HIV Flashcards

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1
Q

What are examples of human retroviruses?

Retriviral DNA exists in human genome as product of evolution. Does not produce infectious virus

A
Family - retrovirus
Sub-family - orthoretrovirinae
Genus - lentivirus
Species -
HIV1 
HIV2 - West Africa, less virulent

Family - retrovirus
Sub-family - orthoretrovirinae
Genus - deltavirus
Species - HTLV1/ HTLV2 - West Indies/ Japan.

Also known has tropical spastic paraparesis. T- cell leukaemia

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2
Q

What is structure of HIV virus

A

GP41/ GP120 envelope glycoproteins
Lipid mebrane - host derived
Matrix protein p17

Single stranded RNA
RT
Integrase
Virion core proteins - p7, p9, p 24

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3
Q

HIV nuclear material is two copies of positive sense SS RNA.

It codes for virion proteins/ regulatory proteins.

What virion proteins does it code for?

A

LTR

gag

pol

env

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4
Q

HIV nuclear material is two copies of positive sense SS RNA.

It codes for virion proteins/ regulatory proteins.

What regulatory proteins does it code for?

A

nef

rev

tat

vif

vpr

vpu

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5
Q

What do these HIV virion proteins code for?

LTR

gag

pol

env

A

LTR - long terminal repeat promotes transcription/ replication

gag - virion core proteins -

  • p7
  • p9
  • p17 - matrix
  • p24 - nucleocapsid

pol - RT, integrase, protease

env - gp160 glyocprotein which is cleaved into gp120 and gp41

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6
Q

gp 41 and gp 120 formed from env gene.

What are their roles?

A

gp 120 - attachment protein

gp 41 - fusion protein

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7
Q

What do these HIV regulatory proteins code for?

nef

rev

tat

A

nef - negative regulatory factor - important for virulence

rev - promote export viral RNA from nucleus

tat - transactivator protein regulates viral transcription

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8
Q

What do these HIV regulatory proteins code for?

vif

vpr

vpu

A

What do these HIV regulatory proteins code for?

vif - virion infectivity factor

vpr - weak transcriptional activator

vpu - for efficient budding

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9
Q

What is replication cycle of HIV?

A
Absorption of HIV gp120 onto CD4 cell
Fusion via GP41
Penetration
Uncoating
Reverse transcription of positive sense ssRNA into DNA
Integration into host DNA - now provirus

Transcription of viral mRNA and progeny RNA
Translation of viral proteins
Assembly of virions
Budding via envelope proteins

HIV also binds to dendritic cells/ macrophages, which transport to lymph nodes, which helps spread infection to other CD4 cells

Most CD4 cells die. Only few survive to continue HIV virion production

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10
Q

HIV-2 confined to West Africa, originally zoonosis from sooty mangabeys

HIV-1 has different groups, what are they?

A

During transmission from chimpanzees, groups evolved.

M - major. 90% of cases, worldwide distribution. Emerged between 1910-1930 in West Africa
N - new. West Africa. Very rare
O - outlier. West Africa
P - only one case ever

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11
Q

HIV1 group M (major), has further subtypes, based on geographical spread. What are they?

A

Subtype A: Central and East Africa, Eastern Europe

Subtype B: West and Central Europe, the Americas, Australia, South America, and several southeast Asian countries (Thailand, and Japan), as well as northern Africa and the Middle East. Most common in UK

Subtype C: Sub-Saharan Africa, India, and Brazil.

Subtype D: North Africa and the Middle East.

Subtype F: South and southeast Asia.

Subtype G: West and Central Africa.

Subtypes H, J, and K: Africa and the Middle East

CRF - circulating recombinant types, due to recombination between different subtypes

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12
Q

HIV virus uses gp120 to bind to CD4 receptor on which cell types?

A
T-helper cell
Monocyte
Dendritic cell
Langerhans cell
Microglia
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13
Q

HIV virus binds gp120 to CD4. What other receptors are required for entry?

A

chemokine co-receptor CCR5 absolutely required
CXCR4 co-receptor is also desired by virus

If CCR5 gene deletion, host can be resistant to HIV progression- elite controllers 0.3%.

