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Histology > histo exam 2 > Flashcards

histo exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what system in the human body functions to transport oxygen, carbon dioxide/ nutrients, thermoregulation, and transport of immune cells/ hormones?

A

circulatory system

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2
Q

what two components does the vascular system consist of?

A

heart and blood vessels

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3
Q

what type of circulation is made up of the RA&V, pulmonary arteries, lungs, pulmonary veins, and LA?

A

pulmonary circulation

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4
Q

what type of circulation is made up of the LA%V, aorta and rest of body?

A

systemic circulation

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5
Q

what does the lymph vascular system lack and what does it rely on for returning lymph to blood vascular system?

A

lacks intrinsic pump
relies on muscle contraction

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6
Q

what vascular tunic is the innermost layer and made up of simple squamous endothelial cells?

A

tunica intima (functions as semi-permeable layer)

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7
Q

what type of special cell junction is found in the tunica intima to allow WBC’s to exit from vessels?

A

fascia occludens (discontinuous tight junction)

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8
Q

what vascular tunic (if present) separates the tunica intima and media and what type of fibers is it composed of?

A

internal elastic lamina
composed of elastic fibers

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9
Q

what vascular tunic is considered the middle layer and can be highly variable?

A

tunica media

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10
Q

in arteries, which tunic is the thickest and what type of fibers can it contain?

A

tunica media
may contain reticulin (type 3 collagen) and elastic fibers

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11
Q

what vascular tunic (if present) separates the tunica media and adventitia?

A

external elastic lamina

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12
Q

what vascular tunic is the outermost layer and consists of loose fibroblastic connective tissue?

A

tunica adventitia

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13
Q

in veins, which tunic is the thickest and may contain vasa vasorum?

A

tunica adventitia

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14
Q

what is the term used to describe autonomic nerves within tunica adventitia that controls smooth muscle contraction in vessel walls?

A

nervi vasculares

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15
Q

what type of action is vasoconstriction due to?

A

action of sympathetic, post-ganglionic nerve fibers

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16
Q

what type of effect does sympathetic, post-ganglionic nerve fibers have on smooth muscle of tunica media?

A

vasoconstriction and decrease in lumen diameter

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17
Q

what are the 3 possible explanations of how vasodilation occurs?

A
  • absence of sympathetic stimulation
  • indirect parasympathetic innervation (nitrous oxide)
  • low O2 tension, walls relax and results in increased blood flow
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18
Q

what type of sensory receptor detects blood pressure?

A

baroreceptors

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19
Q

what type of sensory receptor detects changes in O2, CO2 tension, and pH?

A

chemoreceptors

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20
Q

the ______ system conducts blood away from the heart to capillary beds

A

arterial

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21
Q

the ______ system returns blood from capillaries to the heart

A

venous system

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22
Q

what part of a blood pressure reading is described as contraction of ventricles resulting in a pressure wave?

A

systole

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23
Q

what part of a blood pressure reading is described as relaxation of ventricles resulting in decreased pressure?

A

diastole

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24
Q

what type of arteries typically receive blood directly from the heart (examples include aorta, common cartoid, subclavian, etc)?

A

elastic arteries

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25
Q

what tunic is typically the thickest in elastic arteries?

A

tunica media

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26
Q

elastic arteries possess both internal and external elastic laminae (true or false)

A

true

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27
Q

what type of artery has a distinct elastic lamina but can vary whether it has an external elastic lamina based on its size?

A

muscular arteries

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28
Q

what term is used to describe the terminal branches of the arterial system that supplies capillary beds?

A

arterioles

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29
Q

what type of artery is considered the major site of vasoconstriction and vasodilation?

A

arterioles

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30
Q

what type of artery is characterized by a discontinuous layer of smooth muscle in the tunica media?

A

metarterioles

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31
Q

what is the relationship between the amount of smooth muscle and diameter of the vessel in regard to arteries?

A

amount of smooth muscle increases with increasing diameter of vessel (relative amount of connective tissue decreases)

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32
Q

where does microcirculation occur primarily?

A

capillaries (can also occur in arterioles and venules)

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33
Q

what are capillaries made up of?

A
  • single layer of endothelial cells supported by basal lamina (tunica intima)
  • small number of pericytes
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34
Q

what two cells can pericytes differentiate into following injury?

A

endothelial cells or smooth muscle cells

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35
Q

what type of capillary is characterized by a continuous endothelium lining and is the most common type of capillary?

A

continuous

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36
Q

what type of capillary is characterized by endothelial cells possessing pores or fenestrae within cells?

A

fenestrated

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37
Q

what type of capillary is characterized by a non-continuous basal lamina (endothelial cells are separated by large gaps between cells?

A

discontinuous

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38
Q

what can discontinuous capillaries form?

A

sinusoids

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39
Q

in comparison to arteries, the venous system is a _____ pressure system and includes ______ walled vessels

A
  • low pressure system
  • thinner walled vessels
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40
Q

what tunic is the thickest in veins?

A

tunica adventitia

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41
Q

what characteristic of veins helps to prevent backflow?

A

valves

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42
Q

where is the preferential site for diapedesis?

A

post-capillary venules

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43
Q

what type of substances act on venules?

A

vasoactive substances

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44
Q

what does enlarged intracellular spaces lead to?

A

increased permeability of vessel

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45
Q

what within the tunica media controls the luminal diameter of muscular veins and venules?

A

smooth muscle

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46
Q

what type of shunt acts as a bypass for a capillary bed?

A

AV shunts

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47
Q

what type of vessel can be either a vein or artery that connects two capillary beds?

A

portal vessels

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48
Q

what occurs when the endothelium of a vessel is damaged?

A

cholesterol adheres to exposed proteins

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49
Q

if an inflammatory response becomes chronic via foam cells, what can this result in?

A

atherosclerosis and plaque formation

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50
Q

what medical condition is atherosclerosis associated with due to a decrease in diameter of vessel lumen and increase in systolic blood pressure?

A

hypertension

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51
Q

atherosclerosis is the most common cause of what disease?

