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Histology > histo exam 3 > Flashcards

histo exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the area called that is enclosed between the lips and teeth?

A

vestibule

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2
Q

what is the transitional zone between external haired skin and internal oral mucosa called?

A

vermillion border

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3
Q

color of oral cavity is derived from highly vascular _______ and thin overlying _______ epidermis

A
  • dermis
  • keratinized
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4
Q

lips lack ______ and ______ glands

A

sweat and sebaceous glands

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5
Q

the oral cavity is important in what three functions regarding food?

A
  • ingestion
  • fragmentation
  • moistening of food
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6
Q

what term is used to describe the cutting, chewing, and grinding of food by occlusal surfaces of teeth?

A

mastication

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7
Q

what type of mucosa is non-keratinized and found on inner cheeks, floor of mouth, inferior surface of tongue, and soft palate?

A

lining mucosa

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8
Q

what layer of the epidermis does lining mucosa lack?

A

stratum corneum

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9
Q

what oral mucosa is present in high areas of abrasion (gingiva and hard palate)?

A

masticatory mucosa

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10
Q

is masticatory mucosa keratinized or non-keratinized?

A

keratinized or parakeratinized

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11
Q

what oral mucosa is restricted to the dorsal surface of tongue and is keratinized?

A

specialized mucosa

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12
Q

what type of oral mucosa is specialized for manipulation of food and sensation of taste?

A

specialized mucosa

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13
Q

what cranial nerves is the tongue innervated by?

A
  • V (general sensation anterior to sulcus terminalis)
  • VII (taste)
  • IX (general sensation and tase posterior)
  • X (taste, motor?)
  • XII (motor)
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14
Q

what is the thin band of connective tissue called that anchors the tongue to the floor of the mouth?

A

frenulum

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15
Q

where is the anterior 2/3 of tongue derived from?

A

ectoderm

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16
Q

where is the posterior 1/3 of tongue derived from?

A

pharynx (mesoderm)

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17
Q

what is the groove of the tongue called that separates the anterior and posterior parts of the tongue?

A

sulcus terminalis

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18
Q

what type of lingual papillae are most numerous, keratinized, short bristled, distributed in parallel rows, and lacks taste buds?

A

filiform papillae

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19
Q

what type of lingual papillae are mushroom shaped, scattered among filiform papillae and contain taste buds located on dorsal surface?

A

fungiform papillae

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20
Q

what type of lingual papillae are located in furrows/ ridges on lateral portion of tongue and are associated with von ebner’s glands at base of papillae?

A

foliate papillae

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21
Q

what type of lingual papillae are located anterior to the sulcus terminalis and surrounded by moat-like sulcus that has large numbers of taste buds (also associated with on ebner’s glands)?

A

circumvallate papillae

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22
Q

where are taste buds located on tongue in humans?

A

papillae of tongue
NOTE - also found scattered over palate, pharynx, and epiglottis

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23
Q

what components make up taste buds?

A

taste cells containing taste hairs

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24
Q

what type of nerve endings are taste cells associated with?

A

myelinated nerve endings

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25
Q

what cranial nerves innervate taste buds?

A
  • VII
  • IX
  • X
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26
Q

what are the four basic tastes that we have as humans?

A
  • sweet, sour, bitter, and salty
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27
Q

each taste cell contains receptors for only ______ taste, but taste buds contain a _______ of taste cells

A
  • one taste
  • mixture of taste cells
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28
Q

where are bitter taste receptors concentrated at?

A

circumvallate papillae

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29
Q

savory taste sensation detects certain amino acids such as ________ and ________

A

glutamate and aspartate

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30
Q

what is the term used to describe the decreased ability to detect taste?

A

hypogeusia

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31
Q

type I familial dysautonomia is the total absence of ______ _______

A

taste buds

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32
Q

what is the term used to describe the lingual, palatine, and pharyngeal tonsils?

A

Waldeyer’s ring

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33
Q

what is the term used to describe the extension of posterior free margin of soft palate that helps to prevent food from entering the nasal cavity during swallowing?

A

uvula

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34
Q

what type of salivary gland can be found on cheeks and is almost completely serous?

A

parotid

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35
Q

what type of salivary gland is located below the tongue and is mostly mucous?

A

sublingual

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36
Q

what type of salivary gland is located inferior and medial to ramus of mandible and is considered a mixed gland?

A

submandibular

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37
Q

what type of cells surround acini and contract to aid in secretion of saliva into ducts?

A

myoepitheial cells

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38
Q

what are intercalated ducts ducts lined by and what do they secrete/ absorb?

A
  • lined by simple cuboidal epithelium
  • secrete HCO3
  • resorb Cl
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39
Q

what are striated ducts lined by and what do they secrete/ absorb?

A
  • lined by simple cuboidal to columnar epithelium
  • secrete K
  • resorb Na
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40
Q

what type of stimulation inhibits aqueous secretion and results in thick, viscous, rich in protein mucus?

A

sympathetic

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41
Q

what type of stimulation results in copious, watery saliva?

A

parasympathetic stimulation

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42
Q

proteins in saliva cover teeth with _______ pellicle

A

acquired pellicle
NOTE - contains antibodies that prevent tooth decay

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43
Q

what are the 6 functions of saliva?

A
  • moistens oral mucosa and dry food
  • provides carrier medium for sense of taste
  • buffering via high bicarbonate content
  • digestion of carbohydrates via amylase
  • immunologic function - secretion of IgA
  • control of bacterial flora
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44
Q

where is the tooth root located?

A

in alveolus (tooth socket) within alveolar ridge (jaw)

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45
Q

what is the portion of the tooth that projects into the oral cavity called?

A

crown

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46
Q

what substance is highly mineralized and covers the crown?

A

enamel

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47
Q

what is the main component in enamel?

A

hydroxyapatite

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48
Q

enamel is _______ in origin

A

ectodermal

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49
Q

what is enamel secreted by?

