histo exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what are functional units of living organisms?

A

cells (can differentiate to perform special functions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are anatomically discreet collections of tissues?

A

organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the cells that make up the functional elements of an organ (main actors)?

A

parenchyma cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the cells that makeup the structural framework of an organ (background tissue)?

A

stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is fluid tissue, contained within vessels of circulatory system?

A

blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what surrounds and supports other tissue?

A

connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what covers body surfaces, lines cavities, and forms glands?

A

epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what contains specialized contractile cells responsible for movement?

A

muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what contains modified cells responsible for intracellular communication?

A

nervous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what do you use to prevent tissue denaturation (37% formaldehyde)?

A

formalin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what type of stain stains blue, basic dye, stains acids (nuclei)

A

hematoxylin (basophilic - blue/ purple)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what type of stain stains red-pink, acidic dye, stains bases (proteins)?

A

eosin (eosinophilic - red/ pink)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what functions as a semi-permeable membrane within a cell?

A

cell membrane (plasmalemma)
amphipathic (contains both hydrophilic and hydrophobic parts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what does the hydrophilic portion of a cell contain?

A

positively charged N groups and charged phosphate groups

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what does the hydrophobic portion of a cell contain?

A

two long chain fatty acids covalently linked to glycerol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what type of appearance does the cell membrane have?

A

tri-laminar (2 electron dense layers - phospholipid heads separated by electron lucent layer - FA tails)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how does the fluidity of a membrane change with increasing temperature?

A

fluidity increases with increasing temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how does the fluidity of a membrane change with decreasing of saturation of FA’s

A

high fluidity with lower saturation of FA’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how does the fluidity of a membrane change with cholesterol levels?

A

higher amounts of cholesterol stiffens membrane (lower fluidity)
present in 1:1 ratio with phospholipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are proteins on surface of membrane termed?

A

extrinsic or peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what are proteins incorporated within the membrane termed?

A

intrinsic or integral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is another term for intrinsic proteins that extend from one side of the membrane to the other?

A

transmembrane proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what is the main difference between pores and channels in transmembrane proteins?

A

pores - always open
channels - can open and close

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what type of membrane proteins involved in transport serves to transport ions across the membrane (Na+/ K+ pump)?

A

pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what type of membrane proteins involved in transport allows passage of water-soluble molecules via diffusion?

A

channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what type of membrane proteins allow for cell recognition and binding on cell membrane (immune mediated reactions)?

A

receptor proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what type of membrane proteins initiate enzymatic reactions following binding with ligand molecules (hormone)?

A

transducers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what type of membrane proteins are components of ion pumps and digestive action?

A

enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what type of membrane proteins add mechanical stability to membrane?

A

structural proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what two molecules help to makeup the glycocalyx?

A

glycoproteins and glycolipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are two functions of the glycocalyx?

A

protects surface of cell membrane
may be involved in cell recognition
(important in mediating exchange between internal and external environment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what type of transport:
- occurs DOWN a conc or ionic gradient
- some agents can pass directly through cell membrane
- larger water-soluble molecules use pores or channels in transmembrane proteins

A

simple diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what type of transport:
- passive and concentration dependent but requires carrier molecules
- also called carrier mediated diffusion
- reversible binding and unbinding to transport water-soluble hydrophilic molecules

A

facilitated diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

types of ion channels (transmembrane proteins)

A

ungated channels - always open (pores)
gated channels - open or closed (selective permeability)

voltage gating (requires change in membrane potential)
chemical gating (requires binding of signaling molecule)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

how can passive and facilitated diffusion be enhanced?

A

increase in surface area of a cell membrane via folding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what type of channel allows water to cross plasma membrane faster than simple diffusion alone?

A

aquaporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what type of transport:
- independent of concentration (usually against conc gradient)
- requires energy (ATP to ADP)
- occurs at specialized dynamic pore sites (usually transmembrane proteins)

A

active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what type of transport:
- requires energy
- engulfment of molecules or particles by cytoplasmic extensions
- result in membrane bound endocytic vacuoles (endosomes)

A

bulk (vesicular) transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what are the two types of endocytosis?

A

phagocytosis - engulfment of solid particulate matter
pinocytosis - engulfment of liquids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what type of endocytosis requires extracellular molecules bind to receptor proteins (uses clathrin)?

A

receptor mediated endocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

any type of bulk transport or vesicular movement from cytoplasm to ECS

A

exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what term is used for transport of material across or through the cell via sequential endocytosis followed by exocytosis?

A

transcytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

examples of prokaryotes and eukaryotes

A

prokaryotes - monera, cyanobacteria
eukaryotes - single celled protists, protozoa, multi celled metazoans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what makes up protoplasm?

A

70-85% water, electrolytes, proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is the term for the semi-liquid contents between cell membrane and nuclear membrane, surrounds organelles?

A

cytoplasm / cytosol

nucleoplasm - within nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what organelle contains the genome of DNA and makes up <20% of nuclear mass?

A

nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the term for what is formed from DNA complexed with nucleoproteins?

A

chromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is chromatin packaged into?

A

chromosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are segments of DNA coding for particular traits?

A

genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is the term for different forms of the same gene?

A

alleles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how do chromosomes exist in most eukaryotic cells?

A

homologous pairs (diploid in humans - 2n = 46)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is the term for sorting of chromosome pairs according to size and shape?

A

karyotyping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what type of chromatin is electron dense, darkly staining, inactive DNA and nucleoproteins?

A

heterochromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what type of chromatin is dispersed DNA active in transcription (RNA synthesis) and unravels to become visible as lamp brush chromosomes?

A

euchromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the term for a permanently inactive DNA (X chromosome) in females?

A

barr body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what will cells in active translation have?

A

prominent nucleolus and abundant euchromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

in what state is most chromatin in the nucleus usually found?

A

heterochromatin… only a small % active at any one time as euchromatin (constantly changing with protein synthesis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is the term for most of DNA-associated protein in eukaryotes that help to assist in DNA folding and chromatin organization into chromosomes?

A

histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the term for segments of DNA that wrap around several histones and regulate DNA activity?

A

nucleosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the term for additional category of nucleoproteins that may also be involved in regulation of gene activity?

A

non-histones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what separates the nucleoplasm from the cytoplasm?

A

nuclear envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

how many layers make up the nuclear envelope and what separates them?

A

2 layers (inner and outer nuclear membrane)
separated by perinuclear cisterna

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what type of filaments help to make up the nuclear lamina and provides support to the membrane?

A

lamin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what are the inner and outer nuclear membranes connected by that contains nucleoproteins and allowed for communication between cytoplasm and nuceloplasm?

A

nuclear pore complex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what are the two subunits of ribosomes?

A

40S and 60S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

where are ribosomes synthesized and found within a cell?

A

synthesized and assembled in nucleolus
found free in cytoplasm, attached to rER and outer nuclear membrane
often grouped together as polyribosomes or polysomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what organelle is commonly termed the power house of the cell and why does it have this nickname?

A

mitochondria
site of Kreb’s cycle and oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what two types of cells are mitochondria NOT present in?

A

red blood cells and keratinocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

how many membranes do mitochondria have and which one is permeable?

A

2 membranes (inner and outer)
outer membrane is permeable and contains porin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

which membrane of mitochondria is pleated to form folds that is lined with elementary particles that contain enzymes for oxidative phosphorylation?

A

inner membrane (folds = cristae)
inner cavity is filled with amorphous matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what organelle possesses circular DNA (maternally inherited) and are self replicating?

A

mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

where does cell respiration begin and with what process?

A

occurs in cytoplasm
glycolysis which breaks down glucose into pyruvate
DOES NOT require oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

where does pyruvate then diffuse so that it can undergo aerobic respiration?

A

mitochondrial martix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

during what process is most ATP produced by cytochromes of the ETC?

A

oxidative phosphorylation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what are the enzymes on the inner membrane of cristae?

A

cytochromes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what organelle is a series of membranous sheets and tubules throughout the cytoplasm?

A

endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what type of ER has surface receptor molecules for ribosomal attachment and is the site for protein synthesis?

