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Test 3 > HIV/AIDS > Flashcards

HIV/AIDS Flashcards

1
Q

DEFINE:
VIRUS that impairs the functioning of a person’s immune system.

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

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2
Q

How does HIV impaire our immune system?

A

The virus impairs/destroys CD4+ T cells - they are WBC that activate our immune system

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3
Q

What is the primary function of CD4+ T cells in the immune system?

A) They produce antibodies to neutralize pathogens.

B) They directly destroy infected cells.

C) They alert the body’s immune system to the presence of an infection.

D) They enhance the activity of phagocytes.

A

C) They alert the body’s immune system to the presence of an infection.

Note: They don’t necessarily actively fight infections in the body, but the play a critical role in signaling and activating other parts of the immune system when an infection is present.

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4
Q

What actually leads to immunodeficiency?

A

Immunodeficiency occurs when the rate of destruction of CD4+ T (WBC) cells exceeds the body’s ability to produce new, functional CD4+ T cells.

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5
Q

The number of detectable HIV viruses in the blood is called

A

“Viral Load”

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6
Q

2 main diagnostic tests we use to monitor HIV progression

A
  • CD4+T
  • Viral Load
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7
Q

CD4 and Viral Load will be ___ of each other

A

INVERSE
(OPOSITE)

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8
Q

The HIGHER the VIRAL LOAD the __.

A

LOWER the CD4- T cells

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9
Q

The number that holds more meaning for diagnosis is the ___.

A

CD4+T count.

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10
Q

A normal adult CD4+T cell count is

A

800-1200 cells/µL

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11
Q

What does a HIGH VIRAL LOAD combined with a LOW CD4+ T cell count indicate about a patient’s immune system

A) The immune system is effectively managing the infection with a high level of immune function.

B) The immune system is moderately compromised, but not yet severely affected.

C) The immune system is severely compromised, indicating progression to AIDS.

D) The immune system is in a state of complete recovery, showing an undetectable viral load.

A

C) The immune system is severely compromised, indicating progression to AIDS.

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12
Q

In the diagnosis of AIDS, what significance does a CD4+ T cell count BELOW 200 have?

A) It indicates that the patient has a mild immune deficiency.

B) It is one of the main criteria for diagnosing AIDS, reflecting severe immune system compromise.

C) It suggests the patient is responding well to antiretroviral therapy.

D) It means the patient has a high viral load but does not meet the criteria for AIDS.

A

B) It is one of the main criteria for diagnosing AIDS, reflecting severe immune system compromise.

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13
Q

What do viral load numbers tell us?

A

Viral load numbers provide a measure of disease progression OR control by indicating the amount of HIV in the blood.

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14
Q

What do HIGH viral load numbers typically indicate?

A

Higher viral load = MORE active disease and further disease progression.

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15
Q

What does it signify when an HIV patient’s viral load is “undetectable”?

A

An “undetectable” viral load signifies that the number of HIV copies in the blood is BELOW detectable levels, indicating that treatment is effective.

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16
Q

Which of the following statements accurately reflects the significance of an “undetectable” viral load in HIV treatment?

A) An “undetectable” viral load confirms that the HIV virus has been completely eliminated from the body.

B) An “undetectable” viral load indicates that the HIV virus is no longer present in the body and the patient is cured.

C) An “undetectable” viral load means the treatment is working and the virus is at very low levels, but it does not imply a cure.

D) An “undetectable” viral load suggests that the patient’s immune system has fully recovered from HIV.

A

C) An “undetectable” viral load means the treatment is working and the virus is at very low levels, but it does not imply a cure.

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17
Q

What impact does a HIGH viral load have on the risk of HIV transmission?

A

It increases the likelihood of HIV transmission to others.

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18
Q

If viral load is undetectable, it does not mean ___.

A

virus its not there.
- HIV Virus never goes away.

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19
Q

What 9 symptoms are commonly experienced by a patient newly infected with HIV, and when do they typically appear?

A
  • fever
  • swollen lymph nodes
  • sore throat
  • headache
  • malaise
  • nausea
  • muscle and joint pain
  • diarrhea
  • skin rash
    - Flu symptoms
  • 2 to 4 weeks AFTER transmission (acute infection)
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20
Q

What occurs during the Acute Infection stage of HIV, which typically happens 2-4 weeks after transmission?

A

The patient’s HIV viral load is high and there is a temporary drop in the CD4+ T cell count.

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21
Q

Why are HIV-infected patients at a greater risk of transmitting the virus during the Acute Infection stage?

