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PT 6221: Therapeutic Procedures > Home Study > Flashcards

Home Study Flashcards

1
Q

Paraffin Bath is a type of _______

A

conduction

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2
Q

Paraffin machine is kept at a higher temperature of ______ due to ____ specific heat

A

125-127F; lower

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3
Q

What is the total duration of paraffin wax?

A

20-30 minutes

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4
Q

The depth of penetration of paraffin wax is less than ___

A

1cm

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5
Q

Paraffin is most commonly used for what demographics?

A
  1. Distal extremities
  2. Arthritic hands and feet
  3. Healed burns (scar tissue)
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6
Q

If using paraffin therapeutically, when would you use it during a treatment?

A

prior to stretching

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7
Q

Specific contraindications of paraffin bath includes

A
  1. Infection
  2. Open Wound
  3. New Skin Graft
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8
Q

Specific precautions of paraffin bath include

A
  1. Remove all jewelry

2. No movement is allowed or burn can occur from cracked wax

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9
Q

What is the main physiologic response of paraffin bath?

A

Integument: retains moisture and softens the skin

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10
Q

The proper procedure for doing paraffin wax is to dip, remove and allow to harden. The first dip is always the _____

A

deepest

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11
Q

How many dips of paraffin wax do you do?

A

8-10 dips

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12
Q

What do you wrap around paraffin treatment for insulation?

A

a plastic wrap and towels

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13
Q

Fluidotherapy is a type of _____

A

convection (dry heat)

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14
Q

What is fluidotherapy?

A

fine cellulose particles through which heated air is blown

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15
Q

Fluidotherapy has ___ specific heat than water, which means the treatment temp is ____ to ____

A

less; 105F to 125F

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16
Q

The depth of penetration of fluidotherapy is less than

A

1cm

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17
Q

What is the treatment duration of fluidotherapy?

A

20 minutes

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18
Q

In fluidotherapy, the moving particles eliminate the _____

A

temperature gradient

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19
Q

What are the unique things about fluidotherapy?

A
  1. Can exercise during rx
  2. Can eliminate gravity
  3. Only distal body parts
  4. Provides desensitization
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20
Q

Vapocoolant spray is a type of _____ and _____

A

conduction; evaporation

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21
Q

Vapocoolant spray provides a _____ effect

A

sensory

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22
Q

What is vapocoolant spray made of?

A

Ethyl chloride or fluori-methane

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23
Q

With vapocoolant spray, you may ____ the ROM when stretch is applied

A

increase

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24
Q

What 2 things should you be cautious of with vapocoolant spray?

A
  1. The eyes

2. The US sound head

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25
Q

Vapocoolant spray stimulates ___ fibers involved in what theory?

A

A; Gate Control Theory

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26
Q

Vapocoolant spray ____ pain/spasm cycle

A

decreases

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27
Q

Vapocoolant spray creates cold which inhibits what?

A

mm spindle activation

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28
Q

What are 3 common clinical applications of using vapocoolant spray?

A
  1. Torticollis
  2. Muscle Spasms
  3. Myofascial trigger points
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29
Q

How many times do you spray?

A

2-4 times

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30
Q

You should spray at a ____ angle to the skin and spray from ____ to ____

A

acute; origin to insertion

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31
Q

You should apply a slight ___ on the muscle before spraying it

A

stretch

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32
Q

You should avoid ____ of the skin when using spray

A

frosting

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33
Q

What does contrast bath cause?

A

alternate constriction and dilation of local blood vessels

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34
Q

What are common reasons to use contrast baths?

A
  1. Subacute swelling

2. DOMS

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35
Q

Contrast baths stimulate _____ and _____

A

blood flow; healing

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36
Q

The warm bath should be between _____F and the cold bath should be between ____F

A

104-106; 50-60

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37
Q

For contrast baths, you should immerse in a warm bath/cold bath for a _:1 or a _:1 ratio

A

3:1 or 4:1

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38
Q

During a contrast bath, you should encourage what?

