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Histo 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. It is the best fixative for blood smears

a. bouin’s solution
b. carnoy’s fluid
c. methanol
d. osmium tetroxide

A

c. methanol

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2
Q
  1. Helly’s fluid contains all of the following except:

a. Mercuric chloride
b. potassium dichromate
c. sodium sulphate
d. glacial acetic acid

A

d. glacial acetic acid

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3
Q
  1. This is the best decalcifying agent:

a. nitric acid
b. formic acid
c. TCA
d. acetic acid

A

a. nitric acid

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4
Q

4.Paraformaldehyde deposits are be removed by addition of:

a. saturated alcoholic picric acid
b. alcoholic lithium chloride
c. iodine & sodium thiosulfate
d. 10% methanol

A

d. 10% methanol

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5
Q
  1. For chromic acid fixed tissue, what is used to wash the specimen?

a. tap water
b. 70% ethanol
c. alcoholic iodine
d. potassium permanganate

A

a. tap water

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6
Q
  1. The fixation begins at the:

a. center-outward
b. center-inward
c. periphery-outward
d. periphery-inward

A

d. periphery-inward

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7
Q
  1. For most fixatives, the volume of fixing fluid in relation to the
    volume of the tissue should be:

a. 2-5 times
b. 6-9 times
c. 7-12 times
d. 10- 20 times

A

d. 10- 20 times

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8
Q
  1. One of the action of acetic acid is to:

a. preserves nucleoproteins
b. fixes chromosomes
c. preserves the chromatin
d. All of these

A

d. All of these

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following fixatives has a mordanting effect towards
    the tissues?

a. carnoy’s solution
b. 10% formalin
c. absolute alcohol
d. zenker’s solution

A

d. zenker’s solution

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10
Q
  1. This clearing agent has a toxic & carcinogenic effect on the
    worker, and can cause aplastic anemia on prolonged exposure:

a. chloroform
b. xylene
c. benzene
d. toluene

A

c. benzene

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11
Q
  1. In electron microscopy, glutaraldehyde function as a:

a. dehydrating agent
b. clearing agent
c. embedding agents
d. fixatives

A

d. fixatives

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12
Q
  1. This fixative requires less amount for it to exerts it action:

a. acetone
b. Flemming’s solution
c. trichloroacetic acid
d. Formalin

A

b. Flemming’s solution

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13
Q
  1. This fixative is incorporated to other fixatives because of its
    swelling effect?

a. flemming’s w/o acetic acid
b. acetone
c. trichloroacetic acid
d. flemming’s solution

A

c. trichloroacetic acid

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14
Q
  1. This is the process of removing intercellular & extracellular water
    from the tissue:

a. decalcification
b. dealcoholisation
c. dehydration
d. clearing

A

c. dehydration

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15
Q
  1. Which fixative is good for electron microscopy?

a. 10% NBF
b. Glutaraldehyde
c. acetone
d. Orth’s

A

b. Glutaraldehyde

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16
Q

16.Which reagent/s is/are both acting as a dehydrating & clearing
agent?

a. dioxane
b. THF
c. both
d. Neither

A

c. both

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17
Q
  1. With this reagent, the tissue has the tendency on the solution?

a. tetrahydrofuran
b. Clove oil
c. benzene
d. Chloroform

A

d. Chloroform

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18
Q
  1. After the clearing process, xylene turns milky, it signify
    incomplete _________?

a. fixation
b. Dehydration
c. both
d. Neither

A

b. Dehydration

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19
Q
  1. Which of the following methods is not used to remove the
    paraformaldehyde deposits?

a. filtration
b. 10% methanol
b. All of these
e. None of these

A

e. None of these

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20
Q
  1. Reason why the acetic acid is removed from the solution of
    Flemming:

a. remove the artefacts
b. improves nuclear details
c. improves cytoplasmic details
d. remove paraformaldehyde deposits

A

c. improves cytoplasmic details

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21
Q
  1. Which is not a physiologic atrophy?

a. uterus after delivery
b. Thymus during puberty
c. pressure atrophy
d. Atrophy of the brain during late adulthood