A

due to HIGH viral load in their blood.

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22
Q

The interval between initial HIV infection and time of diagnosis of AIDS
(a period of time)

A
  • Typically about 10 years if HIV is untreated
  • Timeframe is highly individualized
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23
Q

What is the “Window Period” in HIV testing, and why does it occur?

A

The “Window Period” is the delay between initial HIV infection and the point when HIV can be detected by tests, which occurs because it takes time for the virus or antibodies to reach detectable levels.

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24
Q

Can clients infected with HIV transmit the virus to others during the asymptomatic stage, and what factors affect the likelihood of transmission?

A

Yes, clients infected with HIV can still transmit the virus to others during the asymptomatic stage, although the chance of transmission is generally lower because the viral load is typically lower during this stage.

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25
Q

What 5 symptoms are likely to occur as the CD4+ T cell count DECLINES in HIV patients?

A
  • persistent fever
  • frequent night sweats
  • chronic diarrhea
  • recurrent headaches
  • severe fatigue.
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26
Q

CD4+T cell count above ___ usually results in a “healthy” immune system

A

500

27
Q

What are 5 common opportunistic infections that are likely to occur when the CD4+ T cell count nears 200 or less?

know

A
  • Oropharyngeal candidiasis (Oral Thrush)
  • Shingles
  • Kaposi Sarcoma (cancer on lining of blood vessels/lymph nodes)
  • Oral Hairy Leukoplakia (side of tongue)
  • Persistent Vaginal Candidal Infections
28
Q

In addition to infections, what conditions are likely to occur when the CD4+ T cell count nears 200 or less?

A
  • Wasting syndrome: Loss of more than 10% of ideal body mass.
  • Cognitive changes / HIV Encephalopathy: Ranging from mild to severe, similar to dementia.
29
Q

AIDS describes a ___ of the HIV illness

A

stage

30
Q

What criteria would describe a patient who has progressed to AIDS?

A) The patient has a CD4+ T cell count above 200, without opportunistic infections, cancers, or wasting syndrome.

B) The patient has a CD4+ T cell count below 200, with opportunistic infections, cancers, or wasting syndrome.

C) The patient has frequent non-opportunistic infections and a CD4+ T cell count between 200-400.

D) The patient has a high viral load but does not meet the criteria for CD4+ T cell count or opportunistic infections.

A

B) The patient has a CD4+ T cell count below 200, with opportunistic infections, cancers, or wasting syndrome.

KNOW

31
Q

Infections that occur more often or are more severe in people with weakened immune systems than in people with healthy immune systems

A

Opportunistic infections (OIs)

32
Q

How do opportunistic infections in HIV-infected individuals differ from those in people with functioning immune systems?

A) They are less severe in HIV-infected individuals due to a stronger immune response.

B) They cause debilitating and life-threatening infections in HIV-infected individuals, whereas they usually do not cause severe illness in people with functioning immune systems.

C) They have no impact on the severity of illness in either group.

D) They are equally severe in both HIV-infected individuals and those with functioning immune systems.

A

B) They cause debilitating and life-threatening infections in HIV-infected individuals, whereas they usually do not cause severe illness in people with functioning immune systems.

33
Q

Transmission occurs primarily by one of three modes:

A
  • Sexual Contact
  • Direct Blood Contact
  • Mother-to-Child Transmission
34
Q

Which types of bodily fluids can transmit HIV, and why are they significant?

A

HIV can be transmitted through semen, vaginal secretions, and blood because these fluids contain lymphocytes (WBC) with the virus.

know these three

35
Q

Is HIV transmitted through blood transfusions?

A

No- UNLESS screening of blood wasn’t done properly.

36
Q

Can an HIV test detect the virus immediately after infection?

A

No. Not immediately.

37
Q

What is the “WINDOW PERIOD”

A
  • After someone first gets HIV, there’s a gap of a few weeks where tests can’t yet detect it.
  • This is because the body hasn’t had enough time to make enough antibodies to show up in a test.
  • The interval SEVERAL weeks after infection, but prior to seroconversion, is referred to as “The Window Period”
38
Q

What is SEROCONVERSION

A
  • This is the stage that happens several WEEKS after infection when the body starts making enough antibodies to be detected by tests.
  • Symptoms during this time, if they occur, are similar to the flu and include fever, rash, swollen lymph nodes, and aches.
  • Person feels sick bc body is fighting infection- NOT bc viral load is spiking
39
Q

What does HAART stand for and what does it involve?

A
  • Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy.
  • HAART is a strategy for using ARV drugs in combination to achieve the best possible outcome in managing HIV.
40
Q

Once initiated, HAART is continued ___.