A

ischemic heart disease

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52
Q

what is the term used to describe if a piece of thrombus breaks off and what can it result in if it causes sudden occlusion?

A
  • embolus
  • acute ischemic event
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53
Q

how does healing occur in the heart since cardiac muscle cells are terminally differentiated?

A

fibrosis

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54
Q

what event results in cerebral infarct with similar cell death and loss of function in the brain?

A

stroke (neurons are terminally differentiatied)

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55
Q

what is the term used to describe thin walled, balloon-like regions that can occasionally burst?

A

aneurisms

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56
Q

what system drains excess fluid from ECS and returns it to the bloodstream?

A

lymph vascular system

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57
Q

what is the largest lymph vessel in the body?

A

thoracic duct

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58
Q

how is movement of lymph accomplished?

A

via skeletal muscle contraction (no central pumping mechanism)

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59
Q

what is asymmetrical lymph drainage important in?

A

tumor metastasis

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60
Q

what part of the lymph vascular system is used for antigenic sampling and recognition?

A

lymph nodes

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61
Q

what are the 4 main functions of skin?

A
  • protection
  • sensation
  • thermoregulation
  • metabolic functions
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62
Q

what are the 3 layers of skin?

A

epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis

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63
Q

what are the cells of the epidermis?

A

keratinocytes

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64
Q

what does the epidermis lack?

A

blood vessels (do not penetrate basement membrane)

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65
Q

how is the epidermis supplied and nourished with blood and nutrients?

A

via blood vessels in the underlying dermis

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66
Q

what type of tissue is the dermis composed of?

A

dense, irregular, collagenous connective tissue interspersed with elastic fibers

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67
Q

what are the 2 layers of the dermis?

A

papillary layer and reticular layer

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68
Q

what are large dermal ridges in thick skin termed?

A

fingerprints

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69
Q

what does the papillary layer of the dermis help to prevent?

A

shear and mechanical abrasion

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70
Q

what layer of the dermis contains hair follicles, sweat, and sebaceous glands?

A

reticular layer of dermis

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71
Q

what layer of skin is made up of loose, irregular connective tissue/ adipose tissue and is located below the dermis?

A

hypodermis

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72
Q

what is the subcutaneous plexus used in?

A

thermoregulation

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73
Q

what are the 5 layers of the epidermis?

A
  • stratum corneum
  • stratum lucidum
  • stratum granulosum
  • stratum spinosum
  • stratum basale
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74
Q

what is the basal layer of the epidermis?

A

stratum basale

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75
Q

what is the stratum basale bound to the basement membrane by?

A

hemidesmosomes

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76
Q

what is the thickest layer of epidermis in thin skin?

A

stratum spinosum

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77
Q

what is the predominant cell product within the stratum spinosum?

A

cytokeratin

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78
Q

what layer of the epidermis is characterized by cells containing keratohyaline granules?

A

stratum granulosum

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79
Q

keratinization of cells represents interaction between what two substances?

A

keratohyaline granules and tonofibrils

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80
Q

what structures contain glycolipids and provide waterproofing coat for skin cells?

A

keratinosomoes

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81
Q

what layer of the epidermis is only present in thick skin?

A

stratum lucidum

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82
Q

what is the most superficial layer of the epidermis?

A

stratum corneum

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83
Q

what are the three common types of skin tumors and what type of cells are they derived from?

A
  • squamous cell carcinoma (epithelial cells)
  • basal cell carcinoma (epithelial cells)
  • melanoma (melanocytes)
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84
Q

what type of leukocyte infiltrates the clot formed 3-24 hours after an injury (acute phase)?

A

neutrophils

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85
Q

what type of leukocytes infiltrate during days 3-7 during the transition from the acute to subacute phase?

A

neutrophils are replaced by macrophages

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86
Q

what are the 3 processes that take place during days 3-7 following an injury?

A
  • neovascularization
  • fibroplasia
  • re-epithelialization (production of granulation tissue)
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87
Q

what is the term used to describe excess fibroplasia and looks like a raised thickened connective tissue scar?

A

keloid

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88
Q

what stage of wound healing occurs with more extensive loss of tissue where wound edges to not approximate?

A

second intention healing

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89
Q

what level of skin does a first degree burn involve?

A

only epidermis

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90
Q

what levels of skin does a second degree burn involve?

A

epidermis and dermis

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91
Q

what levels of skin does a third degree burn involve?

A

epidermis, dermis, and hypodermis

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92
Q

what is the origin of melanocytes?

A

neuroectodermal (neural crest origin) dendritic cells

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93
Q

where are melanocytes usually found within the epidermis?

A

stratum basale layer

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94
Q

what pigment do melanocytes produce?

A

melanin

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95
Q

what are the organelles from which melanin are released from?

A

melanosomes

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96
Q

what type of melanin is present in dark haired individuals (dark brown/ black pigment)?

A

eumelanin

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97
Q

what type of melanin is present in individuals with red or blonde hair (red to yellow pigment)?

A

pheomelanin

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98
Q

what is the relationship of melanin digestion in lighter skinned individuals?

A

produce less pigment or digest pigment faster

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99
Q

what is the relationship of melanin digestion in darker skinned individuals?

A

produce more melanin and retain more pigment longer

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100
Q

what is the name of the autoimmune disease that results in the destruction of melanocytes (leads to depigmentation)?

A

vitiligo

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101
Q

what is the name of the pituitary hormone that regulates melanin synthesis?

A

melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH)

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102
Q

what stage of melanin synthesis occurs in premelanosomes?

A

tyrosine precursor first oxidized to DOPA by tyrosinase

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103
Q

what stage of melanin synthesis occurs in melanosomes?

A

conversion of DOPA to melanin

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104
Q

what do albinos lack?

A

tyrosinase (DOPA and melanin not formed)

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105
Q

what can be stained for to help differentiate melanoma tumor and squamous cell carcinoma?

A

tyrosinase

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106
Q

what does melanin help to prevent by functioning as a UV shield?

A

protects nucleus to inhibit mutagenesis

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107
Q

what is the name of phagocytic antigen presenting cells found within the epidermis?