A

ROM

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39
Q

The dosage for contrast baths are not well researched, however, you should aim for ____ minutes or ___ cycles

A

20-30 min; 4-5 cycles

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40
Q

With contrast baths, you should end with warm or cold depending on what?

A

injury status

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41
Q

Diathermy provides heat by ____

A

conversion

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42
Q

Diathermy causes the heat in the body tissues to raise due to ____ of the tissue to the passage of energy

A

resistance

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43
Q

There are 2 types of diathermy modalities, _____ and ____

A

microwave and shortwave

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44
Q

Diathermy is most commonly used where?

A

Skilled Nursing Facilities

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45
Q

When using SWD, the frequency is usually around ___MHz and wavelength at ___m

A

27; 11

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46
Q

The delivery types of heating mechanisms of SWD can be ______(CSWD), _____(PSWD) and ____ period

A

continuous current
pulsed current
off period/ on period

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47
Q

Off period ____ on period to prevent accrual of heat

A

> or equal to

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48
Q

The production of heat in SWD uses either ____ field or ____ field

A

condenser; induction

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49
Q

A condenser field is ____ while an induction field is ____

A

electric; magnetic

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50
Q

Condenser / Electric Field uses the patient’s body tissues as the _____ b/w the 2 conduction surfaces

A

dielectric

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51
Q

The tissues are influenced in SWD by an _____ electric field

A

oscillating

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52
Q

Heat is produced by _____ and _____ of molecules of tissues in SWD

A

vibration; distortion

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53
Q

Heat is the strongest where the density of the field is ____, aka, near the electrodes

A

greatest

54
Q

The ___ spaced plates use a condenser field

A

air

55
Q

The condenser method always uses ___ drums

A

2

56
Q

The induction/magnetic field method places the patient in the em field of electrodes so the current is induced in the ____ tissues

A

conductive

57
Q

In induction/magnetic field method, the heating is primarily in the ____ mm’s

A

superficial

58
Q

Deeper mm’s are heated by conduction of heat for ____ tissues in induction/magnetic field method

A

overlying

59
Q

The inductive method uses __ drum(s)

A

1

60
Q

Oscillating magnetic field in the applicator induces oscillating ____ currents

A

“eddy”

61
Q

Inductor/magnetic method is better for targeting ____ areas

A

smaller

62
Q

The greatest density of eddy current activity occurs in ___ impedance tissues (also containing the ___ electrolyte content, such as skeletal muscle and blood)

A

low; highest

63
Q

The condenser field places the patient in the actual _____

A

electrical circuit

64
Q

The induction field places the patient in the ____ produced by the equipment

A

electromagnetic field

65
Q

CSWD provides thermal heat into the _____ and the effects of this are similar to other forms of therapeutic heat

A

tissues

66
Q

Why should you use CSWD in a patient? (6)

A
  1. increased extensibility of deep collagen tissues
  2. decreases joint stiffness
  3. relieves deep pain/mm spasms
  4. increases blood flow
  5. heats deep tissues
  6. heats large areas
67
Q

What are the advantages of using SWD?

A
  1. Heats deeper tissues

2. Heats larger areas

68
Q

What are the disadvantages of using SWD?

A
  1. Costly
  2. Unable to measure the actual amount of EM energy transferred to the patient’s tissues
  3. Decreased selective heating
69
Q

SWD indications include subacute and chronic traumatic or inflammatory conditions of ________ and mm’s, as well as before ____

A

superficial joints; stretching

70
Q

What are the contraindications for SWD?

A
  1. Metal implants
  2. pacemakers
  3. very old/young
  4. Epiphyseal growth plates not yet closed
  5. Hemorrhaging/active bleeding menustration
  6. Acute inflammation
  7. Space occupying lesions (nucleus pulposis)
  8. Cancer
  9. Anesthetic skin
  10. Ischemic tissue
  11. Cardiac insufficiency
  12. Fever/infection
  13. Pregnancy
  14. Joints/organs containing increased fluid level
71
Q

What are the SWD precautions?