A

ameloblasts of enamel organ

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50
Q

apical, secretory end of ameloblast forms ________ process

A

Tome’s process

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51
Q

enamel rods/ prisms are separated by less mineralized ___________ material

A

interprismatic material

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52
Q

enamel rods extend from ameloblasts at enamel surface into ________________ junction

A

dentino-enamel junction

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53
Q

dentin is ________ in origin?

A

mesodermal

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54
Q

what is dentin secreted by?

A

odontoblasts of dental papilla
NOTE - secreted as pre-dentine

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55
Q

dentin contains what type of collagen?

A

type I collagen

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56
Q

dentin is arranged in dentin ________ radiating from ______ _______

A
  • dentin tubules
  • pulp cavity
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57
Q

what area within the central part of the tooth contains sensory nerves and blood vessels?

A

pulp cavity

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58
Q

dental pulp is ________ in origin

A

mesodermal

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59
Q

the dental pulp is supplied by capillaries from arterioles running within the ________ ligament

A

periodontal ligament

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60
Q

what substance covers the tooth root?

A

cementum

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61
Q

what is the name of the dense fibers that make up the periodontal ligament?

A

sharpey’s fibers

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62
Q

the periodontal ligament allows slight movement of tooth during __________

A

mastication

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63
Q

what type of gingiva covers the upper alveolar bone?

A

attached gingiva

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64
Q

what type of gingiva forms cuff around neck of tooth?

A

free gingiva

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65
Q

what is the space called between the free gingiva and crown of a tooth?

A

gingival sulcus

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66
Q

breach of the _________ epithelium by bacteria results in periodontal disease

A

crevicular epithelium

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67
Q

what are the tissues that surround and support the tooth termed?

A

periodontium

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68
Q

what 4 components make up the periodontium

A
  • epithelium
  • cementum
  • periodontal ligament
  • alveolar bone
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69
Q

what are the two opposing layers that are involved in tooth formation?

A
  • ameloblasts of enamel organ
  • odontoblasts of dental papilla
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70
Q

cells of enamel organ progressively differentiate into _________ reticulum

A

stellate reticulum

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71
Q

what is the term used to describe the formation of enamel?

A

amelogenesis

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72
Q

what is the term used to describe the formation of dentin?

A

dentinogenesis

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73
Q

development of ameloblasts induces differentiation of odontoblasts, but calcification of dentin induces deposition of ______

A

enamel

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74
Q

tooth formation is initiated by deposition of organic _______ by odontoblasts

A

pre-dentin

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75
Q

calcification of dentin secondarily induces ______ production by ameloblasts

A

enamel

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76
Q

what occurs to enamel organ and ameloblasts at time of tooth eruption?

A

enamel organ and ameloblasts degenerate

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77
Q

dental papilla shrinks to form the _______ ______ which is surrounded by dentin

A

dental pulp

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78
Q

what determines the 3D shape of tooth crown?

A

overall shape of enamel organ

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79
Q

what is the term for the outer rim of enamel organ?

A

epithelial sheath of hertwig

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80
Q

surrounding mesenchyme of the tooth forms the _______ ______ which later forms the periodontal ligament

A

dental follicle

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81
Q

what does tooth development begin in fetal development?

A

6th week

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82
Q

what does tooth eruption occur in children?

A

6-30 months after birth

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83
Q

how many deciduous teeth are present in primary dentition?

A

20 teeth

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84
Q

when are deciduous teeth replaced by permanent dentition?

A

6-12 years of age

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85
Q

what is the dental formula for primary dentition?

A

2I, 1C, 2P /quadrant

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86
Q

what drug that be administered during development of permanent dentition results in yellow discoloration of teeth?

A

tetracycline

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87
Q

how many teeth are there generally in the permanent dentition?

A

32 teeth

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88
Q

what is the dental formula for permanent dentition?

A

1 2/2, C 1/1, P 2/2, M3/3

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89
Q

what teeth are modified for cutting and biting?

A

incisors

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90
Q

what teeth are used for puncturing and holding?

A

canines

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91
Q

what teeth are generally used for grinding?

A

premolars and molars

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92
Q

what is the term used to describe the raised points on occlusal surfaces of molars and premolars?

A

cusps

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93
Q

what is the flattened posterior surface of lower molars known as?

A

talonid

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94
Q

what results when weak acids in food/ drink erode enamel?

A

dental caries

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95
Q

what substance helps to harden enamel and kill bacteria?

A

fluoride

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96
Q

if caries extend into dentin or pulp cavity, can lead to death of tooth and require what procedure?

A

root canal

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97
Q

what disease is caused by accumulation of calcified food and bacterial debris in the gingival sulcus which results in inflammation and destruction of periodontal ligament?

A

periodontal disease

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98
Q

what is the term used to describe inflammation of the gums?

A

gingivitis

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99
Q

what is the term used to describe inflammation of the periodontal ligament?

A

periodontitis

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100
Q

what are the 5 stages of food breakdown?

A
  • ingestion
  • fragmentation
  • digestion
  • absorption
  • elimination
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101
Q

where does ingestion occur?

A

oral cavity

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102
Q

fragmentation results in _____ formation

A

bolus

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103
Q

what is the term used to describe contractions of smooth muscle within the alimentary canal?

A

peristalsis
NOTE - under autonomic control

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104
Q

emulsification of fat occurs in ________ via pancreatic and biliary secretions

A

duodenum

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105
Q

jejunum and ileum are the primary areas for ________ of nutrients

A

absorption

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106
Q

where does resorption of water and elimination of waste take place in alimentary canal?

A

colon

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107
Q

the liver, pancreas, and intestional glands are considered embryological outgrowths of the ______ tract

A

GI tract

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108
Q

what are the 4 layers of the GI tract?

A
  • mucosa
  • submucosa
  • muscularis externa
  • adventitia
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109
Q

what are the 3 functions of the mucosa of GI tract?

A
  • protection
  • secretion
  • absorption
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110
Q

what are the 3 subdivisions of the mucosa of GI tract?