A

langerhans cells

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108
Q

what distinctive feature do langerhans cells contain that can be seen on EM?

A

birbeck granules

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109
Q

where are langerhans cells found within the epidermis?

A

stratum spinosum

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110
Q

what type of allergic reaction are langerhans cells involved in?

A

contact allergic dermatitis

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111
Q

what is the term used to describe embryological outgrowths of epidermis?

A

skin appendages

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112
Q

what are the two components of the hair shaft?

A

outer cortex and inner medulla

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113
Q

where does hair growth occur?

A

within hair bulb (expansion of follicle)

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114
Q

what component of hair helps to prevent matting?

A

thin cuticle of overlapping keratin plates

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115
Q

what is the hair bulb lined by?

A

actively dividing epithelial cells

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116
Q

what part of the hair bulb functions as a vascular core and contains blood vessels?

A

dermal papilla

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117
Q

what does melanin that is produced next to hair follicles and incorporated into cortex result in?

A

hair color

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118
Q

what are two functions of hair?

A

aids in protection and thermoregulation

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119
Q

developing hair surrounded and protected by _______ and ________ root sheath

A

internal and external root sheath

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120
Q

what structure separates the hair bulb from surrounding dermis?

A

glassy membrane

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121
Q

what muscle is active in piloerection (goose bumps)?

A

arrector pili muscle

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122
Q

what are goose bumps caused by?

A

sympathetic stimulation due to cold, fear or aggression

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123
Q

what are the four phases of hair growth?

A
  1. growth phase (anagen)
  2. involuting phase (catagen) - loss of blood supply
  3. inactive resting phase (telogen)
  4. shedding of old hair shaft (exogen)
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124
Q

hair growth is continuous (true or false)

A

false - NOT continuous

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125
Q

what is the type of hair found on children (fine body hair)?

A

vellus hair

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126
Q

what is the type of hair that is found after puberty on adolescents and adults?

A

terminal hair

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127
Q

what enzyme do individuals with androgenic alopecia have high levels of?

A

5-alpha-reductase

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128
Q

what conversion is 5-alpha-reductase involved in?

A

converts testosterone to dihydroxytestosterone

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129
Q

what does the nail plate rest on?

A

rests on stratified squamous epithelium of nail bed

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130
Q

what part of a nail extends into dermis and attaches to periosteum of distal phalanx?

A

nail root

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131
Q

how and where does nail growth occur at?

A

occurs by proliferation and differentiation of epithelium at nail root in germinative zone of nail matrix

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132
Q

what is the term for the white crescent at the base of the nail?

A

lunula

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133
Q

what structure of a nail overlies the lunula?

A

cuticle (eponychium)

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134
Q

what type of cells make up the nail plate?

A

mature, dead keratinized epithelial cells

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135
Q

what type of gland secretes the entire cell?

A

sebaceous glands (holocrine)

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136
Q

sebaceous glands develop as outgrowth of the ______ root sheath

A

external

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137
Q

what do sebaceous glands secrete?

A

sebum

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138
Q

what does sebum function in?

A

waterproofing, moisturizing skin and hair

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139
Q

what is the term used to describe excessive secretion of sebum?

A

sebborrhea

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140
Q

what three components make up the pilosebaceous unit?

A
  • hair follicle
  • arrector pili muscle
  • sebaceous gland
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141
Q

what are the two types of sweat glands?

A

merocrine/eccrine and apocrine

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142
Q

what type of glands secrete only product?

A

merocrine (eccrine)

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143
Q

where are merocrine glands NOT found?

A

lips and genitalia

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144
Q

what 4 components make up sweat?

A

hypotonic solution of:
- salts
- ammonia
- urea
- uric acid

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145
Q

thermoregulatory sweating is ________

A

cholinergic

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146
Q

emotional sweating is _________

A

adrenergic

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147
Q

thermoregulatory sweating is due to ________ (parasympathetic or sympathetic)

A

parasympathetic

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148
Q

emotional sweating is due to ________ (parasympathetic or sympathetic)

A

sympathetic

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149
Q

where does thermoregulatory sweating usually start and where are the last places to experience it?

A

first - axille, forehead, scalp
last - hands and feet

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150
Q

where does emotional sweating tend to begin?

A

palms and soles

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151
Q

what type of gland secretes product along with some cytoplasm?

A

apocrine

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152
Q

where are apocrine sweat glands located?

A

axillae and groin (develop at pubertty)

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153
Q

what occurs as a result of bacterial breakdown in apocrine glands?

A

acrid odor

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154
Q

secretion in apocrine glands is ________

A

adrenergic

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155
Q

what substance is produced by ceruminous glands in the external auditory meatus?

A

cerumen (ear wax)

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156
Q

in females, hormones from what sources help to develop mammary glands?

A

influence of pituitary and ovarian hormones

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157
Q

what is the organization of drainage for mammary glands?

A
  • mammary glands drained by terminal ducts
  • drain into larger lactiferous ducts
  • empty into lactiferous sinus in region of nipple
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158
Q

during lactation, what causes mammary glands to become enlarged?

A
  • hypertrophy of secretory cells
  • accumulation of secretory product
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159
Q

what does colostrum contain that is important in transfer of passive immunity to offspring?

A

large amounts of antibodies

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160
Q

milk production is both ________ and _______

A
  • mecrcrine (protein secretion)
  • apocrine (lipid secretion)
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161
Q

what type of sensory receptor responds to touch or pressure in dermal ridges of papillary layer?

A

meissner’s corpuscles

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162
Q

what type of sensory receptor detects mechanical and vibratory pressure and is located within the dermis and hypodermis?

A

pacinian corpuscles

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163
Q

what type of sensory receptor is especially common in soles of feet?

A

ruffini corpuscles

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164
Q

what sensory receptors that surround most hair follicles help to detect heat/cold, touch, pain, and movement?

A

free nerve endings

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165
Q

where are merkel cells derived from?

A

epidermal cells derived from neural crest

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166
Q

where are merkel cells located?