A
  1. Ischemic areas
  2. Open wounds or moist dressing
  3. Uneven spacing or pressure of electrodes
  4. Perspiration
  5. Electronic or magnetic equipment in area
  6. Impaired sensation
  7. Obesity (subcutaneous fat)
72
Q

Whirlpools can be ____ or ____

A

thermotherapy; cryotherapy

73
Q

Whirlpools are stainless steel so that they can be better cleaned and prevent ____

A

infection

74
Q

The method of heat transfer in whirlpools are either _____ or ____

A

conduction; convection (once turbine is on)

75
Q

Whirlpools are advantageous for allowing the patient to ____ during treatment

A

exercise

76
Q

Whirlpools are disadvantageous because the segment is ____, it is a _____ intervention and there is no ____ to support its use

A
  1. dependent
  2. costly
  3. research
77
Q

A Burn Tank is ____ and requires a lift to transfer the patient

A

larger

78
Q

A Hubbard Tank is ___ shaped and designed for ___ body immersion with __ turbines

A

butterfly
full
two

79
Q

Hubbard Tanks have almost too _____ dosing which can contribute to issues with large ____ effects

A

generalized; systemic

80
Q

The turbine is the electrical motor pump which creates the agitation. Agitation is regulated by adjusting the ___ of ejected water and the amount of _____ of the water

A

force; aeration

81
Q

APTA Choosing Wisely campain #5 says

A

do not use whirlpools for wound management

82
Q

Whirlpools can damage the fragile _____ tissues from agitating water

A

healing

83
Q

There is a risk of ____ with extremity in a dependent position in a whirlpool

A

edema

84
Q

The farther to the right on the EM spectrum, the ____ the wavelengths

A

shorter

85
Q

What are the 3 main bands of the UV spectrum?

A

UV-A, UV-B and UV-C

86
Q

Which type of UV causes skin damage?

A

UV-B

87
Q

UV-A is near the ____ spectrum

A

visible light

88
Q

UV-B is the middle and ____ spectrum and used for treating ____ conditions

A

sunburn; skin

89
Q

UV-C is ___ wave or far UV and is considered ______

A

short; bactericidal

90
Q

UV-C cannot come from what?

A

sunlight

91
Q

Clinically, UV light can be _____, _____ or ____

A

reflected; absorbed; transmitted

92
Q

UV is only absorbed in the _____ and does not go any deeper, hence why it does not ____

A

epidermis; refract

93
Q

UV does NOT produce any ____ benefits, only chemical changes in the epidermal cells

A

thermal

94
Q

Short term effects of UV therapy include

A

inflammation
erythema
pigmentation
hyperplasia

95
Q

Long term effects of UV therapy include

A

premature aging

skin cancer

96
Q

What can occur with UV and the eyes?

A

photokeratitis

97
Q

UV energy is absorbed by the proteins in the ____ cell layer of the epidermis

A

prickle

98
Q

_____ reactions lead to damage

A

photochemical

99
Q

____ and other substances release and cause vaso___ which increases the capillary _____ and begins several hours after UV exposure (inflammation)

A

histamine; dilation; permeability

100
Q

Despite not being immediately evident, this is a common sign of inflammation after using UV

A

erythema

101
Q

Excessive dosage of UV can lead to ____ and ___ damage

A

blistering; tissue

102
Q

Before giving a UV treatment, you need to quantify their photosensitivity first by testing their ______ (MED)

A

minimal erythemal dosage

103
Q

One MED = the ____ dose/time of exposure that produces ____ erythema appearing within ___ hours following exposure and disappearing within ____ hours

A

shortest
minimal
1-6
24

104
Q

1st degree erythema exhibits a faint ____ and occurs after a latent period of __+ hrs.

