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RADT 133 > homework review 3 > Flashcards

homework review 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Controlled substances include

a. only intravenously administered drugs.
b. all analgesics.
c. only opiates.
d. drugs with a high abuse potential.

A

d. drugs with a high abuse potential.

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2
Q

Flumazenil (Romazicon) and naloxone (Narcan) are prescribed to

A

reverse the sedation of other drugs.

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3
Q

Generic medications are usually the ___________________ proprietary medications.

A

same as, but less expensive than,

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4
Q

Insulin, tolbutamide (Orinase), chlorpropamide (Diabinase), rosiglitazone (Avandia), and metformin (Glucophage) are examples of

A

hypoglycemic agents.

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5
Q

The role of the radiographer in medication administration involves

A

preparing the medication for administration and monitoring the patient after it has been given.

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6
Q

The term pharmacokinetics refers to the study of

A

the physiological movement of medications**

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7
Q

When a patient has an adverse response to a medication because he or she has been sensitized to a previous dose of the drug, the effect is considered to be

A

allergic

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8
Q

When a patient overreacts or underreacts to a medication or has an unexpected response, the effect is categorized as

A

idiosyncratic

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9
Q

Which is a common antihistamine (generic and trade names) kept in the radiology department?

A

Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)

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10
Q

What medication is a corticosteroid drug that acts as an anti-inflammatory agent, preventing or reducing edema of the tracheobronchial tree and minimizing the possibility of respiratory arrest during allergic reactions?

A

Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)

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11
Q

A common site for blood draws and emergency IV injections is

A

the median cubital vein

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12
Q

A drug usually takes effect most rapidly when administered

a. orally.
b. intravenously.
c. intradermally.
d. intramuscularly.

A

b. intravenously.

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13
Q

Administering nitroglycerine under the patient’s tongue is an example of

A

sublingual administration

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14
Q

All of these are included in the six rights of drug administration, except.

a. the right time.
b. the right documentation.
c. the right dose.
d. the right cost.

A

right cost

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15
Q

chemical name for drug example

A

2-(DIETHYLAMINO)-N-(2,6-DIMETHYLPHENYL-M ONOHYDROCHLORIDE)

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16
Q

generic name for drug example

A

lidocaine hydrochloride

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17
Q

brand name for drug example

A

xylocaine

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18
Q

6 rights of medication adiministration

A

Right Patient
Right Drug
Right Dose
Right Route
Right Time
Right Documentation

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19
Q

mnemonic for 6 rights of drug administration

A

patients do drugs round the day

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20
Q

weight conversion equation

A

Pounds (lb) / 2.2 lb/kg = kilograms (kg)

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21
Q

dose calculation equation

A

Dose/kg x Weight (kg) = Total Dose

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22
Q

Angle of Intradermal = _++ degrees

A

10-15

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23
Q

Angle of subcutaneous = _____ degrees

A

45 or 90

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24
Q

IV complication that occurs when microorganisms invade the IV line, port, or skin on the site of injection

A

Infection

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25
Q

Angle of intramuscular = __ degrees

A

90

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26
Q

IV complication that occurs when the cannula is too large for the vein or if it’s improperly secured

A

phlebitis

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27
Q

IV complication that occurs when IV fluids or medications leak out of the vein and into the surrounding tissue

A

infiltration

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28
Q

IV complication that occurs when a vesicant agent in the IV leaks into surrounding tissues and causes serious tissue damage

A

extravasation

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29
Q

IV complication that occurs when the IV angio-catheter passes through more than one wall of a vein or if pressure is not applied to the IV site when the catheter is removed

A

hematoma

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30
Q

IV complication that occurs when air enters the venous system from the VI catheter and circulates

A

air embolism

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31
Q

Failure to apply pressure to the vein after discontinuing an IV can result in

A

hematoma

32
Q

If extravasation occurs during IV infusion, you should remove the needle or catheter, apply pressure, and then apply (cold/hot packs)

A

cold packs

33
Q

Which administration route is the injection of a contrast medium into the subarachnoid space for a myelogram?

A

intrathecal

34
Q

Which two are performed after oral administration of a medication?

a. Hand hygiene
b. Documentation of the medication
c. Recheck the patient identity.
d. Read the label again.

A

hand hygiene, documentation of the medication

35
Q

A “skin test,” such as a test for tuberculosis, which is administered to an area on the anterior forearm, is an example of the _________________ route of medication administration.