Once infected Th rests in lymphoid tissue, it can continue to produce new virions. If Th cell becomes activated, cell will die.

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14
Q

What is immune response to HIV infection?

A

CD8 T cells which kill infected cells
B cells produce antibodies directed towards infected cells

CD4 Th cells directly killed by virus, undergo apoptosis, damaged by CD8/ B cells

As Th count decreases, immune response wanes, and HIV load rises

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15
Q

Why does having another STI increase risk of HIV transmission?

A

Other STIs cause genital ulcers/ discharge, which can provide route for HIV transmission

Uncircumcised males more likely to be affected

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16
Q

What are transmission routes of HIV?

A

Blood transfusion - haemophiliacs
IVDU/ tattoo/ accupuncture/ needlestick
Sex

Vertical - up to 50% of HIV mothers will pass on to children (if untreated). Avoid breast-feeding, perform C-section

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17
Q

What are initial symptoms of HIV infection?

A

fever
malaise
maculopapular rash
lymphadenopathy

Can invade CNS and cause self-limiting aseptic meningitis

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18
Q

After initial HIV exposure, what tests can be used to diagnose HIV, and when are they used in timeline?

Can also perform genome sequencing to assess antiretroviral drug resistance and tropism (CCR5/ CXCR4)

A

p24 antigen - 1-8 weeks after exposure, then levels will drop as Ab produced

HIV antibody - 4 weeks 95% will test positive. If negative, can check up to 12 weeks after exposure

Diagnosis is infants is difficult as passively acquired IgG will be detected up to 12 months after birth. Test infant at various intervals from 12-24 months

Tests available:
p24 antigen
HIV RNA
HIV proviral DNA - check mother will always remain positive
HIV antibody
Point-of-care tests - less sensitive/ specific

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19
Q

How is HIV viral load measured?

A

RT-PCR of HIV RNA

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20
Q

AIDS is when:

  • patient with HIV antibodies
  • develops opportunistic infections (usually CD4 <200)

What are viral opportunistic infectious?

A

CMV - retina, brain, GI

HSV - lungs, GI, CNS, skin

JC - brain PML

EBV - hairy leukoplakia, primary cerebral lymphoma

HHV8 - Kaposi sarcoma

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21
Q

AIDS is when:

  • patient with HIV antibodies
  • develops opportunistic infections (usually CD4 <200)

What are bacterial opportunistic infectious?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis - disseminated/ extrapulmonary

Mycobacterium avium

Salmonella dissemninated

Also higher risk of common bacterial pathogens - streptococcus/ haemophilus

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22
Q

AIDS is when:

  • patient with HIV antibodies
  • develops opportunistic infections (usually CD4 <200)

What are protozoal/ fungal opportunistic infectious?

A

Cryptococcus neofromans - CNS

Coccidioides

Histoplamosis

PCP

Toxoplasma

Cryptosporidium

Isospora

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23
Q

What are ways to reduce HIV spread?

Combatting HIV/ AIDS was 6th Millenium Development Goal

A

Change sexual behaviours - condoms

Pregnant women start ART after first trimester

Treat other STIs

Clean needles

Blood product screening

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24
Q

HIV transmission can be explained via R0 equation. What are factors in this?

R0 >1 epidemic spread can occur
R0 <1 infection will eliminate

A

R0 is proportional to C x beta x D

C - is the average rate of contact between susceptible and infected
individuals

beta - transmissibility - probability of HIV transmission per given exposure e.g anal intercourse has 1.65 % risk transmission

D - duration of infectious period

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25
Q

What are risk factors for more rapid progression of HIV?

A
Female
Older
Depression
Poor pre-morbid nutritional state
Certain HLA types
Co-infection HBV/HCV/ TB can alter immune system
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26
Q

WHO HIV staging is grouped into:

Primary HIV infection

Clinical stage 1 - asymptomatic

Clinical stage 2 - mild symptoms (CD4 <500)

Clinical stage 3 - moderate symptoms (CD4 200-500)

Clinical stage 4 - severe symptoms (CD4 <200)

On average, untreated it will take 8-10 years from HIV acquisition to AIDS. WHO staging does not use CD4 count

What symptoms might primary/ clinical stage 1 have?