A

c. pressure atrophy

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22
Q
  1. Tissue size increases because of size increase of the individual
    cells:

a. hypertrophy
b. Hyperplasia
c. metaplasia
d. Dysplasia

A

a. hypertrophy

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23
Q
  1. Failure of an organ to reach its full, mature size:

a. atresia
b. Aplasia
c. anaplasia
d. Agenesia

A

b. Aplasia

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24
Q
  1. Most commonly seen in one of paired structures like the
    kidneys:

a. atresia
b. Aplasia
c. anaplasia
d. Agenesia

A

b. Aplasia

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25
Q
  1. Atrophy because of decrease workload of an organ:

a. pressure atrophy
b. Exhaustion atrophy
c. starvation atrophy
d. Atrophy of disuse

A

d. Atrophy of disuse

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26
Q
  1. In the classification of epithelial tissue, this stratification is
    described as appearing to have more than one layer but all cells
    contact the basement membrane:

a. simple epithelium
b. stratified epithelium
c. pseudostratified epithelium
d. AOTA

A

c. pseudostratified epithelium

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27
Q
  1. The changes in the myocardium due to increased functional
    demand as seen in hypertensive heart disease are considered to be:

a. pathologic hypertrophy
b. physiologic hypertrophy
c. pathologic hyperplasia
d. physiologic hyperplasia

A

a. pathologic hypertrophy

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28
Q
  1. Malnutritional condition such as Marasmus and kwashiorkor are
    classified under this type of atrophy:

a. pressure atrophy
b. endocrine atrophy
c. senile atrophy
d. nutritional atrophy
e. disuse atrophy

A

d. nutritional atrophy

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29
Q
  1. Improper preservation of the tissue that resulted to decay of the
    specimen, is due to:

a. delay in fixation
b. rapid penetration of fixative
c. prolonged storage of tissue in the fixative
d. rapid dehydration, clearing, embedding, and cutting

A

a. delay in fixation

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30
Q
  1. This fixative is composed of Chromic acid, osmium tetroxide, and
    potassium dichromate:

a. flemming’s fluid
b. flemming’s w/o acetic acid
c. TCA
d. Champy’s fluid

A

d. Champy’s fluid

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31
Q
  1. Decreased workload on the skeletal muscle results in:

a. pressure atrophy
b. endocrine atrophy
c. senile atrophy
d. disuse atrophy

A

d. disuse atrophy

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32
Q
  1. It is a specialized type of epithelial tissue which forms moist
    lining of body openings.

a. keratinized squamous epithelium
b. non-keratinized squamous epithelium
c. non-ciliated columnar epithelium
d. glandular epithelium

A

b. non-keratinized squamous epithelium

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33
Q
  1. This is a finger-like extensions of the plasma membrane whose
    purpose is to maximize surface area in the small intestines:

a. cilia
b. Fibers
c. acini
d. Goblet cells

A

a. cilia

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34
Q

34.Which of the following is a type of nonstriated and involuntary
muscle tissue?

a. cardiac muscle tissue
b. smooth muscle tissue
c. skeletal muscle tissue
d. nervous tissue
e. nota

A

b. smooth muscle tissue

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35
Q
  1. What is the refractive index of the glass slide?

a. 1.581
b. 1.851
c. 1.185
d. 1.518

A

d. 1.518

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36
Q

36.The temperature of the cryostat is maintained at what
temperature?

a. 0 to -10C
b. 40 to 60C
c. -18 to -20 *C
d. 5- to -10 *C

A

c. -18 to -20 *C

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37
Q
  1. Ringing is perform to:

a. Remove the bubbles in the slide
b. Prevent escape of the mountant
c. Better preserve the tissue
d. To focus the tissue in the center

A

b. Prevent escape of the mountant

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38
Q
  1. Saffron is extracted from:

a. tree
b. vegetable
c. flower
d. Bug

A

c. flower

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39
Q
  1. Example of mounting agent:
    a. Clarite
    b. Entallan
    c. Canada balsam
    d. AOTA
    e. NOTA
A

d. AOTA

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40
Q

40.Which is not a purpose of flotation bath?

a. To dissolve the wax
b. To soften the wax
c. To straighten the section
d. To stretch the section

A

a. To dissolve the wax

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41
Q

41.Krognic cement is used as:

a. Ringing agent
b. Mountant
c. Adhesive
d. Coverslip

A

a. Ringing agent

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42
Q
  1. Purpose of mounting of section:

a. For easy identification of slide
b. For safe keeping of glass slide
c. Protection of tissue from oxidation
d. Enhance the stain of the tissue