A
  • epithelium
  • lamina propria
  • muscularis mucosae
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111
Q

what subdivision of the mucosa of GI tract has secretory and absorptive functions?

A

epithelium

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112
Q

what subdivision of the mucosa of GI tract is underlying connective tissue and contains lymphoid nodules , glands, blood vessels, and lymphatics?

A

lamina propria

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113
Q

what subdivision of the mucosa of GI tract is a thin layer of smooth muscle and functions as a boundary between mucosa and submucosa?

A

muscularis mucosae

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114
Q

what type of connective tissue can the submucosa be characterized as?

A

loose to dense irregular connective tissue

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115
Q

which direction do the inner and outer muscle layers of the muscularis externa run?

A
  • inner = circular
  • outer = longitudinal
    NOTE - orientated at right angles to one another
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116
Q

what characteristic of the gut allowed for local contractions and mixing of food (in both the proximal and distal direction)?

A

segmentation

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117
Q

what action of the gut propels food distally only

A

peristalsis

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118
Q

what type of connective tissue can the adventitia be characterized as?

A

loose connective tissue later

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119
Q

within the abdominal cavity, the adventitia is referred to as _______

A

serosa (visceral peritoneum)

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120
Q

within the gut, parasympathetic stimulation is ________ and sympathetic stimulation is _________

A
  • excitatory
  • inhibitory
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121
Q

where do parasympathetic motor neurons synapse in ganglia located at?

A

ganglia located near effector organ (within wall of gut)

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122
Q

what is the term used to describe clusters of parasympathetic ganglia within submucosa?

A

meissner’s plexus

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123
Q

what is the term used to describe the clusters of parasympathetic ganglia located within inner and outer muscle layers?

A

myenteric or auerbach’s plexus

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124
Q

what type of epithelium is the esophagus lined by?

A

stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium

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125
Q

what types of muscle are present within the upper, middle, and lower thirds of the esophagus?

A
  • upper third - skeletal muscle
  • middle third - skeletal/ smooth muscle
  • lower third - smooth muscle
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126
Q

what is the name of the sphincter located at gastro-esophageal junction?

A

gastroesophageal sphincter

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127
Q

what is the term used to describe heartburn?

A

pyrosis

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128
Q

what are the 3 regions of the stomach?

A
  • cardia
  • fundus
  • pylorus
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129
Q

what type of muscle is found in the cardiac sphincter?

A

smooth muscle

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130
Q

what does the fundus secrete?

A
  • acid
  • pepsin
  • some mucus
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131
Q

what type of muscle is found within the pyloric sphincter?

A

smooth muscle

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132
Q

what is the difference between peptic/ gastric ulcers and erosion?

A
  • ulcer - damage extends below level of basement membrane (bleeding)
  • erosion - partial loss of epithelium (no bleeding)
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133
Q

ulcers are frequently associated with chronic infection with _______ _______

A

helicobacter pylori

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134
Q

helicobacter pylori produced urease which ________ pH

A

increases pH

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135
Q

what is the term used to describe foot that has undergone mechanical/ chemical breakdown?

A

chyme

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136
Q

what are the longitudinal folds within the stomach called?

A

rugae

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137
Q

gastric glands within the stomach contain what 5 substances?

A
  • HCl
  • pepsinogen (precursor to pepsin)
  • gastrin
  • renin
  • lipase
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138
Q

what type of mucus do surface mucus cells secrete?

A

insoluble mucus and bicarbonate ions

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139
Q

what type of mucus do mucus neck cells secrete?

A

soluble mucus

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140
Q

what is another term for acid secreting cells?

A

parietal cells

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141
Q

what 2 substances do parietal cells secrete?

A
  • HCl
  • intrinsic factor
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142
Q

what is another term for pepsin secreting cells?

A

chief cells

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143
Q

what do chief cells secrete?

A

inactive pepsinogen

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144
Q

parietal and chief cells are controlled by ________ nervous system

A

autonomic

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145
Q

gastrin is secreted by ____ cells

A

G cells

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146
Q

somatostatin is secreted by ____ cells

A

D cells

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147
Q

secretin is secreted by ____ cells

A

S cells

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148
Q

what is the term used to describe the mucosa and submucosa throughout the small intestine arranged in valve-like folds?

A

plica circulares

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149
Q

plica circulares have ______ core and villi have ______ ______ core

A
  • submucosal core
  • lamina propria core
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150
Q

what is the name of the crypts between villi?

A

crypts of Lieberkuhn

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151
Q

intestinal villi is lined by what type of epithelium?

A

simple squamous epithelium

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152
Q

what is the name of the mucosal cells of the small intestine?

A

enterocytes

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153
Q

highly modified brush border helps to _______ surface area for absorption

A

increase

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154
Q

what do goblet cells synthesize?

A

mucinogen (mucus)

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155
Q

what do paneth cells secrete?

A

antibacterial proteins called defensins (including lysozyme)

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156
Q

what type of cells help to regulate GI motility and secretion?

A

enteroendocrine cells

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157
Q

cholecystekinin (CCK) is secreted by ____ cells

A

I cells

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158
Q

glucagon is secreted by ____ cells

A

A cells

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159
Q

gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP) is secreted by ____ cells

A

K cells

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160
Q

where is MALT located in small intestine?

A
  • lamina propria
  • submucosa
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161
Q

what does MALT secrete?

A

IgA

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162
Q

what types of cells are mofified for Ag sampling and uptake of macromolecules within small intestine?

A

M cells

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163
Q

what specific type of gland is present in duodenum?

A

brunner’s glands

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164
Q

what is the main function of the duodenum?

A

neutralize gastric acid and pepsin, assisted by pancreas and gallbladder

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165
Q

where does the pancreatic duct and bile duct empty into within the duodenum?

A

major duodenal papilla

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166
Q

pancreatic secretions are highly _________ due to bicarbonate

A

alkaline

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167
Q

emulsifying agents for digestion of lipids form ______

A

micelles

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168
Q

what two substances do pancreatic secretions contain that are proteolytic enzymes?