A

stratum basale

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167
Q

what do merkel cells store?

A

serotonin

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168
Q

what type of cells are bone and cartilage both derived from?

A

primitive mesenchymal cells

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169
Q

what is the relative strength of bone and cartilage due to?

A

properties of ground substance and extracellular fibers

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170
Q

what is the term used to describe what chondrocytes are trapped within?

A

lucunae

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171
Q

what structure surrounds cartilage?

A

perichondrium

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172
Q

what type of growth is used to describe new cartilage within mass (due to the fact that chondrocytes retain the ability to divide)?

A

interstitial growth

173
Q

what type of growth is used to describe new cartilage forming at surface of pre-existing cartilage and is more common?

A

appositional growth

174
Q

cartilage is an ________ connective tissue

A

avascular

175
Q

exchange of metabolites to cartilage occurs via ________ through _________ __________

A

diffusion through ground substance

176
Q

what gives cartilage its flexibility and incompressibility properties?

A

60-80% water bound to proteoglycans

177
Q

what is the most common glycoprotein found in cartilage?

A

chondronectin

178
Q

what type of properties were studied in sharks and are possibly associated with chondronectin?

A

anti-cancer properties

179
Q

what type of cartilage is found in articular surfaces, growth plates, nasal septum, costal cartilage, tracheal and bronchial rings?

A

hyaline cartilage

180
Q

what type of collagen fibers are found in hyaline cartilage?

A

type II collagen fibers

181
Q

what type of cartilage consists of alternating layers of hyaline cartilage and dense connective tissue (contains both type I and type II collage)?

A

fibrocartilage

182
Q

what type of cartilage lacks a perichondrium?

A

fibrocartilage

183
Q

what type of cartilage makes up the TMJ?

A

fibrocartilage

184
Q

what type of cartilage is similar to hyaline cartilage with addition of large number of elastic fibers in the ECM?

A

elastic cartilage

185
Q

why is repair within cartilage limited?

A

repair requires blood flow and cartilage does not have a direct blood supply

186
Q

what are the two types of bone?

A

woven and lamellar

187
Q

describe the orientation of collagen fibers within woven bone

A

immature form characterized by random orientation of collagen fibers

188
Q

describe the orientation of collagen fibers within lamellar bone

A

concentric layers (circumferential lamellae) with parallel collagen fibers

189
Q

what are the two forms that lamellar bone can have

A
  • dense and compact
  • cancellous and spongy
190
Q

what is the term used to describe the thin, bony spicules within cancellous bone?

A

trabeculae

191
Q

within the diaphysis (shaft) of a long bone, where is the compact and cancellous bone located?

A
  • compact - in cortex
  • cancellous - in medullary cavity (marrow)
192
Q

what are the two types of bone marrow?

A
  • red (hematopoietic) marrow
  • yellow (fatty) marrow
193
Q

what is the term used to describe the ends of bones and what type of cartilage covers them?

A
  • epiphyses
  • covered with hyaline cartilage
194
Q

what is the term used to describe the region between epiphysis and diaphysis?

A

metaphysis

195
Q

what does the metaphysis contain of long bones?

A

epiphyseal plate

196
Q

what is the layer of fibrous connective tissue that covers the external surface of bone called?

A

periosteum

197
Q

what connective tissue layer lines the internal marrow cavity?

A

endosteum

198
Q

what two types of cells does the periosteum contain?

A

fibroblasts and osteoprogenitor cells

199
Q

what type of fibers help to provide anchorage and support that extend from periosteum / muscle tendon and insert into superficial layer of bone?

A

Sharpey’s fibers

200
Q

what type of precursor cell ca differentiate into osteoblasts and osteocytes?

A

osteoprogenitor cells

201
Q

what bone cell is responsible for the synthesis of extracellular matrix and collagen?

A

osteoblasts

202
Q

what is the term used to describe extracellular matrix and collagen during bone formation?

A

osteoid

203
Q

calcification of matrix occurs via secretion of _______ vesicles

A

matrix vesicles

204
Q

what do matrix vesicles contain to aid in calcification of matrix?

A

alkaline phosphatase

205
Q

what do osteoblasts mature into within lucunae after matrix mineralizes?

A

osteocytes

206
Q

what is the term for mature bone cells?

A

osteocytes

207
Q

what bone cell is actively involved in resorption and remodeling of bone?

A

osteoclasts

208
Q

explain the effects of parathormone and note where it is secreted from

A
  • secreted from parathyroid gland
  • stimulates osteoCLAST activity (bone resorption)
  • increases blood calcium levels and decreases renal excretion by kidneys
209
Q

explain the effects of calcitonin and note where it is secreted from

A
  • secreted by thyroid gland
  • stimulates osteoBLAST activity, inhibits osteoclasts (bone deposition)
  • decreases blood calcium levels
210
Q

explain the effects of somatotropin

A
  • pituitary growth hormone
  • stimulates growth and decreases blood calcium
211
Q

what can over-secretion of somatotropin lead to?

A

gigantism (acromegaly)

212
Q

what can under-secretion of somatotropin lead to?

A

pituitary dwarfism

213
Q

within bone, what are the most common GAG’s found?

A
  • hyaluronic acid
  • chondroitin sulfate
  • keratin sulfate
214
Q

what are the non-collagenous organic molecules of bone?

A
  • osteocalcin
  • osteonectin
  • sialoproteins
215
Q

production of osteons and bony remodeling involves removal of existing bone by ______ and redeposition of new bone by _______

A
  • osteoclasts
  • osteoblasts
216
Q

what is the term for the outer margin of an osteon?

A

cement line

217
Q

what do osteoblasts mature into when they become trapped in lacunae in osteoid matrix and mature?

A

osteocytes

218
Q

how do osteocytes communicate with one another?

A

via gap junctions

219
Q

what is the name of the structure within each osteon that contains blood vessels and nerves?

A

haversian canal

220
Q

what are haversian canals connected by?

A

volkmann’s canals

221
Q

through which structure does exchange of nutrients and waste take place in compact bone?