A

c. Protection of tissue from oxidation

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43
Q

43.It is an outstanding agent because it can fix, differentiate and stain the tissue all by itself:

a. Methylene blue
b. Neutral red
c. Janus green
d. Picric acid

A

d. Picric acid

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44
Q
  1. Tissues such as non-fatty breast tissues is cut at which of the following temperature in cryostat?

a. -5°C
b. -15°C
c. -36°C
d. -70°C

A

b. -15°C

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45
Q
  1. Cellular adaptation due to increased cytoplasmic protein triggered by growth factors:

a. agenesis
b. hypertrophy
c. hyperplasia
d. metaplasia

A

b. hypertrophy

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46
Q
  1. This is a fixative that can cause a allergic dermatitis, sinusitis, rhinitis and lacrimation:

a. zenker’s fluid
b. mercuric chloride
c. formaldehyde
d. ethanol

A

c. formaldehyde

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47
Q
  1. This fixative has an anti-fungal effect:

a. picric acid
b. Heidenhain’s susa
c. formaldehyde
d. Helly’s solution

A

c. formaldehyde

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48
Q
  1. Act as a fixative and a strong oxidizing agent:

a. chromic acid
b. Cedarwood oil
c. lead acetate
d. Moller’s reagent

A

a. chromic acid

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49
Q
  1. All of the following is part of the usual histotechniques, except:

a. decalcification
b. Fixation
c. dehydration
d. Clearing

A

a. decalcification

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50
Q
  1. Only aldehyde fixative that do not cause irritation ( dermatitis):

a. 10% formalin
b. 10% formol-saline
c. formol-sublimate
d. glutaraldehyde

A

d. glutaraldehyde

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51
Q
  1. Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder and the mucinous ovarian tumor are usually positive for

a.CK7
b.CK20
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

c. Both A and B

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52
Q

52.The best screening marker for lymphoma is

a.CD3, CD4, CD8
b. LCA or CD45
c.CD19, CD20, CD23
d.CD15, CD30

A

b. LCA or CD45

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53
Q

53.If the clearing agent turned milky as soon as the tissue is placed in it, the most probable reason is

a. Insufficient impregnation
b. Prolonged dehydration
c. Delayed fixation
d. Incomplete dehydration

A

d. Incomplete dehydration

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54
Q
  1. The plasma-thrombin method is a technique in preparing

a. Smears for cytology
b. Adhesive
c. Cell block
d. Decalcification technique

A

c. Cell block

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55
Q

55.Small pieces of tissue not >1mm diameter is placed on the slide—forcibly compressed with another slide or coverslip.

a. Teasing or dissociation
b. Squash preparation(crushing)
c. Smear preparation
d. None of the above

A

b. Squash preparation(crushing)

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56
Q

56.Hydrogen peroxide and potassium permanganate converts hematoxylin into

a. Stable hematin
b. Mercuric oxide
c. A weak base
d. A weak acid

A

a. Stable hematin

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57
Q

57.Selected tissue is immersed in a watch glass with isotonic solution and careful—dissected or separated

a. Teasing or dissociation
b. Squash preparation (crushing)
c. Smear preparation
d. None of the above

A

a. Teasing or dissociation

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58
Q
  1. Microtome with CO2 or cryostat cold chamber is maintained at what temperature?

a. temp 0 to -10C
b. temp 0 to -20C
c. temp -10 to -20C
d. temp -30 to -40C

A

c. temp -10to -20C

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59
Q
  1. Most rapid agent but one of its disadvantage is soft tissue crack due to ice crystal (freeze artifact) formation?

a. aerosol spray
b. carbon dioxide gas
c. isopentane cooled by liquid nitrogen
d. liquid nitrogen

A

d. liquid nitrogen

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60
Q

60.Most common injury related work in histopath

a. Burn injury
b. Chemical spill injury
c. Electrical burn injury
d. cutting the finger or hand with microtome knives

A

d. cutting the finger or hand with microtome knives

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61
Q
  1. Most important step in operating equipment.

a. Learn basic before use
b. Never attempt to set up w/out approval of manufacturer
c. Operating manual provide info to machine operation
d. Read the manual

A

d. Read the manual

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62
Q
  1. Inadequate decalcification result in the following, except:

a. damage to the knife edge during sectioning
b. disruption of the surrounding tissue
c. poor cutting of hard tissues
d. poor staining procedure