A
  • trypsin
  • chymotrypsin
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169
Q

what is the pathway that leads to activation of chymotrypsinogen?

A
  • trypsin activated by enterokinase
  • trypsin then activates chymotrypsin
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170
Q

what step of the digestion process involves mixing of chyme with pancreatic enzymes leading to molecule breakdown?

A

luminal digestion

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171
Q

what step of the digestion process involves enzymes of glycocalyx on plasma membrane of enterocytes?

A

membrane digestion

172
Q

what segments of the digestive tract make up the large intestine?

A
  • cecum
  • appendix
  • ascending colon
  • transverse colon
  • descending colon
  • sigmoid colon
  • rectum
173
Q

the large intestine lacks _____ and ______ ______

A
  • villi
  • plicae circulares
174
Q

if the appendix is inflamed, this results in _________

A

appendicitis

175
Q

what is the primary function of the colon?

A

water and electrolyte resorption

176
Q

what structures are formed from the outer longitudinal muscle layer in the muscularis externa that is incomplete within the colon?

A

taenia coli

177
Q

what is the term used to describe the segmentation of the colon?

A

haustra

178
Q

what is the term used to describe any mass arising from the wall of the colon that protrudes into the lumen?

A

polyps

179
Q

what is the name of the short, dilated, terminal portion of the large intestine?

A

rectum

180
Q

what is the transition of the epithelium at the anal canal?

A

simple columnar epithelium to stratified squamous epithelium

181
Q

what type of muscle makes up the internal and external anal sphincters?

A
  • internal = smooth muscle (involuntary)
  • external = skeletal muscle (voluntary)
182
Q

what are the four lobes of the liver?

A
  • left
  • right
  • caudate
  • quadrate
183
Q

deamination of amino acids leads to the production of _____

A

urea

184
Q

where do processes such as glycogen synthesis/ storage and gluconeogenesis take place in the body?

A

liver

185
Q

what is the name of the capsule that covers the external surface of the liver?

A

glisson’s capsule

186
Q

by what artery is oxygenated blood supplied to the liver?

A

hepatic artery

187
Q

the liver is a _____ rich but ____ poor environment

A
  • nutrient rich
  • O2 poor
188
Q

what are the cells of the liver called?

A

hepatocytes

189
Q

again hepatocytes accumulate what brown pigment?

A

lipofuscin

190
Q

what type of cells line sinusoids within the liver?

A

sinusoidal lining cells

191
Q

what space is present between the sinusoidal lining and hepatocytes within the liver?

A

space of disse

192
Q

what type of collagen fibers can be found in hepatic cords and sinusoids?

A

type III collage (reticulin fibers)

193
Q

what is the name of the fixed tissue macrophage present in the liver?

A

Kupffer cells

194
Q

what type of cells within the liver are used as fat-storing cells containing lipid droplets and are used for vitamin A&D storage?

A

ito cells

195
Q

cords of hepatocytes are arranged in ______

A

lobules

196
Q

what blood vessel structure is located in the middle of a lobule within the liver?

A

central vein

197
Q

what structures are contained within portal tracts/ triads?

A
  • portal artery
  • portal vein
  • lymphatic vessel
  • bile duct
198
Q

classic lobules are based on ______ flow

A

blood flow

199
Q

portal lobules are based on _____ flow

A

bile

200
Q

what zone within a hepatic lobule is closest to the portal tract and receives most oxygenated blood?

A

zone 1 (perilobular zone)

201
Q

what zone within a hepatic lobule is considered in the middle?

A

zone 2 (intermediate zone)

202
Q

what zone within a hepatic lobule is furthest from the portal tract, closest to the central vein, and receives the least oxygenated blood?

A

zone 3 (centrolobular zone)

203
Q

what zone within a hepatic lobule is most susceptible to ischemic injury?

A

zone 3

204
Q

what medical condition is characterized by hepatic degeneration and necrosis followed by fibrosis and nodular regeneration?

A

cirrhosis

205
Q

bile synthesis is considered an ________ function of the liver

A

exocrine (secretory)

206
Q

bile is synthesized by hepatocytes and is secreted into network of ________ ________

A

bile canaliculi

207
Q

the direction of bile flow is ________ to blood flow

A

opposite

208
Q

where does bile enter the duodenum at after storage and modification in the gallbladder?

A

major duodenal papilla

209
Q

what type of epithelium is found in the gallbladder?

A

simple columnar epithelium with apical microvilli

210
Q

the gallbladder lacks a ________ ________

A

muscularis mucosae

211
Q

what hormone stimulates contraction of the gallbladder?

A

CCK (cholecystokinin)

212
Q

what is the best know bile pigment?

A

bilirubin

213
Q

what is the medical condition that arises from a failure to absorb bilirubin or failure to conjugate it and secrete glucuronide which leads to an accumulation of bile pigments?

A

jaundice

214
Q

if you have your gallbladder removed, you are no longer able to _______ bile

A

concentrate

215
Q

ductless endocrine pancreatic tissue within the pancreas is located in islets of _________

A

langerhans

216
Q

most of the pancreas is _______ with ducts

A

exocrine

217
Q

the pancreas is considered a compound, acinar, ______ gland

A

serous

218
Q

acinar cells of the pancreas contain _______ granules

A

zymogen

219
Q

what two substances released from the pancreas function as proteases?

A

trypsin and chymotrypsin

220
Q

what substance released from the pancreas functions to break down carbohydrates?

A

amylase

221
Q

what substance released from the pancreas functions to break down lipids?

A

lipases

222
Q

exocrine substances secreted from the pancreas empty into ________ ducts

A

intercalated ducts

223
Q

within the pancreas, what are the cells that form the beginning of intercalated ducts?

A

centro-acinar cells

224
Q

where do intercalated ducts empty into within the pancreas?

A

intralobular ducts which empty into extralobular ducts

225
Q

where do pancreatic secretions enter the duodenum at?

A

via pancreatic duct at major duodenal papilla

226
Q

what hormone is released by the stomach and functions to stimulate secretion of pancreatic fluid?