A

rough ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what type of ER functions in lipid synthesis, transports proteins from rER to golgi, membrane formation / recycling, cholesterol / steroid hormones synthesis, and detoxification of drugs and toxins?

A

smooth ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is the term for the “little taxis” that surround and coat proteins for transport, bud off of sER, transport proteins between sER and golgi and between golgi and cell surface?

A

coated vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is the name of the organelle that functions in post-translational modification, packaging, and sorting of proteins synthesized in rER?

A

golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

which face of the golgi is convex?

A

cis (forming face)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

which face of the golgi is concave?

A

trans (maturing face)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

how are proteins packaged into vesicles for secretion?

A

packaged into clathrin coated vesicles along the maturing face of the golgi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is the name of the organelle that are membrane bound vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes?

A

lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is the term for newly formed lysosomes produced by rER and golgi (inactive form)?

A

1’ lysosomes (primary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is the term for primary lysosomes that fuse with phagocytic vesicles (phagosomes) and become active?

A

phagolysosomes (2’ lysosomes - secondary)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what is the term for lysosomes that are involved in hydrolytic breakdown?

A

3’ lysosomes or residual body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is the term used to describe programmed cell death (aka autophagy)

A

apoptosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is the name of a membrane bound vesicle that is a type of endocytic vesicle with an acid pH in lumen (due to proton pumps in membrane)?

A

endosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is the name of a membrane bound vesicle that contains oxidative enzymes (oxidases), catalase, and peroxidase?

A

peroxisomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what do peroxisomes use to oxidize toxic metabolites?

A

enzymes, free radicals, hydrogen peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what is the term for non-living components of a cell that include: neutral fat droplets, lipids, glycogen, secretory / pigment granules, and can also be viral?

A

inclusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what is the name of the intracytoplasmic pigment that gives a black / brown granular pigment produced by melanocytes and is transporter to other cells?

A

melanin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what is the name of the intracytoplasmic pigment that gives a gold / brown granules and is frequently seen in neurons (sometimes called old age pigment)

A

lipofuscin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what are the four main functions of the cytoskeleton?

A
  • provide structural support for membrane and organelles
  • intracellular movement / transport of substances
  • cell locomotion
  • muscle contration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what are the three main elements of the cytoskeleton?

A

microfilaments, intermediate filaments, microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what type of filament is important in maintaining cell shape and facilitating shape changes during movement?

A

mircofilaments (actin and myosin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

how are larger actin filaments made from the smaller g-actin subunits?

A
  1. smaller g-actin subunits polymerize to form protofilaments
  2. 2 protofilaments twist together to form a double helix (f-actin)
  3. these can then combine to form larger actin filaments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what protein does actin link with beneath the plasma membrane to form the cell cortex (terminal web)?

A

filamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what function does the cell cortex serve?

A

prevents cell from deformation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what microfilament is classified as a motor protein along with dynein and kinesin?

A

myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what microfilament do myosin heads form cross bridges with between adjacent filaments?

A

actin filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is required for movement of filaments for muscle contraction?

A

calcium and ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

which type of filament is useful in immunohistochemistry and tumor ID?

A

intermediate filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

which type of intermediate filament is a characteristic of all epithelial cells, found in the epidermis of skin and forms tonofibrils?

A

(cyto)keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

which type of intermediate filament is found in medodermal cells of mesenchymal origin (includes endothelial cells, muscle and neutoectodermal cells)?

A

vimentin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

which type of intermediate filament is unique to muscle cells and mesodermal in origin?

A

desmin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

which type of intermediate filament is present in nerve cells (neurons)

A

neurofilament proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

which type of intermediate filament is found in glial (support) cells of nervous system (astrocytes)

A

glial fibrillary acidic protein (GFAP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

which type of intermediate filament forms a layer on the inside of the nuclear membrane?

A

lamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what type of filament is composed of alpha and beta tubulin (globular protein subunits) that are arranged in a coiled spiral pattern and polymerize to form hollow tubes?

A

microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what type of filament is involved in cell movement, maintenance of cell shape, and intracellular transport of substances?

A

microtubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

how does movement occur when talking about microtubules?

A

addition or subtraction of tubulin subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what motor proteins attach microtubules to organelles and allow for movement in cytoplasm?

A

dynein and kynesin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what cell structures can we find microtubules in?

A

cilia and flagella
centrioles
basal bodies of cilia
mitotic spindles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

why are drugs like colchicine, vincristine, and vinblastin used chemotherapy?

A

inhibit polymerization of microtubules and cell division
NOTE - drugs are nonspecific and can not tell a difference between cancer cell and regular cell (explains why cancer patients lose hair)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

what cell structure has 9 pairs of microtubules (peripheral doublets) containing dynein arms arranged in circle with central doublet in middle (9 + 2 structure)

A

axoneme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

how does the central doublet of an axoneme connect to peripheral doublets?

A

radial spokes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

how to peripheral doublets connect to one another in axoneme?

A

nexin (protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

in cilia, where does the axoneme grow from?

A

basal body derived from modified centriole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

where are centrioles normally located within a cell and what do they function in?

A

located in region of cell called centrosome (near nucleus)
function in cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what does each centriole consist of?

A

9 triplets of microtubules arranged in a cylinder

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

what controls distribution of chromosomes in daughter cells that is made up of microtubules?

A

mitotic spindle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what are the five phases of mitosis?

A

interphase, prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what is the phase of the cell cycle that is considered the resting phase or time between divisions (occupies most of life of cell)?

A

interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what is the longest cell phase during which cell growth, maturation, and differentiation occur?

A

G1 (1st gap phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what are the two ways that growth of a tissue can occur?

A

hypertrophy - increase in cell size (occurs during G1)
hyperplasia - increase in cell number (occurs during mitosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

what phase of the cell cycle does replication of DNA occur prior to division?

A

S phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what is the chromosome number at the beginning and end of S phase (mitosis)?

A

beginning - 2n
end - 4n

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

prior to replication in S phase, each chromosome has a __ chromatid with attached centromere

A

single

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

following replication in S phase, each chromosome contains __ chromatids with attached centromere

A

two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

during what cell phase does the cell prepare for mitosis and we see synthesis of ATP and tubulin for mitotic spindle?

A

G2 (2nd gap phase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

M phase of mitosis is characterized by what two divisions that result in 2 daughter cells?

A

karyokinesis - nuclear division
cytokinesis - cytoplasmic division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

during what phases do chromosomes condense, become visible, and look like coiled snakes?

A

S and M phases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

during what phases do chromosomes exist in an unraveled mess that are not readily visible?

A

G1 and G0 phases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what is the term for cells that retain capacity for division with proper stimulus after entering the G0 phase (reserve stem cells)?

A

facultative dividers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what the the term for cells that lost the capacity to divide after entering G0 phase (neurons, cardiac myocytes)?

A

terminally differentiated cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

during what phase of mitosis do cells become visible condensed, microfilaments and microtubules of cytoskeleton disaggregate, and centrioles migrate to poles of cell to form spinal apparatus?

A

prophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

during what phase of mitosis does the nuclear membrane and nucleoli disappear and the mitotic spindle attaches to chromosomes at kinetochore?

A

prometaphase (late prophase)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

during what phase of mitosis do chromosomes line up along equator (metaphase plate)?

A

metaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

during what phase of mitosis do centromeres split apart and chromosomes migrate to opposite ends of cell (pulled by microtubules connecting centriole and kinetochore)

A

anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

during what phase of mitosis does mitotic spindle disaggregate, nuclear envelope reassembles, nucleoli reappear, plasma membrane forms cleavage furrow and cytokinesis begins?

A

telophase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

what is the term used to describe proportion of cells in a tissue in mitosis at any given time and why is it important

A

mitotic index
important in tumors - estimated by counting number of mitotic figures (normally <1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

what is the term used to describe the production of haploid gametes (eggs and sperm)

A

gametogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

name of gamete formation in males and females

A

males - spermatogenesis
females - oogenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

what cell division process involves chromosomal duplication followed by two consecutive cell divisions to produce haploid gametes?