A

d. poor staining procedure

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63
Q
  1. Fixation most common for amino acid histochemistry.

a. Alcohol fixative
b. Alcoholic formaldehyde
c. Neutral buffered formol saline or formaldehyde
d. Karnovsky’s formaldehyde-glutaraldehyde solution

A

d. Karnovsky’s formaldehyde-glutaraldehyde solution

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64
Q
  1. The following would require washing out of excess fixative with
    water, except.

a. Bouin’s Solution
b. Flemming’s Solution
c. Kelly’s Solution
d. Zenker’s Solution

A

a. Bouin’s Solution

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65
Q

65.After processing and the paraffin-embedded block has been trimmed, the tissue reveals a “grating”, resistance sensation when
sectioned with a microtome knife. What will be your best action as a med tech?

a. Remove the tissue block from the chuck and place it face down on a pad of cotton /gauze moistened and saturated with l0% acetic acid for one hour. Adjust staining.
b. Remove the tissue block from the chuck and melt paraffin and repeat decalcification.
c. Remove the tissue block from the chuck and place it face down on a pad of cotton /gauze moistened and saturated with l0% hydrochloric acid for one hour. Adjust staining.
d. Repeat the processing and decalcification of the tissue

A

c. Remove the tissue block from the chuck and place it face down on a pad of cotton /gauze moistened and saturated with l0% hydrochloric acid for one hour. Adjust staining.

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66
Q
  1. Rapid decalcifying agents are most likely to adversely affect any subsequent staining, causing the

a. Cell nuclear chromatin to take up too much hematoxylin and other basic dyes
b. Failure of acid dyes to stain tissues
c. Staining of acid dyes eosin is not affected produce a bright red stain with differential shading.
d. Failure of nuclear chromatin to take up hematoxylin and other basic dyes

A

d. Failure of nuclear chromatin to take up hematoxylin and other basic dyes

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67
Q
  1. Decalcifying agents that combine with calcium ions and salts (e.g. iron and magnesium deposits) to form weakly dissociated complexes and facilitate removal of calcium salt.

a. Acids
b. Chelating agents
c. Electrical ionization (electrophoresis)
d. Ion exchange resins

A

b. Chelating agents

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68
Q
  1. A toxic dehydrating agent, primarily employed for blood, tissue films and smear preparation.

a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Methyl alcohol
c. Butyl alcohol
d. Isopropyl alcohol

A

b. Methyl alcohol

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69
Q
  1. It is Indication of the full saturation of dehydrating fluid with water, using a layer of anhydrous copper sulfate

a. clearing of solution
b.no discoloration/transparent copper sulfate crystals
c. blue discoloration of copper sulfate crystals
d. white discoloration of copper sulfate crystals

A

c. blue discoloration of copper sulfate crystals

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70
Q
  1. Characteristics of an Ideal Dehydrating Solution, except.

a. dehydrate rapidly without producing considerable shrinkage or distortion of tissues.
b. evaporate very fast.
c. be able to dehydrate even fatty tissues.
d. not remove stains

A

b. evaporate very fast.

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71
Q
  1. Gross description of tissue after clearing, if there is no complete dehydration of tissue.

a. Bluish color
b. Milky/Whitish appearance
c. Translucent/transparent
d. Yellow pigmentation

A

b. Milky/Whitish appearance

72
Q
  1. The most sensitive of the oil soluble dyes with greater affinity for phospholipids and neutral fats (TAG), but not with crystalline cholesterol, and free fatty acids:

a. Sudan Black B
b. Sudan IV
c. Sudan III
d. Oil Red O

A

a. Sudan Black B

73
Q
  1. A fluorescent dye that is also used with osmic acid to fix and stain blood and glandular tissues:

a. Rhodamine B
b. Osmic tetroxide
c. Orcein
d. Neutral red

A

a. Rhodamine B

74
Q
  1. A marker normally present in mesenchymal cells and used in identification of mesenchymal tumors (leiomyoma, rhabdomyosarcoma, myogenic component of malignant mixed mesodermal tumors)

a. Desmin
b. Myogenin
c. GFAP
D. Neurofilament

A

a. Desmin

75
Q
  1. Which of the following cells have a “honeycomb appearance” when viewed on end?
    a. Endometrial cells
    b. Doderlein bacillus
    c. endocervical glandular cells
    d. basal cells
A

c. endocervical glandular cells

76
Q
  1. Criteria for cytologic diagnosis of normal pregnancy except:

a. Less than 30% superficial cells
b. Doderlein-filled “dirty” background
c. At least 20% of intermediate cells in clusters
d. Marked progesterone effect