A

gastrin

227
Q

what hormone is released by the duodenum and functions to stimulate secretion of bicarbonate by cells of intercalated ducts?

A

secretin

228
Q

what hormone is released by the duodenum and functions to stimulate acinar cells to secrete zymogens?

A

CCK (cholecystokinin)

229
Q

what hormone is released by the duodenum and functions to convert trypsinogen into trypsin and chymotrypsinogen into chymotrypsin?

A

enterokinase

230
Q

what is the medical condition used to describe the autodigestion of the pancreas brought on by alcoholism?

A

pancreatitis

231
Q

what organ system is responsible for water/ electrolyte homeostasis, osmoregulation, and acid-base balance?

A

urinary system

232
Q

the primary function of the urinary system is the excrete toxic metabolic waste products especially ______ and ______

A

urea and creatinine

233
Q

what is the number 1 nitrogenous waste product in mammals (include both soluble and insoluble forms)?

A

urea - soluble
uric acid - insoluble

234
Q

what 4 substances does a blood nitrogen test measure?

A
  • urea
  • creatinine
  • uric acid
  • ammonia
235
Q

what organ synthesizes renin?

A

kidneys

236
Q

what does renin help to maintain?

A

blood pressure via renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

237
Q

what organ synthesizes erythropoietin?

A

kidney

238
Q

what hormone stimulates red blood cell production?

A

erythropoietin

239
Q

kidneys are considered to be _________ organs

A

retroperitoneal

240
Q

at what location of the kidney do blood vessels and ureters enter/ exit?

A

hilus

241
Q

name the blood vessels in order that supply the kidney down to the glomeruli

A
  • renal artery branches to form
  • interlobar arteries
  • arcuate arteries
  • interlobular arteries that give off
  • affarent arterioles to glomeruli
242
Q

what two sections is the kidney divided into?

A

outer cortex and inner medulla

243
Q

what two structures does the cortex of the kidney contain?

A
  • renal corpuscles
  • convoluted tubules
244
Q

what three structures does the medulla of the kidney contain?

A
  • loops of henle
  • collecting tubules
  • collecting ducts
245
Q

what type of epithelium is unique to the urinary tract and is considered highly distensible to allow for changing urine volumes?

A

transitional epithelium

246
Q

describe transitional epithelium

A

-varying number of layers (stratified)
- cuboidal to polygonal with scalloped outline (umbrella cells)

247
Q

what is the functional unit of the kidney?

A

nephron

248
Q

the nephron is embryologically derived from the _________ _______ which is part of the developing _______ _______

A
  • nephrogenic blastema
  • urogenital ridge
249
Q

what are the three types of nephrons found in the kidney?

A
  • cortical / subscapular nephrons
  • juxtamedullary nephrons
  • intermediate nephrons
250
Q

describe where cortical / subscapular nephrons are found and its loop of henle length

A
  • located in outer rim of cortex
  • short loops of henle
251
Q

describe where juxtamedullary nephrons are found and its loop of henle length

A
  • adjacent to medulla
  • long loops of henle
252
Q

describe where intermediate nephrons are found and its loop of henle length

A
  • middle of cortex
  • intermediate length loops of henle
253
Q

what are the two major components of a nephron?

A
  • renal corpuscle
  • renal tubule
254
Q

what does the renal corpuscle filter?

A

blood plasma

255
Q

what does the renal tubule collect?

A

filtrate

256
Q

what are the two components that make up the renal corpuscle?

A
  • bowman’s capsule
  • glomerulus
257
Q

what is the term used to describe a single layer of squamous epithelial cells resting on basement membrane?

A

capsule (parietal layer)

258
Q

the capsule forms hollow, dilated end of the _______ _______ ______ surrounding glomerulus

A

proximal convoluted tubule

259
Q

in regards to nephrons, the parietal layer continues onto glomerulus as the _______ ______

A

visceral layer

260
Q

what is the term used to describe cells of the visceral layer of nephrons?

A

podocytes

261
Q

what is the term used to describe the space between the visceral and parietal layers of the nephron that collects glomerular filtrate and empties into the renal tubule?

A

bowman’s space

262
Q

what is the term used to describe a network of densely packed anastomosing fenestrated capillaries?

A

glomerulus

263
Q

what two structures supply the glomerulus with blood?

A

afferent and efferent arterioles

264
Q

where is water and small molecular weight molecules filtered from blood?

A

into bowman’s space

265
Q

the luminal surface of the capillary endothelium is _______ charged due to the presence of the ________

A
  • negatively charged
  • podocalyxin
266
Q

the glomerular basement membrane acts as a physical _______ and _____ ______ filter

A
  • physical barrier
  • ion selective filter
267
Q

what is the name of the space between the capillary basement membrane and second layer of podocytes?

A

subpodocyte space

268
Q

what is the term used to describe the cytoplasmic extensions of podocytes that surround glomerular capillaries?

A

foot processes

269
Q

what is the term used to describe the spaces between foot processes within a nephron?

A

filtration slits

270
Q

what protein is present within slit diaphragms within a nephron?

A

nephrin

271
Q

where is the resultant glomerular ultrafiltrate passed onto?

A

renal tubule

272
Q

what are the 4 distinct zones of the renal tubule?

A
  • proximal convoluted tubule
  • loop of henle
  • distal convoluted tubule
  • collecting tubule/ duct
273
Q

what type of epithelium can be found in the renal tubule?

A

simple, cuboidal epithelium

274
Q

the primary function of the renal tubule includes the selective resorption of what substances from the glomerular filtrate?

A
  • water
  • inorganic ions (Na and bicarbonate)
  • large molecules (amino acids, proteins, glucose)
275
Q

the renal tubule helps to concentrate waste products such as…

A
  • urea
  • creatinine
  • excess hydrogen
  • excess potassium
276
Q

what is the primary site for water resorption?

A

proximal convoluted tubule

277
Q

where is the proximal convoluted tubule found?