A

intradermal

36
Q

A multidrawered cabinet on wheels that contains medications, supplies, and equipment needed in the event of a cardiac arrest is called a(n)

A

emergency cart

37
Q

A noninvasive treatment that is appropriate for any patient who experiences acute anxiety accompanied by a rapid heart rate and shortness of breath is

A

a low rate of oxygen administration

38
Q

An emergency drug given to reverse bronchospasm is

A

isoproterenol

39
Q

Before suctioning a patient, it is important to check the suction system for which of the following?

a. There is adequate length of tubing connecting the suction catheter to the receptacle.
b. There is an assortment of disposable catheters available.
c. The pump is working and a clean receptacle is connected to the pump
d. All of the above

A

all of the above

40
Q

Research has proven that victims of massive trauma who survive the initial injury have a greater chance of recovery if their condition can be stabilized within the “golden” period, which refers to the first

A

hour

41
Q

the most common cause of death for individuals under 40 years of age in the United States is

A

trauma

42
Q

When patients who suffer from a chronic lung disease, such as emphysema, experience respiratory distress, they should receive

A

a low flow rate of oxygen (less than 3 L/min).

43
Q

Which of the following are accepted methods for administering oxygen?
1. Mask
2. Nasal prongs
3. Ventilator
4. Tent

A

all of the above

44
Q

Xylocaine (Lidocaine) is a drug found on the emergency code cart that can be used for treating cardiac emergencies because it is a(n)

A

antidysrhythmic

45
Q

The process of placing an artificial airway through the mouth or nose and into the trachea is commonly called

A

intubation

46
Q

emergency code: code blue

A

heart or respiration stops

47
Q

emergency code: code orange

A

hazardous spills

48
Q

emergency code: code red

A

fire

49
Q

emergency code: code silver

A

weapon or hostage situation

50
Q

emergency code: code gray

A

combative person

51
Q

emergency code: internal triage

A

internal emergency

52
Q

emergency code: external triage

A

external disaster

53
Q

emergency code: amber alert

A

infant/child abduction

54
Q

emergency code: rapid response

A

medical team needed at bedside

55
Q

flow rate for use of nasal cannula; oxygen delivery %

A

used with lower levels 1-6 L/min; 45% O2 delivery

56
Q

flow rate for use of simple oxygen mask; oxygen delivery %

A

1-10 L/min, 40-60% oxygen delivery

57
Q

flow rate for use of non-breathing oxygen mask; oxygen delivery %

A

supplies 100% oxygen

58
Q

A diabetic patient who has taken insulin but eaten no food may develop (hypoglycemia/hypergylcemia)

A

hypoglycemia

59
Q

A dizzy sensation that feels as if the room is spinning and that often causes nausea may be reported by patients who suffer from

A

inner ear disturbances

60
Q

A numeric system developed to evaluate the changing status of coma patients that can be used by a variety of healthcare workers is called the

A

Glasgow Coma Scale

61
Q

All of the following actions are appropriate when caring for a patient who is experiencing a tonic-clonic seizure, except for

a. placing a pad under the head.
b. accurate observation.
c. maintaining the airway.
d. restraining movement as much as possible.

A

d. restraining movement as much as possible.

62
Q

An AED has the ability to do all of the following except

a. deliver a shock.
b. analyze a cardiac rhythm.
c. remind staff to not touch the patient.
d. identify ventricular tachycardia and fibrillation.

A

c. remind staff to not touch the patient.

63
Q

An acute attack of asthma or other reactive airway disease may be treated by the administration of oxygen and

A

a bronchodilating medication

64
Q

The vital sign that most accurately indicates the condition of shock is the

A

blood pressure

65
Q

In small children or infants, a foreign body obstruction of the airway should be suspected if there is a sudden onset of

A

severe coughing or stridor

66
Q

A device to drain bile from the hepatic and common bile ducts to the outside of the body following cholecystectomy is called a

A

T-tube

67
Q

A substantial intravenous dose delivered rapidly is called a(n)

A

bolus

68
Q

an ionic iodinated contrast agent is one

A

that dissociates into charged particles in solution

69
Q

Aqueous iodine compounds that are injected into the body are removed from the blood and excreted

A

in urine via the kidneys.

70
Q

ERCP stands for

A

endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography

71
Q

The principal laboratory tests used to evaluate renal function prior to the injection of iodinated contrast media are the BUN and

A

creatinine

72
Q

When a contrast medium is described as aqueous, this means that

A

water is the principal solvent for the iodine compound.

73
Q

Which of the following listings is the most reliable predictor of risk of allergic response to contrast media?

a. BUN level
b. Seafood allergy
c. Intradermal skin test
d. Allergy history

A

allergy history

74
Q

Which of the following conditions is least likely to be an adverse reaction to the intravenous injection of aqueous iodinated contrast media?

a. Hypertension
b. Anaphylactic shock
c. Nausea
d. Urticaria

A

hypertension

75
Q

Gases commonly used as contrast agents are air and

A

carbon dioxide

RADT 133 (7 decks)

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