct or other aberrant duct
195
What are the functions of the spleen?
-Store platelets
-filter senescent erythrocytes (red pulp, most of spleen)
-Immune function (white pulp)
----opsonisation (Tuftsin)
----Lymphoid follicles (B-cells)
----Periarterial lymphatic sheath (PALS - T- Cells)
196
What is ITP?
Auto-antibodies to Glycoproteins IIb/IIIa and Ia/IIa
Usually steroids, IVIG, retuximab (CD20)
197
What is the normal life span of a RBC?
120d.
Broken down by Macrophages in spleen, liver and red bone marrow into
--Globin (AA)
--Heme --> Fe3+ (transferrin) --> ferritin in liver
+ biliverdin --> bilirubin (albumin) liver
198
What is the differential diagnosis of a splenic cyst?
Benign cyst (Epithelial cyst or haemangioma)
Inflammatory (Pseudocyst)
Infectious (Hydatid, Abscess)
Solid (Harmartoma, Angiosarcoma, Lymphoma, Metastasis)
199
What is the immunological role of the liver?
Involved in detoxifying PV blood
Kuppfer cells macrophages
Lymphoid and myeloid precursors present and involved in inflammatory processes that can contribute to Cirrhotic Liver disease of any cause
200
What are the common causes of obstructive jaundice?
Luminal - CBD stones/?parasitic
Intra-mural - Cholangiocarcinoma, benign stricture
Extra-mural - Ampullary cancer
201
How is Acute Cholecystitis diagnosed?
Tokyo criteria
RUQ tenderness/peritonism +
Signs of local inflammation (CRP/WCC/Temp) +
USS findings
202
What are the subtypes of HCC
Nodular
Massive
Diffuse
203
What are the types of pseudocyst?
Degidio
1 - post inflammatory no ductal abnormality
2 - Post inflammatory acute/chronic with diseased but not structured duct 50% communication
3 - Chronic pancreatitis with duct stricture and communication