A

indefinitely.

41
Q

What is the primary mechanism by which drug therapy helps manage HIV?

A
  • Drug therapy primarily helps manage HIV by decreasing viral REPLICATION.

know- missed on the test

42
Q

Proper drug use can reduce viral LOADS by ___%

A

90-99%

43
Q

Drugs will NOT block the transmission of HIV, instead ___.

A

they decrease viral LOAD which will lessen the chances that transmission would occur

44
Q

What lab test do we check to see if the MEDS ARE WORKING?

A

VIRAL LOAD

45
Q

ART stands for

A

Anti-Retroviral Drug Therapy

46
Q

Main ART therapy med used

A

Tenofovir, TDF

47
Q

5 Signs and symptoms of HIV drug therapy

A
  • Lipodystrophy-uneveness loss of body fat
  • Elevated Cholesterol levels
  • Mood changes, depression, anxiety
  • Elevated Blood Sugar and Diabetes
  • Kidney, Liver, Pancreas Damage

-among more

48
Q

“Wasting Syndrome”

A

Lipoatrophy

49
Q

causes abnormal fat loss or distribution in certain areas of your body

A

Lipodystrophy

50
Q
  • An well-known opportunistic infection in HIV pts- usually pts are diagnosed with HIV bc of this infx.
  • serious lung infection (pneumonia) that affects people with weakened immune systems.
A

Pneumocystis pneumonia (PCP)
(caused by bacteria: pneumocystis jirovecci)

51
Q

S/S of Pneumocystis pneumonia

A
  • fever
  • dyspnea
  • non-productive cough
52
Q

When conducting an HIV assessment, what should be the primary focus for healthcare providers?

A. Identifying individuals at high risk for HIV
B. Treating individuals with advanced HIV symptoms
C. Focusing on individuals with a history of cancer
D. Prioritizing individuals with no risk factors

A

A. Identifying individuals at HIGH risk for HIV

53
Q

What is PrEP?

A

(Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis)
* Its an ART regimen used as a PRE-EXPOSURE preventive treatment for individuals who are at HIGH RISK of contracting HIV.

54
Q

Who is a “high-risk” individual contracting HIV.

List 5

A
  • Gay men
  • Transgender women
  • Spouse with an HIV infected partner
  • Drug users
  • Possibly used for pregnant mothers

KNOW

55
Q

Which of the following medications is typically used in Pre-Exposure Prophylaxis (PrEP) for HIV prevention?

A) Lisinopril and Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Tenofovir and Emtricitabine
C) Metformin and Sitagliptin
D) Atorvastatin and Ezetimibe

A

B) Tenofovir and Emtricitabine

(brand name: Truvada or Descovy)

know

56
Q

How does PrEP work in the body?

A

It’s an non-strong ANTIVIRAL that stops HIV from taking hold and spreading throughout the body.

(doesnt cure)

57
Q

How long does PrEP take to become effective?

A

7-20 days

58
Q

What is PEP?

A

Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP)
* a treatment to stop a person becoming infected with HIV AFTER it’s gotten into their body- USED FOR EMERGENCY SITUATIONS, not regular use.

58
Q

When must Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) be started after a possible exposure to HIV to be effective?

A) Within 7 days
B) Within 48 hours
C) Within 72 hours
D) Within 5 days

A

C) Within 72 hours

58
Q

What is the typical duration of treatment when taking Post-Exposure Prophylaxis (PEP) for HIV prevention?

A) 10 days
B) 21 days
C) 28 days
D) 45 days

A

C) 28 days

59
Q

What percentage can proper HIV treatment (ART) reduce the risk of transmission from a mother to her newborn?

A) From 50% to 25%
B) From 25% to less than 2%
C) From 30% to 10%
D) From 25% to less than 5%

A

B) From 25% to less than 2%

60
Q

How does a nurse’s self-awareness of personal beliefs and values influence the care provided to individuals living with HIV?

A) It helps the nurse strictly adhere to clinical protocols
B) It ensures the nurse avoids any emotional connection with patients
C) It enables the nurse to deliver unbiased, empathetic care while maintaining ethical boundaries
D) It allows the nurse to adjust care plans based on their own personal opinions

A

C) It enables the nurse to deliver unbiased, empathetic care while maintaining ethical boundaries

61
Q

What kind of infection control is used for HIV patients?

A

STANDARD PRECAUTION
* hand hygiene
* use of mask, gloves, gown and goggles when applicable

Test 3 (7 decks)

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