A

c. At least 20% of intermediate cells in clusters

77
Q
  1. Which class in the Papanicolau method of reporting is reported as ASCUS in the Bethesda 2001 method?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

b. Class II

78
Q
  1. Aplastic anemia and bone marrow disease is attributed mostly to:

a. aniline oil
b. benzene
c. Clove oil
d. carbon tetrachloride

A

b. benzene

79
Q
  1. What color do elastic fibers stain with Verhoeff Elastic stain?

a. Red/Orange
b. Pink/red
c. Purple/Red
d. Blue/black

A

d. Blue/black

80
Q
  1. A technologist spilled 5 liters of formaldehyde on the floor, after learning that the chemical poses a particular hazard, the first action step would be:

a. Notify emergency assistance
b. Control the spill with an appropriate absorbent material
c. Evacuate the area
d. Don appropriate personal protective equipment

A

b. Control the spill with an appropriate absorbent material

81
Q
  1. At which temperature of decalcification will tissues undergo complete digestion within 24-48 hours?

a. 4°C
b. 22°C
c. 37°C
d. 55°C

A

d. 55°C

82
Q
  1. Which of the following histologic features does not occur in acute type of inflammation?

a. vasodilation
b. exudation of plasma fluid
c. neutrophilic infiltration
d. mononuclear infiltration

A

d. mononuclear infiltration

83
Q
  1. In histochemical staining, what type of stain is used for the demonstration of hemoglobin?

a. PAS staining
b. Perl’s Prussian blue reaction
c. methylene blue
d. Wright stain

A

b. Perl’s Prussian blue reaction

84
Q
  1. DNA is demonstrated by which technique:

a. Methyl green technique
b. Methyl green pyronin technique
c. Feulgen technique
d. Fluorescent technique

A

c. Feulgen technique

85
Q
  1. This is the most popular method for general demonstration of acid mucins, using 3% acetic acid at pH 2.5

a. Azure A Metachromatic technique
b. Alcian Blue Technique
c. Fresh Frozen Azure A
d. Metachromatic Toluidin Blue

A

b. Alcian Blue Technique

86
Q
  1. What is the color of lipids (mainly triglycerides) in Sudan IV stain?

a. Red
b. Blue
c. Blue black
d. Brilliant red

A

a. Red

87
Q
  1. What is the fixative of choice for routine preparations of cytologic smears

a.95% ethanol
b. Saccomano fluid
c. 95% isopropyl alcohol
d. 100% Absolute alcohol

A

a.95% ethanol

88
Q
  1. For proper fixation of pap’s smear if spray fixative is used, the slide should be kept in a distance from the slide.

a. approximately 10 inches away
b. approximately 12 inches away
c. approximately 15 inches away
d. approximately 17 inches away

A

b. approximately 12 inches away

89
Q

89.Fixatives that is used for FNA cytology

a. 95% ethanol
b. Saccomano fluid
c. 95% isopropyl alcohol
d. 100% Absolute alcohol

A

a. 95% ethanol

90
Q
  1. What concentration of alcohol is recommended for all types of effusions, if the smears can not be made immediately?

a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 95%

A

a. 50%

91
Q
  1. Which of the following is the staining solution for mature superficial cells?

a. EA 36
b. EA 50
c. OG 6
d. Pap’s stain

A

c. OG 6

92
Q
  1. True about Papanicolaou stains

a. Cytoplasmic features are better preserved
b. Nuclear and nucleolar features are less preserved
c. cytoplasmic changes and microorganism are not demonstrated
d. Used for detection of herpetic lesions or carcinoma

A

d. Used for detection of herpetic lesions or carcinoma

93
Q
  1. Good for demonstrating pathological change in individual organs but the relationship between various organs may be hard to interpret.
    a. Virchow
    b. Letulle
    c. Gohn
    d. Rokitansky
A

a. Virchow

94
Q
  1. Clinical autopsy is done

a. Upon orders of competent court, mayor, provincial or city prosecutor.
b. For research purposes
c. To confirm diagnosis
d. Upon written request by police authorities