A

Asymptomatic - time from acquisition of virus, to development of HIV antibody, HIV p24 antigen or HIV RNA

Viral illness - fever, malaise, sore throat, lymphadenopathy, maculopapular rash - approx 50% of patients

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27
Q

WHO HIV staging is grouped into:

Primary HIV infection

Clinical stage 1 - asymptomatic

Clinical stage 2 - mild symptoms

Clinical stage 3 - moderate symptoms

Clinical stage 4 - severe symptoms

What symptoms might primary/ clinical stage 2 have?

A
Moderate weight loss - <10% body
Recurrent URTI
VZV
Angular chellitis
Recurrent oral ulceration
Sebhorrhoeic dermatitis
Fungal nail infections
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28
Q

WHO HIV staging is grouped into:

Primary HIV infection

Clinical stage 1 - asymptomatic

Clinical stage 2 - mild symptoms

Clinical stage 3 - moderate symptoms

Clinical stage 4 - severe symptoms

What symptoms might primary/ clinical stage 3 have?

A

Unexplained weight loss >10% body
Chronic diarrhoea - two or more loose stools per day
Persistent oral candidiasis
Oral hairy leukoplakia
Pulmonary TB
Severe bacterial infections - pneumonia, meningitis

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29
Q

WHO HIV staging is grouped into:

Primary HIV infection

Clinical stage 1 - asymptomatic

Clinical stage 2 - mild symptoms

Clinical stage 3 - moderate symptoms

Clinical stage 4 - severe symptoms

What symptoms might primary/ clinical stage 4 have?

A
HIV wasting syndrome - >10% weight loss and diarrhoea
PCP
Recurrent severe bacterial pneumonia
Oesophageal candidiasis
Extrapulmonary TB
KS
CMV
Toxoplasmosis
HIV encephalopathy
Cryptococcus
Cryptosporidiosis
Isosporiasis
Coccidiomycosis
Histoplasmosis
Non-typhoidal salmoneall
Lymphoma - cerebral or B-cell non Hodgkin
Cervical carcinoma
HIV neuropathy
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30
Q

What are the UNAIDS 90-90-90 targets?

A

90% living with HIV, know their status
90% diagnosed with receive ART
90% on treatment will have suppressed viral loads

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31
Q

What is U=U in regards to HIV?

A

Undetectable viral load = transmissible

Data on 58 000 episodes of unprotected sex in HIV individuals, showed no transmission

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32
Q

Patient presents 8 weeks after unprotected sex, with fever, sore throat.

HIV p24 positive
HIV antibody negative

What steps should you take next

A

Diagnosis is primary HIV infection
Need to refer to HIV specialist and start ART within 2 weeks

Early ART is associated with better preservation of immune function, CD4 count, morbidity associated with high viraemia, and reduced risk of transmission. It may also prevent HIV developing a reservoir in deep lymph nodes.

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33
Q

If initial HIV test positive, what are next steps labs take to confirm this?

A

Initial diagnosis on Architect

Use same sample to confirm on VIDAS
New sample to confirm on Archiect
Geenius to check HIV1/HIV2 as different treatment
Viral load by PCR
Whole genome sequencing for resistance pattern

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34
Q

After initial HIV diagnosis, baseline laboratory tests are required.

HIV related/ other infectious/ metabolic

What are HIV related tests?

A

Confirm HIV1/HIV2
Viral load
Genotypic resistance testing
CD4 T cell count

Viral tropism test is sometimes performed, if considering CCR5 inhibitor as first line therapy

If PCP - consider G6PD if needing dapsone/co-trimxoazole/primaquine as contraindicated otherwise. African/ mediterranean/ Chinese

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35
Q

After initial HIV diagnosis, baseline laboratory tests are required.

HIV related/ other infectious/ metabolic

What are other infectious agents to test for?

viral/ bacterial/ protozoal

A

Viral
HAV IgG
HBV surface antigen/ core antibody
HCV IgG

EBV/ CMV - serology initially, but can be negative in HIV. Check viral load buy PCR

Measles IgG - if no history of vaccine/ infection
Varicella IgG - if no history of vaccine/ infection
Rubella IgG - in women of child-bearing age

Note - vaccine preventable diseases -
HAV/ HBV/ Measles/ varicella/ rubella

Bacteria
Chlamydia NAAT
Gonorrhoea NAAT
Syphilis serology

IGRA
Sputum for AAFB - BAL

Protozoa/ fungal
CrAg
Toxoplasmosis
Strongyloides
Giardia
Beta-d-glucan/ galactomannan

Must screen partner/ children

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36
Q

After initial HIV diagnosis, baseline laboratory tests are required.