A

meiosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

what does the fusion of gametes (fertilization) produce?

A

diploid zygote (fertilized egg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

what are the two main differences in mitosis and meiosis I?

A
  • during prophase I, homologous pairs of chromosomes form tetrads and exchange chromatin via crossing over (chiasmata formation)
  • centromeres DO NOT split during anaphase I
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

NOTES TO MAKE ABOUT SECOND MEIOTIC DIVISION

A
  • interkinesis - NO replication of DNA
  • no crossing over during prophase II
  • centromeres split during anaphase II
  • cytokinesis yields four unique haploid gametes in telophase II
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

how many functional gametes are formed during gametogenesis within males and females?

A

males - 3 or 4 viable gametes
females - 1 functional gamete with 2-3 non-functional polar bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

when does spermatogenesis and oogenesis begin in males and females?

A

males - beings at puberty
females - beings during fetal development
NOTE - female germ cells enter prophase I during 5th month of gestation and remain until ovulation (12-50 years later)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

what is the term for a cell undergoing apoptosis where we see condensation of nuclear chromatin and shrinkage of the nucleus?

A

pyknosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

what are some characteristics that we can see from staining a cell that is undergoing apoptosis?

A
  • nucleus becomes very small and darkly stained (pyknotic nucleus)
  • cell swells as a result of influx of water due to loss of ATP to maintain Na+/ K+ pumps
  • cytoplasm becomes bright pink (eosinophilic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

what is the term for chromatin in the nucleus beginning to degenerate during apoptosis?

A

karyolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

what is a term for nuclear material beginning to fragment and nuclear membrane disintegration during apoptosis?

A

karyorhexis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

what is another name for fragmented nuclear debris?

A

apoptotic bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

what is the term for death of cells as a result is inflammation, traumatic injury, or pathology?

A

necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

plasma makes of how much of total blood volume?

A

55% of blood volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

what is the serum of blood made up of?

A

plasma minus clotting factors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

what are three main functions of blood / blood stream?

A
  • primary vehicle for transport of nutrients, O2, CO2, waste products and hormones
  • thermoregulation
  • maintenance of homeostasis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

type of plasma protein that makes up the bulk of plasma proteins (all synthesized in liver), function as transport for proteins for insoluble metabolites, and are responsible for maintaining colloid osmotic pressure in blood vessels

A

albumins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

type of plasma protein that are large molecules used as transport proteins for lipids and heavy metal ions (largest fraction - immunoglobins)

A

globulins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

type of plasma protein that are the largest proteins, soluble, and synthesized in the liver… polymerize to form insoluble fibrin during clotting

A

fibrinogens
(prothrombin - thrombin catalyzes fibrinogen - fibrin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

what are the components of blood formed in bone marrow via hemopoiesis?

A

red blood cells
white blood cells
platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

what is hematocrit?

A

volume of red blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

what is the term that describes genetic neoplasia (higher than normal rbc count)

A

polycythemia vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

what makes up the packed cell volume

A

hematocrit +/- buffy coat (depending on source)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

what makes up the buffy coat?

A

white blood cells and platelets (1-2%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

what term describes the general process by which mature blood cells develop from precursor cells?

A

hemopoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

what term describes the process of red blood cell production?

A

erythropoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

what term describes the process of white blood cell production?

A

myeolpoiesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

hemopoiesis is under control by which hormone secreted by the kidney?

A

erythropoietin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

how does the relationship of active sites of blood cell production relate to age?

A

number of active sites decreases with age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

what is the difference between red and yellow bone marrow?

A

red marrow - active (contains large numbers of mature rbc’s)
yellow (fatty) marrow - inactive (adipose tissue gives yellow color)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

stages of erythropoiesis (start to finish)

A

stem cell (CFU-E)
proerythroblast
erythroblst
normoblast
reticulocyte
mature rbc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

what are the overall trends in erythropoiesis?

A

progressive decrease in cell size
loss of nucleus and organelles
increase in hemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

what are some of the defining characteristics of rbc’s?

A
  • no nucleus in mammals
  • before released into blood stream - nucleus extruded and all organelles degenerate
  • lack mitochondria (make ATP via glycolysis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

what is the term for occasional, basophilic nuclear remnants visible within cytoplasm?

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

what is the term for immature rbc’s with stippled cytoplasm, still have some rRNA and are slightly larger than mature rbc’s?

A

reticulocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

what is the term for an increase number of reticulocytes in circulation associated with chronic blood loss, hemolytic anemia (aka left shift)?

A

reticulocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

vitamin B12 and B9 deficiency can lead to what?

A

large cells called macrocytes (delayed maturation of rbc’s)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

what is the term for large numbers of erythrocyte precursors in peripheral blood?

A

megaloblastic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

what size are erythrocytes?

A

6-8 um diameter biconcave discs (allow for deformability)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

what is the primary structural protein in rbc’s?

A

spectrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

transport of what gases are erythrocytes involved in?

A

O2 and CO2 exchange
contain large amounts of Fe containing pigment (hemoglobin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

what disease can occur from low levels of Fe or blood loss?

A

anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

what are some characteristics of rbc’s if a person has Fe deficient anemia?

A

small (microcytic) and pale staining (hypochromic)
(normal rbc’s are normocytic and normochromic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

what disease is caused by a single amino acid substitution that causes a 3D change in structure of Hb molecule?

A

sickle cell anemia (causes these cells to be more fragile and easily damaged)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

what is a term for small, non-nucleated cells containing organelles?

A

platlets (thrombocytes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

how are platelets formed?

A

formed from large, polyploid cells in bone marrow (megakaryocytes) which develop pleated demarcation channels in cytoplasm (platelets then tear off)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

what is the term used to describe the result of cascade interaction between plasma proteins and coagulation factors?

A

coagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

explain what the two convergent pathways of coagulation entail

A

extrinsic (faster) - initiated by release of tissue thromboplastin as a result of tissue damage

intrinsic (slower) - initiated by exposure of collagen (requires numerous clotting factors and is a longer cascade reaction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

what happens after the wall of a blood vessel breaks (think of both coagulation pathways)?

A
  • releases thromboplastin (initiates extrinsic pathway)
  • exposes collagen (initiates intrinsic pathway)
  • platelets mechanically adhere to exposed collagen and release serotonin (vasoconstrictor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

at what point do the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways converge to form the common pathway for coagulation?

A

where factor X is activated
results in conversion of prothrombin to thrombin, converts soluble fibrinogen, into soluble fibrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

what are two anticoagulants?

A

antithrombin III and heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

what is hemophilia a result of (present on X chromosome)?

A

deficiency in clotting factors so blood can’t clot (defect in intrinsic pathway)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

how are leukocytes (WBC) able to leave circulation?

A

migration
pavementing (rolling and adhesion)
diapedesis
extravasation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

how are leukocytes attracted to inflammatory sites?

A

chemotaxis via cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

how are white blood cells categorized (2 categories)?

A

granulocytes (possessing granules)
agranulocytes (lacking granules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

what type of granules do all WBC’s possess?

A

primary granules (stain blue/ purple - azurophilic granules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

what type of enzymes do primary granules contain?

A

lysosomal enzymes (acid hydrolases)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

what type of granules do granulocytes possess?

A

primary and secondary granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

what are the three types of granulocytes?

A

neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

what type of granulocyte makes up 40-75% of WBC’s?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

how many lobes does the nucleus of a neutrophil have?

A

3-5 lobes (polymorphonuclear cells)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

what type of energy metabolism does neutrophils use?

A

primary anaerobic glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

how do secondary granules stain in neutrophils?

A

either basophilic or eosinophilic (neutral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

which type of granulocyte contains inflammatory mediators, complement activators, proteases, defensins, lactoferrin, lysozoyme (actibacterial compounds) and are released during inflammatory reaction?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

what do the tertiary granules of neutrophils contain?

A

gelatinase (breaks down collagen)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

how long does acute inflammation last?

A

several days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

how long does subacute inflammation last?

A

1 week to 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

how long does chronic inflammation last?

A

more than 10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

which granulocyte is associated with acute inflammation (lasting several days)?