A

haversian vessels

222
Q

what type of bone lacks haversian system?

A

spongy and woven bone

223
Q

what is the outer periphery of cortical bone arranged into?

A

circumferential lamellae

224
Q

what is the term for the dense connective tissue that surrounds compact bone?

A

periosteum

225
Q

what type of bone growth is classified by replacement of cartilage precursor by bone?

A

endochondral ossification

226
Q

long bones, vertebrae, pelvis, and base of skull are all examples of bones that form by which type of bone growth?

A

endochondral ossification

227
Q

what type of bone growth is classified by direct replacement of mesenchyme by bone (no cartilage precursor)?

A

intramembranous ossification

228
Q

in intramembranous ossification, mesenchymal cells differentiate into ______ and produce ______ which later mineralizes into bone

A
  • osteoblasts
  • produce osteoid
229
Q

where does the primary ossification occur in endochondral ossification?

A

mid-diaphysis

230
Q

during endochondral ossification, what does calcification of cartilage that inhibits diffusion of nutrients lead to?

A

death of chondrocytes and spread of osteoblasts

231
Q

where are the two secondary centers of ossification that occur during endochondral ossification located?

A

epiphyses

232
Q

in endochondral ossification, what does the epiphyseal plate remaining open allow for?

A

continuous longitudinal growth

233
Q

what event occurs during endochondral ossification at maturity and involves complete ossification?

A

closure of epiphysis

234
Q

after closure during endochondral ossification, the growth plate persists as _______ line in metaphysis and is visible on x-rays

A

epiphyseal line

235
Q

what zone during the transition of cartilage to bone is classified by containing hyaline cartilage with clusters of chondrocytes (no cell proliferation)?

A

zone of reserve cartilage

236
Q

what zone during the transition of cartilage to bone is classified by successive mitotic division of chondrocytes leading to the appearance of columns of chondrocytes?

A

zone of proliferation

237
Q

what zone during the transition of cartilage to bone is classified by the division creasing and chondrocytes increasing in size?

A

zone of maturation

238
Q

what zone during the transition of cartilage to bone is classified by where chondrocytes greatly enlarge, large amounts of glycogen are present, and become vacuolated & calcify?

A

zone of hypertrophy and calcification

239
Q

what zone during the transition of cartilage to bone is classified by capillaries of marrow cavity grow from diaphysis into growth plate, chondrocytes degenerate, and lacunae are invaded by osteogenic cells?

A

zone of cartilage degeneration

240
Q

what zone during the transition of cartilage to bone is classified by blood vessels from the marrow cavity growing into cartilage mass and osteogenic cells differentiate into osteoblasts to form bony trabeculae?

A

zone of ossification

241
Q

during intermembranous ossification, _____ follows with subsequent _____ of adjacent enters of ossificaion

A
  • mineralization
  • fusion
242
Q

during intermembranous ossification, the bone produced is _____ bone which is later remodeled by osteoclasts and osteoblasts to form ______ bone

A
  • woven bone
  • compact bone
243
Q

what type of fracture is characterized by no break in the skin?

A

simple or closed fracture

244
Q

what type of fracture is characterized by damage to skin exposing bone?

A

compound or open fracture

245
Q

what type of fracture is characterized by bone broken into several pieces?

A

comminuted fracture

246
Q

what is the term used to describe when blood fills fracture site?

A

hematoma

247
Q

what are the four signs of an inflammatory response?

A
  • pain
  • swelling
  • redness
  • heat
248
Q

what type of lymphocytes are first to arrive in the acute phase of inflammation?

A

neutrophils

249
Q

after one week, fibroblasts and capillaries proliferate and grow into site to form ______ tissue

A

granulation

250
Q

what type of tissue becomes progressively more fibrous in chronic phase? what is the tissue that is formed?

A
  • granulation tissue
  • forms fibrous granulation tissue
251
Q

what is the term used to describe progressive replacement of granulation tissue by hyaline cartilage?

A

provisional callous

252
Q

what forms after the provisional callous to help stabilize and bind fracture together?

A

bony callous

253
Q

what is the term used to describe when the fracture site is completely bridges by woven bone?

A

bony union

254
Q

how long does the bone repair process typically take (depends on severity and location)?

A

6-12 weeks

255
Q

what type of joint is characterized by extensive movement?

A

synovial joint

256
Q

the synovium (discontinuous layer of cells) secretes _____ _____ and bathes articular surfaces

A

synovial fluid

257
Q

what type of cells within synovial joints resemble macrophages?

A

type A synoviocytes

258
Q

what type of cells within synovial joints resemble fiibroblasts?

A

type B cells

259
Q

what type of joint is characterized by limited movement and lacks articular surfaces?

A

nonsynovial joints

260
Q

what is the term used to describe dense fibrous tissue between bones (sutures)?

A

syndesmosis

261
Q

what is the term used to describe primary cartilage joints that contain a single layer of hyaline cartilage?

A

synchondrosis

262
Q

what is the term used to describe secondary cartilage joints that contain two hyaline cartilage surfaces connected by fibrocartilage plate?

A

symphysis

263
Q

what are the two components of intervertebral joints?

A
  • annulus fibrosus (outer layer)
  • nucleus pulposus (central viscous ground substance)
264
Q

what is the medical condition called when there is damage to he annulus fibroses that causes the nucleus pulposus t herniate?

A

herniated disc

265
Q

what is the term used to describe the inflammation of joints?

A

arthritis

266
Q

what is the term used to describe the formation of bone spurs?

A

osteophytes

267
Q

what is the term used to describe the bony fusion of joint with loss of mobility?

A

ankylosis

268
Q

what is the term used to describe the progressive degeneration and loss of articular cartilage?

A

osteoarthritis

269
Q

what medical condition is described as an autoimmune reaction in joints where the body produces antibodies that attack joints?

A

rheumatoid’s arthritis

270
Q

the medical condition that occurs as a result of replacement of articular cartilage with fibrovascular tissue?

A

pannus

271
Q

what medical conditions occurs as a result of deposit of urates and uric acid crystals in joints?