HIV related/ other infectious/ metabolic

What metabolic tests are required?

A
FBC
U+Es
LFTs
Bone
Lipids
Glucose

Urinalysis
Urine PCR - if proteinuria
Pregnancy test

HLA-B*57:01 - if abacavir being considered

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37
Q

When do perform HIV resistance testing?

A

At baseline

At commencement of ART if there is a delay

Suboptimal viral load response to therapy - <1 log10 drop in 4 weeks

Virological failure - viral load >200 copies/ml on two samples while on ART. Always perform whilst on ART - as otherwise resistant strain will become smaller part of opulation

On CSF samples if CSF viral load detectable on therapy

Pregnancy - if detectable viral load at week 36 of pregnancy

If on CCR5 antagnoist, and has virological failure, check tropism to ensure no tropism switch

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38
Q

Pregnant women with HIV, starting ART.

When should repeat viral load be measured?

A
Baseline
2-4 weeks after starting ART (first trimester)
Second trimester
36 weeks (third trimester)
Time of delivery
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39
Q

Children born to HIV infected mothers.

When should HIV testing be performed?

A

HIV proviral DNA or RNA PCR -
- Within 48 hours of birth

  • 6 weeks of age - after completing 4 weeks anti-retroviral prophylaxis
  • 12 weeks of age - two months after completing prophylaxis
  • Monthly if breastfeeding is taking place, to detect late transmission

HIV antibody testing -

  • 18 months - following loss of maternal antibodies at this time
  • 6 weeks after stopping breastfeeding
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40
Q

What are elite controllers?

What are negatives to this?

A

Have HIV antibodies, but no HIV RNA in blood, and normal CD4 count.

Usually lacking CCR5 gene, so HIV cannot bind

Studies show they are in low grade inflammatory state, and may have more issues with illness compared to those on ART

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41
Q

When must HIV post-exposure prophylaxis be taken?

A

Within 72 hours of exposure

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42
Q

Patient commenced on ART, 4 weeks later viral load has not dropped by 1log10. Resistance testing initially negative

What is the next step?

A

Check medication compliance/ drug side effects

Re-check HIV resistance testing. Testing can detect resistant species if make up 25% of virus population. So if <25% of population, will not be detected. Once ART given, these resistant strains can emerge, and become dominant population, which can be detected.

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43
Q

When checking CD4 count and viral load, how often do you need to check CD4 count?

A

If patient has CD4 count >350, on two occasions, with low viral load, then no longer need to check. As we can presume CD4 will be higher than this.

Re-check if new symptoms, or signs of treatment failure.

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44
Q

When should ART be initiated?

A

Within two weeks from diagnosis, regardless of CD4 count

Hold if TB meningitis

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45
Q

What classes of ART exist?

A

NRTI - nucleoside/ nucleotide reverse transcriptase inhibitor

NNRTI - non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor

Protease inhibitor

Fusion inhibitor

INSTI - integrase strand transfer inhibitors

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46
Q

How do NRTIs work?

A

Act as false nucleotides (ATCG)

RT attempts to convert viral RNA into DNA, but NRTI inserts and causes chain termination

47
Q

What are examples of NRTIs?

A
Abacavir (ABC)
Emtricitabine (FTC)
Lamivudine (3TC)
Stavudine (d4T)
Tenofovir (TDF)
Zidovudine (ZDV) - sometimes known as AZT
48
Q

How do NNRTIs work?

A

Non-competitive inhibitors of RT, by binding to allosteric site on enzyme

HIV-2 naturally resistant

49
Q

What are examples of NNRTIs?

A

Efavirenz (EFZ)
Nevirapine (NVP)
Rilpivirine (RPV)

50
Q

How do protease inhibitors work?