A

confined to cortex

278
Q

what membrane proteins are found within the proximal convoluted tubule to assist with the resorption of water?

A

aquaporins

279
Q

in addition to water and ions, the proximal convoluted tubule also resorbs all ______, _______, and _______

A
  • proteins
  • amino acids
  • sugars
280
Q

what type of epithelium is characteristic to the proximal convoluted tubule?

A

simple cuboidal epithelium with apical microvilli (brush border)

281
Q

what are the 4 parts of the loop of henle?

A
  • pars recta (thick descending limb)
  • thin descending limb
  • thin ascending limb
  • thick ascending limb
282
Q

the bulk of the loop of henle extends into the ______ of the kidney

A

medulla

283
Q

thin limbs are long in ________ nephrons and short in _______ nephrons

A
  • long in juxtamedullary nephrons
  • short in cortical nephrons
284
Q

what type of epithelium is found within the thin limb of a loop of henle?

A

simple squamous epithelium

285
Q

what type of epithelium is found within the thick limb of a loop of henle?

A

simple cuboidal epithelium

286
Q

what part of the loop of henle has a brush border of apical microvilli?

A

pars recta

287
Q

what is the term used to describe the peritubular capillary network that surrounds loops of henle?

A

vasa recta

288
Q

describe what forms the cortico-medullary interstitial gradient

A

higher extracellular sodium in medulla combined with water resorption by proximal convoluted tubule in cortex

289
Q

what does the cortico-medullary interstitial gradient form that results in the production of hypertonic urine?

A

counter current (exchange) multiplier system of urine concentration

290
Q

what structure of the renal tubule is a continuation of the thick ascending limb of loop of henle and is present within the cortex?

A

distal convoluted tubule

291
Q

what type of epithelium is found within the distal convoluted tubule?

A

simple cuboidal epithelium with short apical microvilli (no distinct brush border)

292
Q

what type types of cells within the distal convoluted tubule are responsible for active resorption of Na & Cl coupled with secretion of H & K ions?

A

principal cells and intercalated cells

293
Q

what cells within the distal convoluted tubule resorb Na and secrete K?

A

principal cells

294
Q

what cells within the distal convoluted tubule resorb K and secrete H?

A

intercalated cells

295
Q

what hormones helps to control principal cells and intercalated cells?

A

aldosterone

296
Q

what is the term used to describe the terminal portion of a nephron?

A

collecting tubule

297
Q

several collecting tubules converge to form a larger _______ ______

A

collecting duct

298
Q

where do collecting ducts converge at?

A

renal papilla

299
Q

what part of the nephron functions in Na resorption, maintenance of acid-base balance, K secretion, and resorption?

A

collecting tubule

300
Q

epithelial cells of the collecting duct are normally ________ to water

A

impermeable

301
Q

under the influence of what hormone do the collecting tubules become permeable and will resorb water?

A

ADH - vasopressin

302
Q

by what organ is ADH (vasopressin) secreted by?

A

posterior pituitary

303
Q

the juxtaglomerular apparatus is considered to be a combine _______ and _______

A

baroreceptor and chemoreceptor

304
Q

the juxtaglomerular apparatus is used to regulate systemic blood pressure via what system?

A

renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system

305
Q

what are the three components of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?

A
  • macula densa
  • juxtaglomerular cells
  • extraglomerular mesangial cells
306
Q

describe where the macula densa are located and their function

A
  • thickened region on one side of distal convoluted tubule
  • contains densely packed cuboidal to columnar epithelial cells
  • chemoreceptor sensitivity to changes in Na conc. in filtrate
307
Q

describe where the juxtaglomerular cells are located and their function

A
  • modified smooth muscle cells in wall of afferent arteriole
  • act as baroreceptors to detect changes in blood pressure
  • produce renin in response to LOW blood pressure
308
Q

describe where the extraglomerular mesangial cells are located and their function

A
  • flattened cells surrounding afferent and efferent arterioles
  • provide structural support and phagocytosis
  • may assist in tubular glomerular feedback (transmits signals from cells of macula densa to glomerular mesangial cells)
309
Q

a decrease in blood pressure results in ______ release from juxtaglomerular cells in afferent arteriole

A

renin

310
Q

a decrease in blood pressure leads to decreased glomerular filtration rate leading to a _______ concentration of sodium in the _______ _______ _______

A
  • low sodium
  • distal convoluted tubule
311
Q

renin converts _________ into ________

A

angiotensinogen into angiotensin I

312
Q

ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme) converts _________ into _______

A

angiotensin I into angiotensin II

313
Q

explain the three ways that angiotensin II increases blood pressure

A
  • vasoconstriction
  • release of aldosterone from adrenal cortex (resorption of Na and water from DCT
  • ADH secretion from posterior pituitary (increased water resorption from collecting tubule)
314
Q

what conversion do ACE inhibitors help to prevent and what medical condition are they commonly used to treat?

A
  • prevents conversion of angiotensin I into angiotensin II
  • used to treat high blood pressure
315
Q

what structure of the urinary system conducts urine from the kidneys to the bladder?

A

ureters

316
Q

what type of epithelium is found within the ureters and it thrown into folds?

A

transitional epithelium

317
Q

what type of contractions do the ureters produce to move urine?

A

peristaltic contractions

318
Q

what type of epithelium lines the urinary bladder?

A

transitional epithelium with underlying fibroelastic lamina propria

319
Q

what are the three entries to the bladder that define to trigone area?

A
  • two for entry of urine from ureters
  • one for exit of urine via urethra
320
Q

cells in what area of the bladder are most prone to neoplastic transformation?

A

trigone area

321
Q

what part of the urinary system transfers urine from the bladder to the outside world?

A

urethra

322
Q

what type of epithelium and glands are found within the urethra?

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelium with paraurethral mucus glands

323
Q

what are the three sections of the male urethra?

A
  • prostatic
  • membranous
  • spongy (penile)
324
Q

what type of epithelium is found within the prostatic urethra?

A

transitional epithelium

325
Q

which gender is more susceptible to bladder infections because of short urethra?