A

gout

272
Q

what medical conditions occurs as a result of the bone matrix not calcifying normally in children during growth and what can is lead to?

A
  • rickets
  • leads to soft, deformed bones (can be permanent)
273
Q

what deficiency can rickets be due to?

A

insufficient dietary calcium or vitamin D

274
Q

what can insufficient calcium and vitamin D lead to in adults?

A

osteomalacia (failure of mineralization and softening of bone)

275
Q

what is the term used to describe the loss of bone mass?

A

osteoporosis

276
Q

what is the relationship between the activity of osteoclasts and osteoblasts in osteoporosis?

A

resorption by osteoclasts exceeds deposition by osteoblasts

277
Q

decrease in ______ levels in women can potentially lead to an increased risk of osteoporosis?

A

estrogen

278
Q

what vitamin is necessary for synthesis of collagen?

A

vitamin C

279
Q

what medical condition is caused by a vitamin C deficiency and is characterized by the bone matrix not being calcified?

A

scurvy

280
Q

what type of lymphoid tissue is organized into discreet structures or organs (dense or diffuse)?

A

dense

281
Q

what type of lymphoid tissue is located throughout the body and associated with mucous membranes (dense or diffuse)?

A

diffuse

282
Q

what type of lymphoid tissue is where b- and t-cells acquire surface receptors (primary or secondary)?

A

primary lymphoid tissue

283
Q

what type of lymphoid tissue is where mature b- and t-cells migrate to (primary or secondary)?

A

secondary lymphoid tissue

284
Q

malignant tumors of immune system are referred to as ______ when they involve solid organs

A

lymphomas

285
Q

malignant tumors of immune system are referred to as ______ when they involve blood

A

leukemias

286
Q

what is the term used to describe encapsulated aggregates of lymphocytes and lymphoid tissue (distributed throughout the body)?

A

lymph nodes

287
Q

what are the 4 functions of lymph nodes?

A
  • non-specific filtering of matter and microorganisms
  • interaction of circulating lymphocytes and antigens
  • aggregation, activation, and proliferation of b-cells and antibody production
  • aggregation and proliferation of t-cells and induction of cytotoxic immunity
288
Q

what type of cells within lymph nodes are derived from bone marrow and enter node via bloodstream?

A

lymphoid cell

289
Q

what is the term for antigen presenting cells within lymph nodes?

A

immune accessory cell

290
Q

what is the term used to describe macrophages at the periphery of germinal centers?

A

follicular dendritic cells

291
Q

what is the term used to describe the primary cell found in germinal centers?

A

tingible body macrohages

292
Q

where do blood vessels enter and leave the lymph node?

A

hilus

293
Q

b-cells, t-cells, and plasma cells are found in both the cortex and medulla layers (true/ false)?

A

true

294
Q

what type of cells do b-cells and t-cells migrate across within lymph nodes and where are they located?

A
  • post-capillary venules
  • paracortical zone
295
Q

what is the space beneath the capsule called adn what drains into this?

A
  • subcapsular space
  • numerous afferent lymph vessels drain into
296
Q

endothelium of sinus on side adjacent to capsule is _______ which helps to prevent _______

A
  • continuous
  • prevents leakage
297
Q

endothelium on the side adjacent to parenchyma is _______

A

discontinuous

298
Q

what are the three sinuses in the outer cortex regarding lymphatic drainage?

A
  • cortical sinuses
  • trabecular sinuses
  • peritrabecular sinuses
299
Q

what sinus is located within the less cellular medulla and contains lymphocytes, plasma cells, macrophages and converges on hilus?

A

medullary sinus

300
Q

lymphatic drainage eventually returns to bloodstream via which two ducts?

A

thoracic duct or R lymphatic duct

301
Q

what clinical significance does lymphatic drainage have?

A

tumor metastasis of tumor cells

302
Q

lymphoid follicles are located within which layer of lymph nodes?

A

cortex

303
Q

if a lymph node has germinal centers present, what does this indicate?

A

node is responding to antigen

304
Q

lymphocytes respond to antigen by increasing antibody production via what process?

A

clonal expansion

305
Q

germinal centers serve as sites for what?

A

b-cell proliferation

306
Q

what lymphatic organ is located within the mediastinum?

A

thymus

307
Q

what is a special characteristic of the thymus when viewing it on a histology slide?

A

interlobular septa or trabeculae dividing thymus into lobules

308
Q

failure of clonal deletion may result in what medical condition?

A

autoimmune diseases

309
Q

what are the 4 general functions of the thymus?

A
  • production of mature, immunocompetent Th and Tc cells
  • clonal proliferation of Tc cells
  • clonal deletion of self- antibodies
    secretion of hormones regulating t-cell development and maturation
310
Q

what 3 types of receptors/ markers to mature t-cells express?

A
  • antigen specific t-cell receptors
  • cluster of differentiation surface markers
  • class I and II human leukocyte antigen surface markers
311
Q

what type of follicle is absent in the thymus?

A

secondary follicles absent

312
Q

lymphocytes (mostly t-cells and macrophages) are located within which layer of the thymus?

A

highly cellular cortex

313
Q

b-cells, plasma cells, and macrophages can be found within which layer of the thymus?

A

les cellular, central medulla

314
Q

what three hormones does the thymus secrete?

A
  • thymotaxin
  • thymosin
  • thymopoietin
315
Q

what is the function of the three hormones secreted by the thymus?

A

attract, regulate, and promote t-cell proliferation/ differentiation into Tc, Ts, and Th cells

316
Q

what is the term used to describe when the thymus undergoes fatty infiltration and lymphatic depletion as one matures?

A

thymic involution

317
Q

because t-cells are not fully differentiated, what type of lymph vessels does the thymus LACK?

A

lacks afferent lymph vessels
NOTE - does have efferent of lymph drainage

318
Q

what is the term used to describe the connective tissue sheath that surrounds thymic blood vessels?

A

blood- thymus barrier

319
Q

what is the largest lymphoid organ in the body?