A

Inhibit protease enzyme preventing cleavage of essential proteins (gag proteins) necessary for viral maturation and budding from cell membrane

51
Q

What are examples of protease inhibitors?

A

Atazanavir (ATZ)
Darunavir (DRV)
Lopinavir (LPVr)

All are prescribed with ritonavir which boosts action

52
Q

How do fusion inhibitors work?

What is an examples of this?

  • CCR5 inhibitor
  • fusion inhibitor
A

CCR5 inhibitor -Interfere with binding/ fusion of virus to cell membrane through co-receptor CCR5. Virus can switch from CCR5 to CXCR4 - so tropism assay is required prior to starting this class

-Maraviroc (MVC)

Fusion inhibitor - binds to GP41 on CD4, preventing HIV binding
- Enfuvirtide (ENF, T-20)

53
Q

How do INSTI - integrase strand transfer inhibitors work?

A

Inhibit viral enzyme integrase, which is essential for integration of viral DNA into host cell DNA

54
Q

What are examples of INSTIs?

A

Dolutegravir (DAG)
Raltegravir (RAL)
Elvitegravir (EVG) + cobicistat (COBI)

cobicistat is a PK (pharmacokinetic enhancer), which blocks breakdown of other drug

55
Q

HAART is usually made of 3 drugs.

Two NRTIs + third drug (NNRTI/ PI/ INSTI)

2xNRTIs are normally fixed drug combinations.

What drugs make up these combinations -

Truvada
Descovy
Kivexa
Combivir

A

Truvada - tenofovir disoproxil fumarate (TDF) + emtricitabine

Descovy - tenofovir alafenamide (TAF) + emtricitabine

Kivexa - abacavir + lamivudine. Recommended only if viral load < 100 000, or any level if used with dolutegravir

Combivir - Zidovudine + lamivudine

56
Q

When is tenofovir contraindicated?

When is abacavir contraindicated?

When is efavirenz contraindicated?

A

If CrCl <70ml/min

If HLA-B*57:01 positive

Mental health disorder

57
Q

What are examples of third drug added to 2xNRTIs backbone for HAART?

NNRTI

A

NNRTI -
Nevirapine
Efavirenz
Rilpivirine - only if viral load <100 000

58
Q

What are examples of third drug added to 2xNNRTIs backbone for HAART?

PI

A
PI - 
atazanavir/ ritonavir
atazanavir/ cobicistat
darunavir/ ritonavir
darunavir/ cobicistat

PI interact with PPIs. So switch omeprazole to ranitidine

59
Q

What are examples of third drug added to 2xNNRTIs backbone for HAART?

INT

A

INSTI -
Dolutegravir
Raltegravir
Elvitegravir + cobicistat

60
Q

When starting ART, when do blood tests need to be monitored?

A

2 weeks post ART - metabolic tests to ensure no reaction

4 weeks post ART - viral load/ CD4 - expect two-log VL drop

6 months - VL should be undetectable

Once established on ART - check VL every 6 months, and CD4 once a year

61
Q

Patient has HIV and HBV.

What are treatment options?

A

Tenofovir + emtricitabine is recommended NRTI backbone

62
Q

Patient has HIV and HCV

What are treatment options?

A

ART

If CD4 count ok, treat HCV first, then HIV, to reduce drug-drug interactions

63
Q

Pregnant women, when should be commenced on ART?

If presenting late, treatment should be started immediately. What are options?

A

Prior to 24 weeks

Combination -
Zidovudine/ lamivudine
Raltegravir
Nevirapine - stat dose

64
Q

Why do ART drugs affect liver function/ have multiple itneractions?

A

All metabolised via cytochrome p450 pathway

65
Q

If patient on NRTI + NNRTI, and is failing, what is next step?

A

Switch to NRTI + PI

66
Q

Patient with TB and HIV. After waiting 2 weeks, what drugs should be started?

A

RIPE for TB (not need to switch to rifabutin)

ART -
abacavir + lamviduine + dolutegravir

67
Q

What is given to protect against opportunistic infections PCP in HIV?