A

females

326
Q

what is the medial condition used to describe red blood cells, white blood cells, bacteria in urine and painful/ burning urination?

A

bacterial/ fungal (yeast infection)

327
Q

what is the term used to describe excretion of protein in urine and what protein is usually excreted?

A
  • proteinuria
  • albumin
328
Q

what is the term used to describe excretion of glucose in the urine and what medical condition is this commonly assocaited with?

A
  • glucosuria
  • diabetes mellitus
329
Q

what two terms are used to describe high frequency of urination and drinking?

A
  • polyuria (PU)
  • polydypsia (PD)
330
Q

what is the term used to describe crystal stone formation in the urinary system?

A

urinary calculi

331
Q

what are the three places that kidney stones may become lodged at within the urinary tract?

A
  • renal pelvis
  • ureters
  • urethra
332
Q

what type of blood test measures renal function and is considered an indirect measure of renal disease?

A

blood urea nitrogen test

333
Q

what is the term used to describe 75% of functional nephrons lost?

A

uremia

334
Q

what organ system communicates via chemical messengers (hormones)?

A

endocrine system

335
Q

the endocrine system lacks ______ and secretes hormones into surrounding ________ space?

A
  • lacks ducts
  • interstitial space
336
Q

what organ coordinates endocrine functions of the body?

A

hypothalamus

337
Q

what is an example of an organ with endocrine and exocrine tissue intermixed?

A

pancreas

338
Q

what is the name of the “turkish saddle” that the pituitary gland sits in?

A

sella turcica

339
Q

secretion of the pituitary hormones is controlled by the _______

A

hypothalamus

340
Q

what system allows communication between the pituitary gland and hypothalamus?

A

hypophyseal portal system

341
Q

_______ factors stimulate secretion

A

releasing factors

342
Q

_______ factors inhibit secretion

A

inhibitory factors

343
Q

direct acting hormones have ________ target organ

A

non-endocrine

344
Q

trophic hormones have a target organ that is another ______ gland

A

endocrine

345
Q

what are the five direct acting hormones?

A
  • GH
  • ADH
  • MSH
  • oxytocin
  • prolactin
346
Q

what are the four trophic hormones?

A
  • TSH
  • ACTH
  • FSH
  • LH
347
Q

what are the three pituitary- dependent endocrine glands?

A
  • thyroid gland
  • adrenal cortex
  • gonads
348
Q

the anterior portion of the pituitary contains glandular ________ tissue and the posterior contains _______ _______ tissue

A
  • glandular epithelial tissue
  • neural secretory tissue
349
Q

what is the name of the oral ectoderm that migrates to form the anterior pituitary?

A

raathke’s pouch

350
Q

what are the three distinct regions of the anterior pituitary?

A
  • pars distalis
  • pars intermedia
  • pars tuberalis
351
Q

what region of the anterior pituitary makes up the bulk of the anterior pituitary?

A

pars distalis

352
Q

what region of the anterior pituitary is a thin layer between anterior and posterior pituitary that secretes MSH and ACTH?

A

pars intermedia

353
Q

at region of the anterior pituitary frequently contains cystic remnants of rathke’s pouch?

A

pars intermedia

354
Q

what region of the anterior pituitary is an extension of anterior pituitary and forms the pituitary stalk (infundibulum)?

A

pars tuberalis

355
Q

what region of the anterior pituitary secretes the bulk of pituitary hormones including both direct acting and tropic hormones?

A

pars distalis

356
Q

what are two the direct acting hormones secreted by the pars distalis?

A
  • GH
  • prolactin
357
Q

what are the four trophic hormones secreted by the pars distalis?

A
  • TSH
  • ACTH
  • FSH
  • LH
358
Q

what type of chromophils stain with acidic dye (stain pink)?

A

acidophils

359
Q

what type of chromophils stain with basic dye (pale blue to light purple)?

A

basophils

360
Q

what type of cells do not take up either due and stain clear on H&E?

A

chromophobes

361
Q

what are the two types of cells that are considered acidophils?

A

somatotrophs and mammotrophs

362
Q

what are the three types of cells that are considered basophils?

A

thyrotrophs, gonadotrophs, and corticotrophs

363
Q

what part of the posterior pituitary contains axons of neurosecretory origin?

A

infundibulum

364
Q

what is the term used to describe the support cells of the posterior pituitary?

A

pituicytes

365
Q

the hypothalamus secretes two hormones via the posterior pituitary which are _______ and ______

A
  • ADH (vasopressin)
  • oxytocin
366
Q

ADH and oxytocin are stored in neurosecretory granules of axons of posterior pituitary known as ________ _______

A

herring bodies

367
Q

what hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary controls blood pressure by altering the permeability of renal collecting tubules?

A

ADH

368
Q

decreased production of ADH results in _______ urine production

A

increased

369
Q

what hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary promotes smooth muscle contractions in the uterus and breast?

A

oxytocin

370
Q

what endocrine gland is embryologically derived from epithelial down growth of fetal tongue?

A

thyroid gland

371
Q

what is the inactive hormone that is stored within extracellular follicles?

A

thyroglobulin

372
Q

T4 is _________ in liver to for T3

A

deiodinated

373
Q

what is the more potent biologically active form of thyroid hormones?

A

T3

374
Q

what are the secondary secretory cells in the thyroid gland?

A

parafollicular cells (C cells)

375
Q

what do parafollicular cells (C cells) secrete?

A

calcitonin

376
Q

what does calcitonin help to regulate?

A

blood calcium levels
NOTE - decreases serum calcium, inhibits osteoclasts

377
Q

goiter can arise due to either ________ or ________ thyroidism

A

hyperthyroidism and hypothyroidism

378
Q

what disease of the thyroid gland results in an increase in number and size of follicle cells?

A

hyperthyroidism

379
Q

what disease of the thyroid gland is likely due to an autoimmune reaction and results in a decreased size of the gland?

A

hypothyroidism

380
Q

on what surface of the thyroid gland are the parathyroid glands present?