A

neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

what are redness (rubor), swelling (tumor), heat (calore), and pain (et dolore) cardinal signs of?

A

inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

how are neutrophils attracted to bacteria and damaged tissue?

A

chemotactic factors

216
Q

what type of granulocyte functions in primary phagocytosis and can be increased via opsonization?

A

neutrophils

217
Q

what is the term for bacterial killing by generating hydrogen peroxide and hypochlorous acid?

A

respiratory burst

218
Q

what is a term used to describe immature neutrophils?

A

stab cells (band cells)

219
Q

what is the least common WBC making up <1% with a bilobed nucleus?

A

basophils

220
Q

what type of granulocyte is the equivalent of mast cells in tissue?

A

basophils

221
Q

what granulocyte can be characterized by large basophilic specific granules?

A

basophils

222
Q

what do specific granules of basophils contain?

A

hydrolytic enzymes
heparin sulfate (anticoagulant)
chondroitin sulfate (proteoglycan)
histamine
leukotrienes
- (slow reacting substance of anaphylaxis)
- (eosinophilic chemotactic factor)

223
Q

what is the term for release of granule contents into ECS?

A

degranulation

224
Q

what type of WBC counteracts the effects of basophils?

A

eosinophils

225
Q

what type of granulocyte makesup 1-6% of WBC’s and has a bilobed nucleus?

A

eosinophils

226
Q

which granulocyte has surface receptors for IgE?

A

eosinophils

227
Q

what type of reactions are eosinophils important in to counteract the effects of basophils?

A

hypersensitivity reactions

228
Q

by which factor are eosinophils chemotactically attracted to basophils and mast cells?

A

eosinophilic chemotactic factor

229
Q

what inhibitor is released by eosinophils and inhibits basophil and mast cell degranulation?

A

eosinophil derived inhibitor

230
Q

which type of granulocyte has antiparasitic function (especially against flukes) and affinity for antigen/ antibody complexes

A

eosinophils

231
Q

what are monocytes and lymphocytes examples of?

A

agranulocytes
NOTE - have unlobed nucleus and only primary (axurophilic) granules

232
Q

what type of WBC (agranulocyte) makes up 2-10% of WBC’s and is the largest of WBC’s?

A

monocytes

233
Q

what are two defining characteristics of monocytes?

A
  • abundant gray/blue - lavender cytoplasm
  • large indented (kidney bean shaped) nucleus
234
Q

what is the term for monocytes that have left the blood stream and entered tissues?

A

macrophages (histiocytes)

235
Q

what type of agranulocyte is active in subacute chronic infections?

A

monocytes

236
Q

what type of WBC (agranulocyte) can fuse together to become multinucleate epitheloid giant cells in chronic granulomas?

A

monocytes

237
Q

what type of agranulocyte can function as antigen presenting cells in lymphoid organs?

A

monocytes

238
Q

what type of agranulocyte makes up about 20-45% of WBC’s and is present in subacute to chronic infections?

A

lymphocytes

239
Q

what is a defining characteristic of lymphocytes?

A

round, densely staining nucleus surrounded by thin rim of cytoplasm

240
Q

what are the two types of lymphocytes?

A

b-cells and t-cells
NOTE - lymphocytes are the primary cell of immune system (recirculating, immunocompetent cells)

241
Q

what type of lymphocyte is formed in the bone marrow and becomes immunocompetent in bone marrow?

A

b-cells

242
Q

what type of lymphocyte functions in humorally mediated immune responses and produces antibodies?

A

b-cells

243
Q

explain what amplification or clonal expansion is

A

after encountering antigen, b-cells undergo multiple divisions to produce clone of antibody producing plasma cells

244
Q

what is the term for b-cells and t-cells that DO NOT replicate but remain as long-lived _____?

A

memory cells or effector cells

245
Q

what type of response do memory or effector cells function in?

A

anamnestic response or humoral immunity
(premise of vaccination)

246
Q

what type of lymphocyte can function as an antigen presenting cell?

A

b-cells

247
Q

b-cells have what surface marker along with surface immunoglobulins to mark them as “self”?

A

HLA - human leukocyte antigen

248
Q

what type of lymphocyte is formed in the bone marrow but migrates to the thymus to become immunocompetant?

A

t-cells (thymus-dependent)

249
Q

what type of immunity are t-cells responsible for?

A

cell-mediated immunity

250
Q

what is the term for receptors on the cell surface of t-cells (like those present on antibodies)?

A

paratopes

251
Q

what is the term for surface receptors on t-cells that recognize foreign proteins of antigens?

A

epitopes

252
Q

cytotoxic, suppressor, and helper lymphocytes are what type of cell?

A

t-cells

253
Q

what type of t-cell is the primary effector in cell-mediated immunity and tend to be large lymphocytes?

A

cytotoxic or killer t-cells

254
Q

what type of t-cell recognized cells with foreign surface antigens / receptors and kills them by punching holes in the plasma membrane?

A

cytotoxic or killer t-cells

255
Q

what type of t-cell detects invaders and sounds the chemical alarm?

A

helper t-cells

256
Q

cells that secrete lymphokines (cytokines) that stimulate b-cells for antibody production or recruit killer cells are what type of t-cell?

A

helper t-cells

257
Q

what type of t-cell suppresses activity of b-cells to dampen the immune response, especially to self molecules?

A

suppressor cells

258
Q

the loss of control of what type of t-cell can result in autoimmune diseases?

A

suppressor t-cells

259
Q

what type of lymphocyte lacks specific cell surface markers of either b-cells or t-cells but has Fc receptors?

A

null cells

260
Q

natural killer cells are a type of _____?

A

null cell

261
Q

which type of lymphocyte is responsible for NONSPECIFIC cytotoxicity against virus infected and tumor cells and can function in antibody dependent cell mediated cytotoxicity?

A

null cells

262
Q

what makes up the complete blood count (CBC)?

A

total number of WBC’s

263
Q

what makes up the differential cell count?

A

relative percentages of WBC’s

264
Q

mnemonic to remember relative concentrations of WBC’s

A

NLMEB - never let monkeys eat bananas

265
Q

what does a high WBC count suggest and what are its suffixes?

A

infection / tumor
(-philia and -osis)

266
Q

what does a low WBC count suggest and what is its suffix?

A

immune suppression / tumor
(-penia)

267
Q

what does a high neutrophil count suggest?

A

acute inflammation, bacterial inflammation

268
Q

what does a high lymphocyte (and monocyte) count suggest?

A

subacute inflammation nd viral infection

269
Q

what does a high eosinophil count suggest?

A

allergic reaction, parasitic infection

270
Q

what does neutropenia suggest (low WBC count)?

A

acute viral infection or severe sepsis

271
Q

what does thrombocytopenia suggest (low WBC count)?

A

low platelets (associated with clotting disorders)

272
Q

what functions does connective tissue serve (5)?

A
  • provides structural support
  • provides metabolic support for other tissues and organs
  • carries blood vessels
  • functions in tissue repair
    -mediates exchange of nutrients / metabolites and waste products between tissue and circulation
273
Q

what is primitive connective tissue derived from?

A

mesodermal mesenchyme

274
Q

what does mature connective tissue contain?

A

cells and extracellular matrix (secreted by cells)

275
Q

what are cells in connective tissue that look pointed, elongate, and spindle shaped?

A

fibroblasts

276
Q

what cells of connective tissue synthesize and maintain proteinaceous ground substance and connective tissue fibers (collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers)

A

fibroblasts

277
Q

what are fibroblasts with contractile ability called?

A

myofibroblasts

278
Q

what is the cell in connective tissue of lymph nodes and bone marrow (type of fibroblast)?

A

reticular cells (reticulum cells)

279
Q

what do reticular cells resemble?

A

branched fibroblasts

280
Q

what type of fiber do reticular cells synthesize and what type of function does it have?

A
  • reticular fiber (made out of reticulin)
  • phagocytic function
281
Q

what is the cell in connective tissue responsible for storage and metabolism of lipids?

A

adipocytes

282
Q

what cell in connective tissue resembles a large balloon shaped cell with clear spaces filled with lipid?