A

Co-trimoxazole 480mg OD
Co-trimoxazole 960mg M/W/F
Dapsone
Pentamidine nebuliser

Co-trimoxazole is preferred, as also protects against diarrhoeal disease, and some effect against toxoplasma

Prophylaxis can be stopped if CD4 >200 for 3 months, with undetectable viral load

68
Q

What advice is given to avoid toxoplasmosis?

If CD4 <50, how often retinal screening for CMV?

A

Avoid raw meat/ cat litter

Every 3 months

69
Q

PCP can present with SOB, fever, fatigue. SOB worsens quickly on exertion - can check patients saturations.

Normal CXR does not exclude PCP.

PaO2 <9.3 or Sp02 <92% - severe infection

How to diagnose PCP?

A

Sputum analysis - either induced sputum/ BAL.
Grocott methenamine silver stain.

PCP stays in samples up to 10 days after starting treatment, so do not delay treatment awaiting diagnosis

70
Q

What is first line treatment of PCP?

A

Co-trimoxazole for 21 days
Oral if mild
IV if severe

Alternatives:
Atovaquone
Clindamicin + primaquine
Pentamadine IV

Steroids if severe. Prevents IRIS to dead fungi.
Prendisolone 40mg BD 5 days
Prednisolone 40mg OD 5 days
Prednisolone 20mg OD for next 11 days

Can take 7 days before seeing response

71
Q

When is second line PCP treatment required?

What is the treatment?

A

Clinical failure to first line - no improvement after 5 days (remember to consider alternative diagnosis)
Sulpha allergy
Patient toxicity

Clindamicin/ primaquine
Pentamidine IV
Trimethoprim/ dapsone
Atovaquone

72
Q

What is treatment for toxoplasmosis?

Often have ring-enhancing lesion on CTB
Retinal exam shows retinitis

A

Sulphadizine + pyrimethamine
Give with folinic acid

6 weeks treatment, then lower dose long term prophylaxis

Anti-epileptics may be required

Second line -
clindamicin + pyrimethamine
co-trimxazole

73
Q

What are side effects of sulphadiazine used to treat toxoplasmosis?

A

Cause crystal uropathy and renal dysfunction - need to be hydrated

74
Q

Cryptococcal meningitis causes raised ICP by preventing CSF reabsorption.

When performing LP, how much fluid is removed?

A

Aim closing pressure <20cm H2O

Or if very high, aim for half the pressure. e.g 50cm H2O aim 25cm H2O

Daily LP may be required. If persistingly high pressure, or hydrocephalus, will need shunt/drain

ventriculo-peritoneal shunt (if hydrocephalus)
lumbar-periotenal shunt
external lumbar drainage

75
Q

How to diagnose cryptococcal infection?

A

Serum CrAg
CSF CrAg
India ink staining

76
Q

What is treatment for cryptococcal infection?

A

Liposomal amphotericin + flucytosine for 2 weeks, then
High dose fluconazole 10 weeks
Normal dose fluconazole long term prophylaxis

77
Q

Which organs can CMV affect?

A

Retina - 75% cases
Lungs
GI
CNS

78
Q

What eye symptoms does CMV cause?

How does it appear on fundoscopy?

A

Reduced visual acuity, can lead to blindness

Necrotising retinitis - pizza pie appearance

79
Q

How to diagnose CMV infection?

A

Fundal exam

CMV DNA titre does not necessarily indicate organ disease, if no symptoms. But DNA levels useful for monitoring response to treatment.

80
Q

What are treatment options for CMV infection?

A

oral valganciclovir 900mg BD for 2-4 weeks
900mg maintenance until CD4 >100, and VL <40

IV options -
ganciclovir
foscarnet
cidofovir

Intravitreal anti-CMV treatment injections can be used

81
Q

Mycobacterium avium complex is a group of common environmental organisms (mycobacterium avium and mycobacterium intracellularae). Cannot be spread person-person. Found in water, soil, dust

Causes non-specific symptoms such as night sweats, fever, diarrhoea. Typically patiets CD4< 50.

How is MAC diagnosed?

A

Sputum culture

98% diagnosed if two sets of blood cultures taken for mycobacterium culture

82
Q

What is treatment for MAC?

A

Clarithromycin + ethambutol
Rifabutin is added in severe cases

Treat until at least symptom free for 3 months, and CD4 >100

May require lifelong treatment

83
Q

What are patterns of disease causes by MAC?