A

posterior surface

381
Q

what hormone does the parathyroid hormone secrete?

A

parathyroid hormone

382
Q

how does parathyroid hormone affect serum calcium levels?

A

increases

383
Q

how does calcitonin hormone affect serum calcium levels?

A

decreases

384
Q

what are the three ways which parathyroid hormones acts to increase blood calcium?

A
  • increased osteoclast activity
  • increased renal tubular absorption of calcium in kidneys
  • increased calcium reabsorption from gut via vitamin D
385
Q

______ levels of blood calcium stimulate the secretion of parathyroid hormone

A

low levels

386
Q

what is the term used to describe excess PTH production?

A

hyperparathyroidism

387
Q

what are the two types of cells present within the parathyroid gland and what is their function?

A
  • chief cells - secrete parathyroid hormone
  • oxyphil cells - function unknown
388
Q

what endocrine glands are located superior to the kidneys?

A

adrenal glands

389
Q

the adrenal cortex is regulated by ACTH which is secreted by the _________ ________

A

anterior pituitary

390
Q

steroid hormones are structurally related to a _________ precursor

A

cholesterol precursor

391
Q

what hormone released by the adrenal glands controls electrolyte/ fluid balance by regulating the Na and K levels via Na pumps?

A

mineralocorticoids (aldosterone)

392
Q

what hormone released by the adrenal glands stimulates gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis to increase blood glucose levels?

A

glucocorticoids (cortisol)

393
Q

what hormone released by the adrenal glands stimulates increased metabolism and breakdown of proteins, carbs, and lipids?

A

glucocorticoids

394
Q

what hormone released by the adrenal glands supplements gonadal production?

A

sex hormones

395
Q

what layer of the adrenal cortex secretes mineralocorticoids?

A

zona glomerulosa

396
Q

what layer of the adrenal cortex makes up 80% and secretes glucocorticoids?

A

zona fasciculata

397
Q

what is the name of the cells present within the zona fasciculata layer of the adrenal cortex?

A

spongiocytes

398
Q

what layer of the adrenal cortex secretes small quantities of androgens and glucocorticoids?

A

zona reticularis

399
Q

what is the name of the medical condition used to describe failure of adrenal cortex to produce mineralo- and glucocorticoids?

A

hypoadrenocorticism

400
Q

a decrease in cortisol results in _______ blood glucose

A

decreased

401
Q

what is the common name for hypoadrenocorticism

A

addison’s disease

402
Q

what is the common name for hyperadrenocorticism?

A

cushing’s disease

403
Q

describe what causes PRIMARY hyperadrenocorticism

A

general adrenal hyperplasia or functional tumor of adrenal cortex leading to EXCESS cortisol secretion

404
Q

describe what causes SECONDARY hyperadrenocorticism

A
  • increased ACTH from anterior pituitary (pituitary tumor) or other cortisol producing tumor
  • increased ACTH secretion leads to adrenal hyperplasia and excess cortisol secretion
405
Q

what type of cells of neuroectodermal origin can be found within the adrenal medulla?

A

chromaffin

406
Q

what type of nerve fibers control chromaffin cells within the adrenal medulla?

A

preganglionic sympathetic nerve fibers

407
Q

what type of hormone do chromaffin cells secrete?

A

catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)

408
Q

where do chromaffin cells store catecholamines?

A

dense core granules

409
Q

what response are catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine) usually used in?

A

fight or flight response

410
Q

what is the term used to describe endogenous opiates responsible for pain relief?

A

enkephaline

411
Q

what is the name used to describe a tumor of chromaffin cells of the adrenal medulla (generally benign and functional)?

A

pheochromocytoma

412
Q

endocrine cells that have migrated from duct system and aggregated around capillaries of pancreas form _______ ______ ________

A

islets of langerhans

413
Q

what are the three types of cells found within islets of the pancreas and what is their function?

A
  • alpha cells - secrete glucagon (raise blood glucose)
  • beta cells - secrete insulin (decrease blood glucose)
  • delta cells - secrete somatostatin (inhibits insulin and glucagon production)
414
Q

what is the medical condition used to describe insulin deficiency/ abnormality?

A

diabetes mellitus

415
Q

what are two characteristics of diabetes mellitus?

A
  • hyperglycemia (high blood glucose)
  • glucosuria (glucose in urine)
416
Q

what type of diabetes is characterized by a decreased insulin production?

A

type I

417
Q

what type of diabetes is characterized by a decrease in the number of insulin receptors or decreased responsiveness?

A

type II

418
Q

the ______ gland functions to translate light intensity and duration into endocrine activity

A

pineal gland

419
Q

what hormones does the pineal gland secrete?

A

melatonin and serotonin

420
Q

what effect does melatonin have on GNRH release from hypothalamus and thus sex hormone secretion from gonads?

A
  • decreased GNRH from hypothalamus
  • decreased sex hormone secretion from gonads
421
Q

what are the two types of cells found within the pineal gland and what is their function?

A
  • pinealocytes (most common) - secrete melatonin and serotonin
  • neuroglial cells - support cells)
422
Q

what is the term used to describe calcified accretions of calcium and magnesium phosphate in aging individuals within the pineal gland?

A

corpora arenacea

423
Q

what is the term used to describe endocrine cells scattered in the mucosa of GI, respiratory tract, and other organs?

A

APUD cells (amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation)

424
Q

what types of hormones do APUD cells (amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation) secrete?

A

peptide and amine hormones (gastrin, secretin, CCK, and serotonin)

425
Q

from what origin are most APUD cells (amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation) derived from?

A

neural crest (neuroendocrine cells)
NOTE - others in gut derived from endoderm (enteroendocrine cells)

426
Q

what are the three best known examples of APUD cells (amine precursor uptake and decarboxylation)

A
  • chromaffin cells of adrenal medulla (epinephrine and norepinephrine)
  • thyroid C cells (calcitonin)
  • pancreatic islets (insulin, glucagon, and somatostatin)

Histology (3 decks)

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