A

adipocytes

283
Q

what is another term for extracellular organic matrix?

A

ground substance

284
Q

what three fibers can be found in the ground substance of connective tissue?

A

collagen, reticulin, and elastin

285
Q

what is a principle fiber in the extracellular matrix of connective tissue that provides tensile strength and is based on amino acid sequence?

A

collagen

286
Q

what type of collagen makes up 90% of collagen in the body and makes up loose & dense connective tissue of skin, tendons, ligaments, bone and fibrocartilage?

A

type 1 (type I)

287
Q

what type of collagen are hyaline cartilage and elastic cartilage examples of?

A

type 2 (type II)

288
Q

what type of collagen is made up of reticulin fibers, function in structural support for organs, and are produced by reticular cells in lymph nodes, bone marrow and fibroblasts?

A

type 3 (type III)

289
Q

what type of collagen is argyrophilic (stains black with silver stain)?

A

type 3 (type III)

290
Q

what type of collagen is found in the basement membrane and doesn’t form fibers?

A

type 4 (type IV)

291
Q

what type of collagen makes up the cornea, placenta and dermo-epidermal junctions?

A

type 5 (type V)

292
Q

what type of collagen is involved in Ehlers-Danlos syndrome and is characterized by hyperextension of joints, skin, fragility, and poor would healing?

A

type 5 (type V)

293
Q

what type of molecule is collagen considered?

A

glyoprotein - precursor proteins produced by fibroblasts

294
Q

what is collagen initially synthesized as?

A

procollagen

295
Q

after collagen is packed into secretory vesicles and secreted in ECS, extracellular enzymatic modification occurs to form _________?

A

tropocollagen monomers

296
Q

what does polymerization of tropocollagen into larger bundles result in final formation of?

A

collagen microfibrils

297
Q

what do several collagen microfibrils combine to form?

A

collagen fiber

298
Q

what do several collagen fibers combine to form?

A

collagen bundle

299
Q

what type of fibers are highly branched, have random coiling pattern to allow for stretching, are arranged into fibers / sheets and are retractile?

A

elastin fibers

300
Q

what precursor are elastin fibers synthesized by fibroblasts to form and what to they polymerize into?

A

percursor - tropoelastin precursor
polymerizes in ECM to form elastin

301
Q

what are the two components of elastic fibers?

A

elastin and fibrillin

302
Q

what type of fiber in connective tissue has a protein core similar to collagen surrounded by microfibrils of fibrillin?

A

elastin

303
Q

what syndrome is described by the following characteristics:
- autosomal dominant condition resulting in abnormal elastic fibers
- characterized by tall stature, long limbs, and long thin fingers
- enlarged aorta with high regurgitation and increased risk of developing a dissecting aneurysm

A

Marfan’s syndrome (elastin is easily damaged by sunlight)

304
Q

fibrillin and fibronectin are examples of __________?

A

structural glycoproteins - large polypeptides with branched polysaccharide side chains

305
Q

what type of glycoprotein is found in the basement membrane?

A

fibronectin

306
Q

fibronectin aids in adhesion between cell membrane and extracellular matrix via interaction with adhesion molecules know as ______?

A

integrins

307
Q

what are the three types of non-filamentous molecules?

A

laminin, entactin, and tenascin

308
Q

what type of non-filamentous molecule is a sulfated glycoprotein, major component of basement membrane, and produced by most epithelial and endothelial cells?

A

laminin

309
Q

what type of non-filamentous molecule is a sulfated glycoprotein and binds with laminin?

A

entactin

310
Q

what type of non-filamentous molecule binds cells to extracellular matrix and is thought to be important in cell migration in developing nervous system?

A

tenascin

311
Q

what is the amorphous, transparent material with properties of a semi-fluid gel made up by long unbranched polysaccharide chains of repeating disaccharide units called?

A

ground substance

312
Q

what are non-functional or insufficient lysosomal enzymes termed?

A

mucopolysaccharidoses

313
Q

most GAG’s (glucosaminoglycan) are sulfated and covalently bound to protein molecules to form _______?

A

proteoglycans (mucroproteins)

314
Q

what type of GAG is found in most connective tissue?

A

hyaluronic acid

315
Q

what type of GAG is found in cartilage and bone?

A

chondroitin sulfate

316
Q

what type of GAG is found in cartilage, bone, cornea, and intervertebral disc?

A

keratan sulfate

317
Q

what type of GAG is found in dermis of skin, blood vessels, and heart valves?

A

dermatan sulfate

318
Q

what type of GAG is found in basement membranes, lung, and liver?

A

heparan sulfate

319
Q

what substance is made up of mostly GAG’s (1’ hyaluronic acid), proteoglycans, and water?

A

ground substance

320
Q

imcompressibility of water provides ______ of connective tissue

A

turgor pressure

321
Q

NOTE ABOUT HYALURONIC ACID (HYALURONATE)

A
  • predominant GAG in loose connective tissue
  • lacks sulfated side groups
  • several thousand sugars long
  • does NOT form proteoglycans itself but can bind with them
  • ground substance is impervious barrier to microorganisms
322
Q

what do pathogenic bacteria produce in order to destroy ground substance barrier and facilitate their spread?

A

hyaluronidase

323
Q

what is the form of connective tissue that is characterized by sparse fibers and abundant ground substance (viscous gel-like consistency), has supportive function, and is located beneath epithelia / around nerves & vessels?

A

loose (areolar) connective tissue

324
Q

what type of connective tissue provides structural support, has abundant fibers, moderate number of cells, and lesser ground substance?

A

dense connective tissue

325
Q

what are the two types of dense connective tissue?

A

regular and irregular

326
Q

what type of dense connective tissue has collagen fibers oriented parallel to each other, have densely packed fibers / cells arranged in fascicles, and are present in ligaments / tendons / aponeuroses?

A

regular (dense connective tissue)

327
Q

what type of dense connective tissue has collagen fibers oriented randomly, moderate number of fibers and few cells?

A

irregular (dense connective tissue)

328
Q

what type of connective tissue includes bone, cartilage, adipose tissue, hematopoietic tissue, lymphatic tissue, mesenchymal / mucus connective tissue (limited to embryo)?

A

specialized connective tissue

329
Q

what type of tissue contains adipocytes?

A

adipose tissue

330
Q

what cells are adipocytes derived from and what is their funciton?

A

lipoblasts - primitive mesemchyme adapted for storing fat (1’ triglycerides)

331
Q

does adipose tissue tend to be very active and does it have a high / low blood supply?

A
  • fat energetically very active
  • rich blood supple
332
Q

what type of tissue functions in energy storage, thermoregulation and as a shock absorber?

A

adipose tissue

333
Q

what type of fat in adipose tissue is UNIlocular, distributed in dermis and around intraperitoneal organs?

A

white fat

334
Q

what type of fat in adipose tissue is MULTIlocular, highly specialized and present in infants and hibernating animals?

A

brown fat

335
Q

what type of fat in adipose tissue is used in thermoregulation to maintain body temperature and is able to do so throughout use of the large number of mitochondria present?

A

brown fat

336
Q

what type of fat in adipose tissue is located in the adrenals in humans?

A

brown fat

337
Q

what does epithelia cover (3)?

A
  • covers body surfaces
    -lines body cavities
  • forms glands
338
Q

epithelial cells are characterized by production of __________ intermediate filaments

A

keratin

339
Q

where is epithelia derived from?

A

ecto- , endo -, or medoderm

340
Q

what does the ectoderm give rise to?

A
  • epidermis (hair, skin, nails, glands, mammary glands)
  • oral and anal mucosa
  • enamel organ and enamel of teeth
  • anterior pituitary (adenohypophysis)
  • inner ear
341
Q

what does the neuroectoderm give rise to?

A
  • neural tube (CNS)
    • pineal body, posterior pituitary, sensory epithelium of eye, ear and nose
  • neural crest (PNS)
    • ganglia, nerves, glial cells, adrenal medulla, melanocytes, neuroendocrine cells
342
Q

what does the mesoderm give rise to?