A

Pulmonary MAC - usually underlying lung disease

Disseminated MAC - AIDS patient, any organ

Lymphadenitis MAC - children with immunodeficiency causes swelling of lymph nodes

84
Q

What is treatment for -

oral candidiasis

genital candidiasis

oesophageal candidiasis

candidaemia

A

oral candidiasis - nystatin

genital candidiasis - clotrimazole

oesophageal candidiasis - oral fluconazole

candidaemia - IV fluconazole

Candida albicans is most common fungus. Other species such as C krusei or C glabrata are resistant to fluconazole, and need itraconazole

85
Q

Stage 4 AIDS - what are causes of diarrhoeal disease?

Lymphoid tissue in gut has high levels of CD4 lymphocytes - so high risk GI disease

A

Cryptosporidia - nitazoxanide/ paromomycin

Cyclospora - co-trimoxazole

Isospora belli – co-trimoxazole

Microsporidia – albendazole

ART side effects - particularly protease inhibitors

86
Q

Stage 4 AIDS - what are empirical treatments for diarrhoeal disease?

A

Cryptosporidia - nitazoxanide/ paromomycin

Cyclospora - co-trimoxazole

Isospora belli – co-trimoxazole

Microsporidia – albendazole

Starting ART is treatment for all diarrhoeal disease

87
Q

What are general side effects of NRTIs?

A

In general -

anaemia, lipodystrophy, lactic acidosis, liver cirrhosis/ hepatitis, pancreatitis, peripheral neuropathy

88
Q

What are side effects of these NRTIs?

Lamivudine

Stavudine

Tenofovir

Zidovudine

A

Lamivudine - well tolerated

Stavudine - no longer used as multiple side effects

Tenofovir - renal disease, osteoporosis

Zidovudine - anaemia, lipodystrophy, lactic acidosis, liver cirrhosis/ hepatitis, pancreatitis, peripheral neuropathy

89
Q

What are general side effects of NNRTI?

A
Nausea
Diarrhoea
Hepatotoxicity
Fever
Rash
90
Q

What are side effects of these NNRTIs?

Efavirenz

Nevirapine

A

Efavirenz (EFV) – psychiatric symptoms

Nevirapine (NVP) – rash – SJS/ TEN (CD4 >250 count puts more at risk)

91
Q

What are side effects of protease inhibitors?

A

diarrhoea
diabetes
lipodystrophy
hepatitis

92
Q

After starting ART, what other drugs should be commenced?

A

IPT - isoniazid preventative therapy 6 months, if no active TB

Co-trimoxazole - until CD4 count improved

93
Q

2x NRTI combinations - what drugs are in these combinations?

Combivir

Kivexa

Truvada

A

Combivir - zidovudine/ lamivudine

Kivexa - abacavir/ lamivudine

Truvada - tenofovir/ emtricitabine

94
Q

2x NRTI and 1x NNRTI come as combination drugs. What drugs are in these combinations?

Trioday

Viraday

A

Trioday - tenofovir/ lamivudine/ efavirenz

Viraday - tenofovir/ emtricitabine/ efavirenz

95
Q

If on NRTIx2/ NNRTI, and have virological failure, what steps would you take?

A

Change one of the NRTI

Switch NNRTI to PI

96
Q

Why does HIV resistance emerge?

A

Replicates 1 billion times/day. Reverse transcription is error prone. Selective pressure – rapid emergence of resistance

Can be infected with resistant strain, but usually resistant virus is not as “fit” as wild virus

97
Q

Which ART drugs are at high risk of having resistance emerge?

A

NRTI - emtricitabine/ lamivudine/ tenofovir/ zidovudine

NNRTI - efavirenz/ nevirapine

98
Q

Which ART drugs do not show much resistance?

A

Protease inhibitors

99
Q

How does HIV evade immune system?

A

Hide - in sanctuary sites (Brain/ testes)

Run - high levels virus turnover, high mutation rate

100
Q

What is pathogenesis of IRIS in TB for example?