A

spleen

320
Q

the spleen recycles iron from ________

A

hemoglobin

321
Q

if the spleen is removed by an splenectomy, its function is taken over by ______ and ______ _______

A

liver and bone marrow

322
Q

unlike lymph nodes, the spleen lacks _____ and _____

A

cortex and medulla

323
Q

what two structures can be found within the red pulp of the spleen?

A
  • pulp cords
  • sinusoids
324
Q

what structure within the spleen can be seen as discrete nodules and contains large numbers of white blood cells?

A

white pulp

325
Q

what 4 structures make up the areas of white pulp within the spleen?

A
  • follicular areas (+/- germinal centers)
  • central artery
  • basophilic mantle zone
  • paler marginal zone
326
Q

what function does the white pulp serve within the spleen?

A

functions as site of antigen presentation and phagocytosis
NOTE - contains large numbers of macrophages, plasma cells, and t-helper cells

327
Q

what is the term used to describe enlarged germinal centers that can be seen by the eye?

A

splenic nodules

328
Q

what is forced by the central artery surrounded by t-cells?

A

periarteriolar lymphatic sheaths (PALS)

329
Q

what are the endothelial cells called that line sinusoids in splenic circulation?

A

stave cells

330
Q

what type of model describes circulation of spleen?

A

open circulation model

331
Q

where are palatine tonsils located between anterior and posterior tonsilar pillars?

A

tonsillar crypts

332
Q

what type of tonsils are present at the base of the tongue?

A

lingual tonsils

333
Q

what type of tonsils are present in nasopharynx and associated with eustachian tubes?

A

pharyngeal tonsils

334
Q

what is the term used to describe palatal, lingual, and pharyngeal tonsils collectively?

A

waldeyer’s ring

335
Q

what types of tonsils are referred to as nasal associated lymphoid tissue (NALT)?

A

palatal and pharyngeal tonsils

336
Q

the palatine tonsil has a distinct cortex and medulla (true/ false)?

A

false

337
Q

what type of tissue is the luminal surface of the palatine and lingual tonsils covered by?

A

stratified squamous nonkeratinized epithelium

338
Q

what organ in adults atrophies and contains mostly b-cells?

A

appendix

339
Q

if the appendix is inflamed, what is the term used to describe this condition?

A

appendicitis
NOTE - treatment with surgical removal (appendectomy)

340
Q

what does MALT stand for?

A

mucosa associated lymphoid tissue

341
Q

where are MALTs located at?

A

subepithelial connective tissue of lamina propria

342
Q

what antibody does MALT produce?

A

IgA - BOARDS QUESTION

343
Q

MALTs sample _____ material, produce _____, and secrete ________

A
  • antigenic material
  • lymphoblasts
  • secretes antibodies
344
Q

MALT in gut contain specialized ______ (squamoid enterocytes

A

m-cells

345
Q

m-cells within MALT in gut are responsible for ______ sampling and transfer from gut lumen into lymphoid follicles

A

antigen sampling

346
Q

what is the special type of MALT that is scattered throughout the small intestine?

A

Peyer’s patches

347
Q

where are Peyer’s patches within the small intestine the most and least common?

A
  • most = ileum
  • least = duodenum
348
Q

what does the respiratory tract originate as an outgrowth of?

A

GI tract

349
Q

what is the respiratory system derived from?

A

laryngotracheal groove

350
Q

the laryngotracheal groove later develops into the respiratory ________ which is an outgrowth of the esophagus

A

respiratory diverticulum

351
Q

primary functions of what system include air conduction, filtration, and gas exchange?

A

respiratory system

352
Q

what are the two secondary functions of the respiratory system?

A
  • olfaction (smell) in nasal cavity
  • phonation (vocalization/ speech) from larynx
353
Q

what type of respiration functions in gas exchange (O2 and CO2)

A

mechanical respiration

354
Q

what kind of respiration functions in O2 being carried to tissues for use in oxidative metabolism to produce ATP?

A

cellular respiration

355
Q

what structure separates the thoracic cavity from the abdominal cavity in mammals?

A

diaphragm

356
Q

during inspiration, the intrathoracic volume ______ and the pressure ______

A
  • volume - increased
  • pressure - decreased
357
Q

during iexpiration, the intrathoracic volume ______ and the pressure ______

A
  • volume - decreased
  • pressure - increased
358
Q

what are the two types of pleura lining that make up the pleura of the lungs?

A

parietal and visceral pleura

359
Q

what are the parietal and visceral pleura separated by and what can be found within this space?

A
  • pleural space
  • pleural fluid (decreases friction)
360
Q

what is the term used to describe a breach in the pleural space?

A

pneumothorax

361
Q

a pneumothorax usually remains unilateral due to loose connective tissue layer separating the left and right pleura sacs called ___________

A

mediastinum

362
Q

where does air enter the upper respiratory tract at?

A

nostrils (opens into vestibule)

363
Q

what helps to filter and trap particulate matter within the upper respiratory tract in the vestibule?

A

sinus hairs

364
Q

after air is brought in though nostrils, where does it enter that contains nasal turbinates/ conchae?

A

nasal cavity

365
Q

what type of epithelium is the nasal cavity lined by?

A

respiratory epithelium - moist, pseudostratified, ciliated, columnar, epithelium covered by mucus

366
Q

what does the nasal cavity contain that synapses with the olfactory nerve (CN I)

A

olfactory receptors

367
Q

what type of cells does olfactory epithelium contain that are columnar cells with apical microvilli?

A

brush-cells

368
Q

what is the term used to describe generalized sensory cells of olfactory and respiratory epithelia?

A

brush-cells

369
Q

after air has passed through the nasal cavity, where does it pass through next?

A

paranasal sinuses and nasopharynx

370
Q

the upper respiratory tract functions to filter, humidify, and warm ______ air

A

inspired

371
Q

the nasopharynx connects to middle ear via ______ tubes and allowed for ______ of air pressure

A
  • eustacian tubes
  • equilibration of air pressure
372
Q

what type of cells secrete mucous within respiratory epithelia?