A
  • epithelium of kidneys and gonads
  • mesothelium (lining pleura, peritoneal, and pericardial cavities)
  • endothelium (blood and lymph vessels)
  • adrenal cortex
343
Q

what does the endoderm give rise to?

A
  • respiratory epithelium
  • alimentary epithelium (except oral / anal cavity)
  • liver, pancreas, gallbladder, thyroid, parathyroid and thymus
  • epithelial lining of tympanic cavity and Eustachian tubes
  • transitional epithelium of bladder
344
Q

what are the functions of epithelial (6)?

A
  • barrier (skin)
  • SPM
  • secretion (stomach)
  • absorption (intestines)
  • transport (cilia in trachea)
  • sensation (taste buds)
345
Q

do blood vessels penetrate epithelia?

A

no , epithelia is avascular (never penetrated by blood vessels)

346
Q

what helps to support epithelium and separates it from underlying connective tissue and blood vessels?

A

basement membrane

347
Q

how do cells of epithelium receive nutrients from underlying tissues?

A

diffusion of O2 and nutrients

348
Q

what type of epithelium lines cavities that connect with the outside world (alimentary, respiratory, or urogenital tracts)?

A

mucous membrane (mucose)

349
Q

what type of epithelium contains surface epithelium of ectoderm (or endoderm), basement membrane, supporting connective tissue (lamina propria) and sometimes layers of smooth muscle (muscularis mucosae)?

A

mucous membrane (mucosa)

350
Q

what type of epithelium lines closed body cavities (peritoneal, pleural, or pericardial cavities)?

A

serous membrane (serosa)

351
Q

what type of epithelium consists of epithelial lining, the mesothelium (mesodermally derived), basement membrane, and supporting connective tissue?

A

serous membrane (serosa)

352
Q

what type of epithelium lacks muscularis mucosae?

A

serous membrane (serosa)

353
Q

what is the name of epithelium that lines blood and lymph vessels?

A

endothelium (mesodermally derived)

354
Q

what type of epithelium is associated with variable numbers of muscle / connective tissue laters and tunics?

A

endothelium

355
Q

what is the basal surface of epithelial cells attached to?

A

basement membrane

356
Q

what is another term for extracellular matrix proteins?

A

external lamina

357
Q

what structure within a tissue provides structural support, scaffolding for growth, differentiation, and migration of cells during embryonic growth / regeneration?

A

basement membrane

358
Q

what makes up the basement membrane?

A

non-cellular, protein, and polysaccharide rich layer (acts as filter between epithelium and underlying connective tissue)

359
Q

what are the major components of the base membrane?

A
  • GAG’s (heparan sulfate)
  • type IV collagen
  • structural glycoproteins (laminin, fibronectin, and entactin)
  • large polypeptides with branched polysaccharide side chains
360
Q

what layer of the basement membrane is in contact with the basal call membrane (electron lucent layer)?

A

lamina lucida

361
Q

what layer of the basement membrane merges with surrounding tissue (electron lucent layer)?

A

lamina reticularis

362
Q

what layer of the basement membrane is anchored to underlying connective tissue by microfibrils of type IV collagen (electron dense layer)?

A

lamina densa

363
Q

how do epithelial cells adhere to one another?

A

cell junctions

364
Q

what are the three types of cell junctions?

A
  • occluding
  • adhering
  • communicating
365
Q

what is another term for occluding junctions?

A

tight junctions

366
Q

where are occluding junctions located?

A

immediately beneath luminal surface of simple columnar epithelia

367
Q

what is the term for when portions of opposing cell membranes fuse together to form a continuous band around cells?

A

zonula occludens (occluding junctions)

368
Q

what is the term for occluding junctions present between endothelial cells in wall of blood vessels?

A

fascia occludens

369
Q

what is another term for adhering junctions?

A

anchoring junctions

370
Q

what type of cell junction functions to bind cells together and act as anchoring points for cell cytoskeleton?

A

adhering junctions

371
Q

what is the term for a continuous band characterized by transmembrane glycoproteins called cadherins?

A

zonula adherens (adhering junctions)

372
Q

what type of cell junction is characterized by adjacent cell membranes not being fused together?

A

adhering junctions

373
Q

what type of adhering junction is associated with attachment plaques containing attachment proteins (desmoplakins, desmogleins, and tonofilaments)?

A

macula adherens (desmosomes) - located on lateral surface of cell

374
Q

what type of adherens junction is found on the basal surface of the cell only and helps to anchor it to the basement membrane via integrins (transmembrane receptor proteins)

A

hemidesmosomes

375
Q

what type of adherens junction is associated with high mechanical abrasion and shearing forces?

A

hemidesmosomes

376
Q

zonula occludens (tight junctions), zonula adherens (adheren junctions), and macula adherens (desmosomes) all present in a specific area is an indicator of what present?

A

junctional complex (terminal bar)

377
Q

what is another term for communicating junctions?

A

gap junctions / nexus junctions

378
Q

what type of cell junction permits passage of small molecules between adjacent cells and allowed transport of information / metabolites between cells?

A

gap junctions (communicating junctions)

379
Q

what type of cell junction is made up of hundreds of individual channels (connexons) that combine to form connexins?

A

gap junctions (communicating junctions)

380
Q

what cell surface modification resembles finger-like cytoplasmic projections that extend from the cell surface and contain actin filaments?

A

microvilli

381
Q

what cell surface modification increases surface area for absorption or secretion (striated border = intestine and brush border = renal tubes)?

A

microvilli

382
Q

what is the name of the cell surface modification that are long microvilli and found only in the epididymis of males and sensory cells of inner ear and are NON-motile?

A

sterocilia

383
Q

what cell surface modification are characterized by long, motile cytoplasmic extensions and possesses an axoneme (9+2 arrangement of microtubules)?

A

cilia

384
Q

what does each cilium arise from?

A

basal body developed from centrioles

385
Q

cilial beat in synchronous __________?

A

metachronal rhythm - has rapid, rigid, effective stroke and slower / flexible recovery stroke

386
Q

if microtubules lack dynein arms, ciliary movement is _________

A

impaired or absent

387
Q

what syndrome results in sterility in males due to non-functional flagella on sperm?

A

Kartagener’s syndrome

388
Q

what conditions arise due to absence of ciliary activity during embryonic development?

A
  • dextrocardia - heart is on right side of body
  • situs inverus - all internal organs are swapped to other side
389
Q

what condition results due to non-functional cilia on ependymal cells (line cells of brain and spinal cord) unable to circulate CSF?

A

hydrocephalus

390
Q

what are the three criteria of epithelia classification?

A
  • number of cell layers
  • shape of cells at epithelial surface
  • surface specializations (cilia, keratin)
391
Q

what are the number of layer classifications for epithelia?

A
  • simple = 1 cell layer thick
  • stratified = 2 or more cell layers
  • pseudostratified = looks stratified but its’t (all cells rest on basement membrane but NOT all cells extend to epithelial surface)
392
Q

what are the shape of cells classifications for epithelia?

A
  • squamous = flattened (width > height)
  • cuboidal = square (width = depth = height)
  • columnar = height > width
393
Q

what is the surface specialization classification for epithelia?

A

ciliated

394
Q

what type of epithelia is characterized by being one cell thick and cells appear flattened?

A

simple squamous

395
Q

what type of epithelia is characterized by being one cel thick and square in shape?

A

simple cuboidal

396
Q

what type of epithelia is characterized by being one cell thick and cells are tall/ slender?

A

simple columnar

397
Q

what type of epithelia is characterized by being more than one cell layer thick, cells at surface are flattended?

A

stratified squamous

398
Q

what type of epithelia is characterized by looking stratified (but really is not), cells are in contact with the basement membrane?

A

pseudostratified

399
Q

what type of epithelia can be found lining the urinary tract and is characterized as stratified epithelium for distensibility (varies from squamous to cuboidal)?

A

transitional epithelia

400
Q

what type of epithelia is found lining blood vessels and lymphatics (simple squamous)?

A

endothelium

401
Q

what type of epithelia is found lining closed body cavities (simple squamous)

A

mesothelium

402
Q

what are the three ways that glands can be classified?