A

Low CD4 count - macrophages contain TB, but cannot be fully activated

CD4 count increases due to ART

IFN-gamma and other cytokines stimulate macrophages

Macrophages produce overwhelming cytokine response - TNFalpha, IFNgamma, IL6

Excessive inflammation causes tissue destruction

101
Q

HIV most important risk factor for reactivation of TB.

New diagnosis HIV, how should you screen patient?

A
  1. Check for active symptoms - then CXR if suspicious of active pulmonary TB
  2. If no symptoms symptoms - IGRA.

IGRA positive - CXR check for active TB
IGRA negative - give patient 6 months isoniazid prophylaxis

Active - give RIPE
Latent - 6 months isoniazid prophylaxis

102
Q

Why are sputum samples less reliable in advanced HIV?

Why is IGRA less reliable in advanced HIV?

A

Reduction in smear positive cases, as no immune response/ cavitation. Use Genexpert

HIV may give false negative IGRA test as cannot produce antibodies

103
Q

Rifampicin is potent enzyme inducer, used in TB treatment

How does this affect ART?

  • No interaction between rifampicin and NRTI
  • NNRTI
A

Efavirenz (nNRTI) – levels only reduced slightly, does not need dose adjustment

Nevirapine (nNRTI) – rifampicin reduces levels greatly. Give higher dose of nevirapine – but risk of hepatotoxicity. Only use if have to - LMIC

104
Q

Rifampicin is potent enzyme inducer, used in TB treatment

How does this affect ART?

  • PI
  • Integrase inhibitor
A

Lopinavir/ atazanavir (protease inhibitor) – reduces levels greatly. Severe hepatotoxicity, can only give ritonavir. Switch rifampicin to rifabutin (if need to be on protease inhibitor)

Raltegravir/ dolutegravir (integrase inhibitor) – reduces levels greatly. Double the dose

105
Q

What are the 5Cs of HIV testing?

A
consent
confidentiality
counselling
correct results
connection to services
106
Q

Neurological disease can occur in HIV due to infections.

What are other causes of non-infectious neurological disease?

A

Stroke - 5x more likely in HIV

HIV associated neurocognitive disorder (HAND) – neuronal damage due to CNS inflammation (IRIS/ ARVs/ HIV replication CNS), direct neurotoxic effect of HIV

107
Q

What drug is used for pre-exposure prophylaxis?

When is is taken?

A

Truvada - tenofovir/ emtricitabine
Descovy - tenofovir/ emtrictabine
70-99% effective

Every day dosing

or

Event based dosing (EBD)
take 2 pills 2 – 24 hours before sex
take 1 pill 24 hours later
take 1 more pill 24 hours after that

or

Holiday PrEP
7 days daily dosing before the period
7 days daily dosing during the period (or for as long as the specific period lasts)
7 days daily dosing after the period.

108
Q

What are downsides to pre-exposure prophylaxis?

A

Increased risky sexual behaviour
Does not protect from other STIs
Need HIV test before treatment, and every 3 months

109
Q

What drugs are included in post-exposure prophylaxis?

Must take within 72 hours
Course lasts 28 days

Re-test for HIV at 3 months

A

Truvada + Raltegravir

110
Q

Vertical transmission - approx 30% transmission risk in pregnancy, 20% transmission risk breast feeding

What are risk factors for increasing transmission?

A

High viral load
Maternal malnutrition
Placental infection
STI

Premature birth
Low birth weight

Longer breast feeding
Breast abscess/ mastitis

111
Q

How are these ART drugs affected in pregnancy?

NRTI

NNRTI

Integrases

Protease inhibitors

A

NRTIs/ NNRTIs - dose normal in pregnancy

Pregancny - on antacids/ iron replacement - integrases don’t work as bind to metals. Normal dose in pregnancy

Protease inhibitors effect reduced in pregnancy

112
Q

Why do HIV infected children progress rapidly to AIDS?

A

Immature T cells, so cannot suppress viral load

113
Q

How do HIV infected children present?

A

Malnutrition/ stunted growth
Oral thrush
Severe infection - pneumonia

114
Q

Which vaccines to avoid in HIV?

Vacccines are less effective in HIV due to weakned immune response

A
BCG
Measles/ Mumps/ Rubella
Rotavirus
Typhoid
Varicella
Yellow fever

Any live attenuated vaccine