A

goblet cells

373
Q

most glands within the upper respiratory tract are _______ glands

A

sero-mucus

374
Q

what is the term used to describe the rythm that cilia in respiratory epithelium beat in?

A

metachronal rhythm

375
Q

irritation to upper airways triggers _____ reflex

A

sneeze

376
Q

irritation to lower airways triggers _____ reflex

A

cough

377
Q

where does the lower respiratory tract begin?

A

larynx

378
Q

what functions to protect the trachea during swallowing and covers the opening of the larynx?

A

epiglottis

379
Q

if food enters the larynx of trachea, what reflex does this trigger?

A

choking

380
Q

what type of cartilage makes up the cartilages of the larynx?

A

hyaline or elastic

381
Q

what type of vocal cords are housed in the larynx?

A

true and false vocal cords

382
Q

what type of epithelium covers the false vocal cords?

A

respiratory epithelium

383
Q

what type of epithelium covers the true vocal cords?

A

stratified, squamous, nonkeratinzed epithelium

384
Q

the vocalis muscle can be found in what type of vocal cords?

A

true vocal cords

385
Q

what pharyngeal arches do the larynx and epiglottis develop from?

A

6th pharyngeal arches

386
Q

what cranial nerve innervates the larynx?

A

vagus (CN X)

387
Q

what type of epithelium lines the trachea?

A

respiratory epithelium w/ numerous goblet cells and sero-mucus glands

388
Q

what type of cartilage are the c-shaped rings of cartilage that surround the trachea composed of?

A

hyaline cartilage

389
Q

primary bronchi = ______ bronchi
secondary bronchi = _______ bronchi
tertiary bronchi = ________ bronchi

A
  • mainstem
  • lobar
  • segmental
390
Q

beyond what layer of bronchi is cartilage absent?

A

3’ bronchi

391
Q

what type of epithelium lines all bronchi?

A

respiratory epithelium

392
Q

what is the term used to describe air in the upper respiratory tract, trachea, and bronchi NOT used for gas exchange?

A

dead space

393
Q

what structure within the respiratory tract lacks cartilage and sero-mucus glands (smooth muscle performs support function instead)?

A

bronchioles

394
Q

as bronchioles get smaller, general trend towards thinning of ______ with loss of _____ cells

A
  • epithelium
  • goblet cells
395
Q

what type of epithelium is within terminal bronchioles?

A

tall, pseudostratified, ciliated columnar epithelium

396
Q

what type of epithelium is within respiratory bronchioles?

A

simple, cuboidal to columnar, ciliated & non-ciliated epithelium with occasional alveoli

397
Q

where does gas exchange occur at?

A

level of respiratory bronchioles

398
Q

what structures contain numerous alveoli lined with simple, squamous epithelium?

A

alveolar ducts

399
Q

what type of cell replaced goblet cells within terminal and respiratory bronchioles?

A

clara cells

400
Q

what type of cells produce lipoproteins which is the primary components of surfactant within airways?

A

clara cells

401
Q

what type of cells are scattered throughout the respiratory tract and secrete various GI hormones?

A

bronchioles

402
Q

what type of cells are present within bronchioles and act as generalized sensory cells (columnar with apical microvilli)?

A

brush cells

403
Q

where are MALT found in the respiratory tract?

A

lamina propria

404
Q

what is the primary function of MALT within the respiratory tract?

A

secretion of IgA onto mucosal surface

405
Q

in the respiratory tract, deep the mucosa is muscularis mucosae which is prominent in smaller airways as _______ ______

A

alveolar rings

406
Q

what type of epithelium lines alveolar ducts and alveoli?

A

simple squamous epithelium

407
Q

what is the term used to describe the walls between alveoli?

A

alveolar septa

408
Q

what is the term used to describe the structure within septa that allow for communication spaces between alveoli?

A

alveolar pores

409
Q

what type of pneumocytes are flatted epithelial cells modified for gas exchange?

A

type I pneumocytes

410
Q

what type of pneumocytes possess lamellar bodies containing phospholipid?

A

type II pneumocytes

411
Q

what type of pneumocytes has its contents secreted as surfactant?

A

type II pneumocytes

412
Q

what medical condition arises as a result of lack of surfactant and is the primary problem for premature infants?

A

respiratory distress syndrome

413
Q

alveolar macrophages can also be called ______ cells

A

dust cells

414
Q

indirect lymph drainage of alveoli is via interstitium of ________ _______

A

interalveolar septa

415
Q

what two medical conditions can arise from lymphatic obstruction?

A
  • pleural effusion
  • pulmonary edema
416
Q

what medical condition can be bacterial or viral and is described as an infection of the lung with increased inflammatory cell infiltrate?

A

pneumonia

417
Q

infections associated with pneumonia may lead to ________ production of pleural fluid

A

decreased

418
Q

what medical condition results in the formation of multifocal nodules or tubercles where bacterial foci are surrounded by inflammatory cells within the lungs?

A

tuberculosis

419
Q

mucus production is _______ in response to smoking

A

increased

420
Q

what is the primary cause of lung cancer?

A

smoking

421
Q

what structure within respiratory epithelium does smoking impair?

A

cilia - lose synchronicity then die

422
Q

what medical condition is characterized by permanent enlargement of alveoli?

A

emphysema

423
Q

COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease) is a term used to refer to the collection of what three diseases?

A
  • bronchitis
  • asthma
  • emphysema
424
Q

in emphysema, we see chronic obstruction of the airways that causes destruction to ______ _______ and thus _______ the surface area for gas exchange

A
  • alveolar septa
  • decreases
425
Q

______ is characterized by chronic airway obstruction, inflammation and increased responsiveness which leads to exaggerated bronchoconstriction

A

asthma

426
Q

what is asthma initiated by?

A

formation of antigen/ antibody complexes on cell membranes

427
Q

in asthma, what two substances do mast cells release and what are their effects?

A
  • histamine and SRS
  • smooth muscle contraction of bronchioles and vasodilation
428
Q

in asthma, what two substances are released by eosinophils to counteract effects of histamine?

A

histaminase and eosinophil derived inhibitor

Histology (3 decks)

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