A
  • morphology of gland/ duct
  • type of secretory product
  • mode of discharge of secretory product
403
Q

duct morphology : what type of gland has unbranched ducts (straight or coiled)?

A

simple gland

404
Q

duct morphology : what type of gland has branched ducts?

A

compound gland

405
Q

shape of gland : what type of gland is tube-like (straight or coiled)?

A

tubular

406
Q

shape of gland : what type of gland is sac-like or flask-shaped?

A

acinar
NOTE - individual sac called acinus

407
Q

shape of gland : what type of gland is considered intermediate, tube with dilated end?

A

tubuloacinar

408
Q

type of secretory product : what type of gland produces a watery, basophilic acini (parotid)?

A

serous

409
Q

type of secretory product : what type of gland produces a thick, viscid secretion (mucus), appears clear on H&E?

A

mucous

410
Q

type of secretory product : what type of gland contains both mucous and serous acini, often include serous demilunes (sunlingual/ submandibular)?

A

mixed

411
Q

type of secretory product : what type of gland secretes lipids in the form of sebum?

A

sebaceous glands

412
Q

type of secretory product : what type of gland secretes cerumen?

A

ceruminous

413
Q

what type of gland lacks ducts and secretes hormones directly into blood stream?

A

endocrine gland

414
Q

what type of gland secretes products onto epithelial cells and basement membrane, assist in secretion?

A

exocrine glands

415
Q

mode of discharge : what type of gland only secretes products released (involves simple exocytosis)?

A

merocrine

416
Q

mode of discharge : what type of gland secretes membrane bound vesicles, product is accompanied by some cytoplasm?

A

apocrine

417
Q

mode of discharge : what type of gland involves the secretion of the entire cell (ruptures and released contents)?

A

holocrine

418
Q

what are the two components of nervous tissue?

A

neurons and supporting cells (non-conducting)

419
Q

what is the structural and functional unit of the nervous system?

A

neuron

420
Q

what are the three categories of supporting cells within nervous tissue?

A
  • neuroglia (CNS)
  • Schwann cells (PNS)
  • satellite cells (ganglia)
421
Q

general neuroanatomy terms to know

A
  • soma = cell body
  • perikaryon = cytoplasm
  • nissl substance = rER
  • neurilemma = plasma membrane
  • melanin, lipofusin = pigments
422
Q

where does the axon for a neuron arise and where does it terminate at?

A
  • arises from axon hillock
  • terminates in terminal bouton
423
Q

what do each type of axonal transport carry (slow vs fast)?

A
  • slow = cytoskeletal elements
  • fast = membrane-bound organelles
424
Q

what type of transport uses kinesin to transport materials from cell body down axon?

A

anterograde transport

425
Q

what type of transport uses dynein to transport materials from axon to cell body?

A

retrograde

426
Q

what type of neuron is most common and has several dendrites (motor neurons)?

A

multi-polar meuron

427
Q

what type of neuron has a single dendrite opposite of axon?

A

bipolar neuron

428
Q

what type of neuron has no dendrites on soma, only on the axon (sensory neurons)?

A

unipolar neuron

429
Q

what type of neuron has a single dendrite and axon fuse, soma off to one side (dorsal root ganglia)?

A

pseudounipolar

430
Q

what is the period termed when a nerve is unresponsive to stimuli after an action potential?

A

refractory period

431
Q

what two periods does the refractory period include (and what are their effects?

A
  • absolute = response to stimulus is impossible
  • relative = only very strong stimuli can cause depolarization
432
Q

what is the term for a specialized junction between neurons?

A

synapses

433
Q

what is the term for a specialized junction between a neuron and a effector cell?

A

neuromuscular junction

434
Q

what functions to separate the terminal bouton from the effector cell (this is where neurotransmitters are released into)?

A

synaptic cleft

435
Q

what are the two types of neurotransmitters used in the PNS?

A

acetylcholine and norepinephrine

436
Q

what type of neurotransmitter is used in sympathetic pathway and what type of receptors are found in this division?

A
  • uses noradrenaline
  • adrenergic receptors
437
Q

what type of neurotransmitter is used in parasympathetic pathway and what type of receptors are found in this division?

A
  • uses acetylcholine
  • cholinergic receptors
438
Q

what types of innervation do we see in peripheral nervous tissue?

A
  • afferent or efferent fibers (axons)
  • somatic or autonomic nerves
439
Q

a bundle of axons or fascicle forms a _______?

A

peripheral nerve

440
Q

in what type of (non-myelinated or myelinated) nerve are axons that lie in the channels of schwann cells surrounded by a single layer of neurilemma?

A

non-myelinated

441
Q

in what type of (non-myelinated or myelinated) nerve are axons insultated by many concentric layers of plasma membrane from many schwann cells?

A

myelinated

442
Q

what is the term for gaps in myelin sheath between adjacent schwann cells?

A

nodes of ranvier

443
Q

what are myelinated nerves in the CNS sheathed by?

A

oligodendrocytes

444
Q

what are individual axon and schwann cells surrounded by (loose connective tissue)?

A

endoneurim

445
Q

what are multiple axons organized into fascicles surrounded by?

A

perineurium

446
Q

larger nerves containing several fascicles are surrounded by an additional layer of connective tissue termed _________?

A

epineurium

447
Q

where are preganglionic cell bodies located in the ANS?

A

gray matter of brain and spinal cord (CNS)

448
Q

where are postganglionic cell bodies located in the ANS?

A

ganglia

449
Q

what type of supporting cells surround each cell body and provide structural/ metabolic support?

A

satellite cells

450
Q

pre- and para- vertebral ganglia are involved in which pathway of the ANS?

A

sympathetic

451
Q

ganglia located near or in the effector organ are involved in which pathway of the ANS?

A

parasympathetic

452
Q

which meninge is considered a thick layer of dense connective tissue internally lined by mesothelium?

A

dura amter

453
Q

what surrounds the dura mater?

A

epidural space

454
Q

what space is located beneath the dura and separates the dura from the arachnoid mater?

A

subdural space

455
Q

what space separates the arachnoid mater from pia mater and what is found here?

A

subarachnoid space
CSF found here

456
Q

what is the term used to describe pia + arachnoid mater?

A

leptomeninges

457
Q

what structures extends from pia and anchors the spinal cord to arachnoid, dura, and periosteum?

A

denticulate ligaments

458
Q

what type of matter contains neuron cell bodies, dendrites, and axons?

A

peripheral gray matter

459
Q

what type of matter contains mostly myelinated axons?

A

white matter

460
Q

what is the largest neuroglial cell and is highly branched?

A

astrocytes

461
Q

what is the smallest neuroglial cell and has an immune function (phagocytic)?

A

microglia

462
Q

what type of cells are frequently ciliated, have microvilli for reabsorption of CSF and line ventricles/ central canal of spinal cord?

A

ependymal cells

463
Q

what is the structure that arises from the walls of ventricle of brain and secretes CSF?

A

choroid plexus

464
Q

what portion of the brain is organized into folds (gyri) and composed of gray matter peripherally?

A

cerebrum
NOTE - includes sensory, motor, and association needs

465
Q

meuroglial cells in gray matter within the cerebrum include _____ and ________?

A

astrocytes and microglial cells

466
Q

what portion of the brain coordinates muscular activity, posture, and equilibrium?

A

cerebellum

467
Q

what is the term for the folds that the cerebellum is organized into?

A

folia

468
Q

what is found primarily in the white matter of the cerebellum?

A
  • oligodendrocytes
  • myelinated axons
469
Q

which layer of the cerebellum contains few neurons and large numbers of unmyelinated axons?

A

outer moelcular layer

470
Q

which layer of the cerebellum is highly cellular, very basophilic?

A

inner granular layer

471
Q

what is the name of the neuron that separates the molecular and granular layers (functions in coordination and equilibrium)?

A

purkinje cells

472
Q

what is the structure within the spinal cord that contains CSF, is lined by ependymal cells, and is continuous with the ventricles of the brain?

A

central canal

473
Q

what does the dorsal horn involve signal-wise?

A

sensory (afferent)

474
Q

what does the ventral horn involve signal-wise?