A

reddening; 2

105
Q

1st degree erythema persists ___ hrs and is caused by being exposed ___x as long as MED skin

A

48; 2.5

106
Q

2nd degree erythema exhibits a mild ____-like reaction and is visible __ hours after exposure

A

sunburn

2

107
Q

2nd degree erythema may be a little painful and can persist from ___ to ___ hours, since it is exposed ___x as long as MED skin

A

48-72

5x

108
Q

3rd degree erythema resembles an intense reaction similar to a ______

A

sunburn

109
Q

3rd degree erythema takes greater than ___ hours to subside and shows intense reddening after ___ hr to exposure

A

72; 1

110
Q

3rd degree erythema is considered ____ because the skin ___ and pigmentation ____

A

destructive; peels; remains

111
Q

Repeated irradiation at certain levels causes _____ish coloration of the skin due to the deposition of ____ granules

A

brownish; melanin

112
Q

Melanin granules migrate from ____ layers to ____ layers of the skin

A

deep to superficial

113
Q

The role of pigmentation for therapeutic purposes is ____, since melanin is a biologic filter of UV

A

protective

114
Q

With pigmentation and tanning, repeated overdoses cause cause hyper____ and hyper____

A

hyperkeratosis; hyperpigmentation

115
Q

With UV therapy, there is a potential for degeneration and possible pre-___ changes

A

cancerous

116
Q

UV-C light in the ___nm-___nm range such as cold quartz is 90% effective in killing or controlling certain bacterias such as pseudomonas, however, does NOT effectively destroy the ___forms of bacterial organisms. Just the active forms (repeated Rx is needed)

A

254-265; spores

117
Q

Indications of using UV therapy include (3)

A
  1. Psoriasis
  2. Eczema
  3. Pressure Sores
118
Q

Factors that influence UV light sensitivity includes ___ texture, ____ and ___ color

A

skin; age; skin

119
Q

Skin texture ____ decreases UV sensitivity

A

thickness

120
Q

Very young and very old individuals are more ____ to UV light therapy

A

sensitive

121
Q

Fair skin is more ____ to UV light therapy

A

sensitive

122
Q

Additional factors that influence UV sensitivity include the _____ being treated, ____ being used, and _____ agents

A

body part
drugs
antibacterial; microbial

123
Q

_____ ointment and ____ are used therapeutically for the treatment of psoriasis

A

coal tar; psoralens

124
Q

Applying UV to skin for ____ healing, ___ conditions and _____ effects is one of the oldest medical modalities, however, is used infrequently now

A

wound
skin
photochemical

125
Q

UV dosage

A

1 MED = shortest dose/time of exposure that produces the most minimal erythema appearing within 1-6 hours following exposure and disappearing within 24 hours

126
Q

When doing a MED Sleeve Test, what do you need to keep in mind?

A

position and test surface
eye protection
sleeve preparation

127
Q

when doing a sleeve test procedure, position the lamp over the area to be exposed and do 1” for ___ quartz and 30” for ___ quarts

A

cold; hot

128
Q

What are contraindications for using UV light therapy?

A

Acute:
generalized dermatitis
eczema
psoriasis

Lupus erythematosus
Herpes simplex
Hyperthyroidism/diabetes
Severe itching
Freckles/moles
Photosensitizing drugs
Fever
X-ray therapy
Pellagra
Xeroderma
129
Q

Pellagra is a deficiency of ____ and ____ in the diet characterized by skin eruptions

A

niacin; protein

130
Q

Xeroderma is excessive or abnormal ____ of the skin

A

dryness

131
Q

What are the precautions of using UV light therapy?

A 
Eyes
Skin overdose
Delicate skin areas
Photosensitizing agents/meds
Hx of skin cancer
General Therapist Protection
Home Rx NOT reccomended
132
Q

How long does one MED usually take?

A

30 seconds

PT 6221: Therapeutic Procedures (7 decks)

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