A

motor (efferent)

475
Q

if portion of axon distal to point of injury degenerates, what does this result in?

A

anterograde (wallerian) degeneration

476
Q

if the injury to a neuron is severe enough, what does this result in?

A

retrograde degeneration and death of cell body

477
Q

what is the response to a neuron injury in the CNS?

A

in the CNS, neuroglial cells multiple and prevents regeneration, physicalls blocks contact between cell body and axon

478
Q

what is the term for inflammation of meninges (can be bacterial or viral)?

A

meningitis

479
Q

what is the term for inflammation of brain?

A

encephalitis

480
Q

what is the term for inflammation of spinal cord?

A

myelitis

481
Q

general muscle terms

A
  • individual muscle cell = myocyte = muscle fiber
  • muscle cytoplasm = sarcoplasm
  • plasma membrane = sarcolemma
482
Q

what are the three types of skeletal muscle (all mesodermally derived)?

A
  • skeletal muscle
  • smooth muscle
  • cardiac muscle
483
Q

individual muscle fibers are surrounded by _______?

A

endomysium

484
Q

several fibers bound together into fascicles are surrounded by _______?

A

perimysium

485
Q

the entire muscle is surrounded by _______ which is continuous with tendinous attachment

A

epimysium

486
Q

the following are characteristics of what type of muscle fiber type?
- small fibers with large amounts of myoglobin
- use aerobic respiration
- large number of mitochondria
- resistant to fatigue

A

slow twitch fibers

487
Q

the following are characteristics of what type of muscle fiber type?
- large fibers with less myoglobin
- fewer mitochondria
- use anaerobic glycolysis
- abundant glycogen
- fatigue rapidly

A

fast twitch fibers
NOTE :
- type IIA - oxidative and fatigue resistant
- type IIB - glycolytic and fatigue sensitive

488
Q

explain how muscle cells can increase in size (hypertrophy)

A
  • with exercise
  • increase in number of mitochondria
  • increase in volume of contractile proteins
  • splitting/ branching of muscle fibers
489
Q

explain how muscle cells can decrease in size (atrophy)

A
  • disuse (immobilization)
  • nerve damage
  • with increased age = progressive loss of skeletal muscle (sarcopenia)
490
Q

following injury, what type of cells proliferate and differentiate into myoblasts?

A

satellite cells

491
Q

what are the two types of mechanorecetors located within mucle cells?

A
  • neuromuscular spindles = sensitive to changes in LENGTH
  • neurotendinous spindles = sensitive to changes in TENSION
    NOTE- both prevent overstretching and tearing in muscles
492
Q

what is the general organization of muscular tissue?

A
  • individual muscle fibers composed of myofibrils
  • myofibrils composed of myofilaments/ contractile proteins
493
Q

what are the two types of myofilaments?

A
  • actin (thin filament)
  • myosin (thick filament)
    NOTE - present in a 2:1 ratio in skeletal muscle
494
Q

what gives skeletal muscle its striated appearance in longitudinal sections?

A

parallel arrangement of contractile proteins

495
Q

during muscle contraction, what happens to sarcomeres and myofilaments?

A
  • sarcomeres = shortern
  • myofilaments = remain same legnth
496
Q

what is the site called where skeletal muscle is innervated by motor neuron?

A

neuromuscular junction

497
Q

what is the term for the dilated terminal portion of an axon surrounded by myelin (rests on sarcolemma)?

A

motor end plate
NOTE - similar to terminal bouton but unmyelinated

498
Q

the wave of depolarization down a muscle fiber travels down the ________?

A

transverse tubule system (t-tubules)

499
Q

the ends of t-tubules are bounded by ________ to form a triad

A

terminal cisternae of ER

500
Q

what two structures act as calcium reservoirs?

A
  • sarcoplasmic reticulum
  • terminal cisternae
501
Q

what causes the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and terminal cisternae?

A

depolarization of sarcolemma from influx of sodium ions into cytoplasm from t-tubules

502
Q

what determines the strength of overall msucle contraction (graded response)?

A

total number of muscle fibers

503
Q

what is the term for a group of muscle fibers supplied by a single motor neuron?

A

motor unit

504
Q

stimulation of a motor neuron results in contraction of ______ muscle fibers within that motor unit

A

ALL

505
Q

what is the term used to describe the increase in number of motor units firing within a muscle?

A

recruitment

506
Q

WATCH POWER STROKE VIDEO ON YOUTUBE

A

WATCH POWER STROKE VIDEO ON YOUTUBE

507
Q

what is the term used to describe the wave-like contractions that are independent of neurological stimulation in smooth muscle?

A

inherent contractility

508
Q

what is the actin: myosin ration in smooth muscle?

A

15:1

509
Q

smooth muscle has striations (true/false)

A

false

510
Q

what structure provides attachments to actin in smooth muscle?

A

dense bodies

511
Q

what ion activates myosin cross-binding in smooth muscle?

A

calmodulin

512
Q

instead of t-tubule system and terminal cisternae, smooth muscle uses _______ in its cell membrane

A

caveolae
NOTE - relies on diffusion of extracellular calcium for contraction

513
Q

what type of innervation is present in smooth muscle?

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic
NOTE - involuntary

514
Q

in the gut, sympathetic innervation is _______ and parasympathetic innervation is _________

A

sympathetic = inhibitory
parasympathetic = stimulation

515
Q

in a single unit of smooth muscle, fibers contract as a _______

A

unit

516
Q

in a multi unit of smooth muscle, individual muscle fibers contract _______

A

independently

517
Q

what are the three cell types that smooth muscle can develop from?

A
  • endothelial cells
  • pericytes of blood vessels
  • fibroblasts
518
Q

the pericardium contains ________ _______ for lubrication

A

pericardial fluid

519
Q

what are the three layers of the heart?

A
  • epicardium
  • myocardium
  • endocardium
520
Q

what is the sac-like fibrous connective tissue that surrounds the heart?

A

pericardium

521
Q

epicardium is made up of ______ _______ mesothelium

A

simple squamous

522
Q

in the myocardium, we see thick, collagenous, connective tissue composed of _______ and ______

A

fibroblasts and collagen

523
Q

cardiac muscle fibers are striated but involuntary (under autonomic control) (true/ false)?

A

true

524
Q

what structures make up the intracellular diad in cardiac myocytes?

A
  • one t-tubule
  • one cisterna of ER
    NOTE - located at z-disc
525
Q

endocardium is made up of _______ ________ endothelium

A

simple squamous

526
Q

what type of fibers can be found within subepi- and endocardial layers?

A

purkinje fibers

527
Q

what is the layer of connective tissue covered by endothelium that is present in cardiac valves?

A

lamina fibrosa

528
Q

individual cardiac myocytes exhibit ______ ________

A

inherent automaticity

529
Q

what structure within cardiac muscle allows for synchronous contractions?

A

intercalated discs

530
Q

what three types of cell junctions help to make up intercalated discs?

A
  • desmosomes
  • fascia adherens
  • gap junctions
531
Q

what are the 4 structures that make up the conduction system of the heart?

A
  • SA node
  • AV node
  • bundle of his
  • purkinje fibers
532
Q

what type of cell junction is found in numerous amounts within cardiac tissue to allow for coordinated conduction?

A

gap junctions

533
Q

structures included within the conduction system tend to stain paler than surrounding tissue due to higher ______ content

A

glycogen

534
Q

what is considered the pacemaker of the heart and is located at the junction of the superior vena cava and right atrium?

A

SA node

535
Q

how does sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation affect one’s heart rate?

A
  • sympathetic = stimulation from sympathetic ganglia to increase heart rate
  • parasympathetic = stimulation from vagus nerve to lower heart rate
536
Q

describe the flow of cardiac conduction

A
  • SA node generates impulses that induce contraction of atria
  • as impulse travels across atria, stimulates AV node
  • delays impulse, gives atria time to contract
  • travels down interventricular septum (IVS) via bundle of his and branches into L/R AV bundles within IVS
  • fibers further subdivide into ventricular myocardium and ramify into purkinje fibers within subendo- and subepicardium of ventricular free wall… gradually merges with myocardium and initiates ventricular contraction