A

c. To confirm diagnosis

95
Q
  1. Transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder and the mucinous ovarian tumor are usually positive for

a. CK7
b. CK20
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

c. Both A and B

96
Q
  1. The best screening marker for lymphoma is

a. CD3, CD4, CD8
b. LCA or CD45
c. CD19, CD20, CD23
d. CD15, CD30

A

b. LCA or CD45

97
Q
  1. If the clearing agent turned milky as soon as the tissue is placed in it, the most probable reason is

a. Insufficient impregnation
b. Prolonged dehydration
c. Delayed fixation
d. Incomplete dehydration

A

d. Incomplete dehydration

98
Q
  1. The enlargement of one kidney after the surgical removal of the other is a classic example of

a. Compensatory hypertrophy
b. Hyperplasia
c. Physiologic Neoplasia
d. Dedifferentiation

A

a. Compensatory hypertrophy

99
Q
  1. Quality assurance procedure that includes patient preparation, preparation worklist, specimen processing and distribution.

A. control of pre-analytical variables
B. control of analytical variables
C. control of post-analytical variables
D. monitoring by use of statistical methods

A

A. control of pre-analytical variables

100
Q
  1. Which of the following is an example of carcinogenic agent?

A. Benzopyrine
B. H. Pylori
C. HPV
D. Asbestos
E. All of these

A

E. All of these

101
Q
  1. Which of the following is the process of removing excess fixative from the tissue after fixation in order to improve staining and remove artifacts from the tissues?

a. Dehydration
b. Washing out
c. Secondary Fixation
d. Clearing

A

b. Washing out

102
Q
  1. This also known as casting process:

a. Impregnation
b. Immersion
c. Infiltration
d. Embedding

A

d. Embedding

103
Q
  1. Electron microscopy preparations are stained with

a. H and E
b. Uranyl acetate
c. Pap’s stain
d. Nile blue

A

b. Uranyl acetate

104
Q
  1. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBSAg) may be demonstrated through

a. Masson Fontana
b. Orcein Method
c. Gmelin technique
d. Gram twort

A

b. Orcein Method

105
Q
  1. Type of Microtome used for celloidin, ester wax and LVN
    impregnated tissue?

A. Rotary microtome
B. Cryostat
C. Rocking microtome
D. Base sledge microtome

A

D. Base sledge microtome

106
Q
  1. Type of hematoxylin used for study of spermatogenesis?

A. Iron hematoxylin
B. Weigert Hematoxylin
C. Copper Hematoxylin
D. Tungsten hematoxylin

A

C. Copper Hematoxylin

107
Q
  1. What is used for washing picric acid fixed tissue?

A. 50% Alcohol
B. Water
C. Alcoholic iodine
D. None of these

A

A. 50% Alcohol

108
Q
  1. Most important step in operating equipment.

a. Learn basic before use
b. Never attempt to set up w/out approval of manufacturer
c. Operating manual provide info to machine operation
d. Read the manual

A

d. Read the manual

109
Q
  1. Explosive reagent.

a. Picric acid
b. Silver reagent upon aging
c. Both
d. Neither

A

c. Both

110
Q
  1. Handled inside a FUME HOOD, except.

a. Concentrated (glacial) acetic acid
b. Ethylene glycol
c. Formic acid
d. Osmium tetroxide

A

a. Concentrated (glacial) acetic acid

111
Q
  1. Inadequate decalcification result in the following except:

a. damage to the knife edge during sectioning
b. disruption of the surrounding tissue
c. poor cutting of hard tissues
d. poor staining procedure

A

d. poor staining procedure

112
Q
  1. Fixation most common for amino acid histochemistry.

a. Alcohol fixative
b. Alcoholic formaldehyde
c. Neutral buffered formol saline or formaldehyde
d. Karnovsky’s formaldehyde-glutaraldehyde solution

A

d. Karnovsky’s formaldehyde-glutaraldehyde solution

113
Q
  1. The following would require washing out of excess fixative with water, except.

a. Bouin’s Solution
b. Flemming’s Solution
c. Kelly’s Solution
d. Zenker’s Solution

A

b. Flemming’s Solution

114
Q
  1. After processing and the paraffin-embedded block has been trimmed, the tissue reveals a “grating”, resistance sensation when
    sectioned with a microtome knife. What will be your best action as a med tech?

a. Remove the tissue block from the chuck and place it face down on a pad of cotton /gauze moistened and saturated with l0% acetic acid
for one hour. Adjust staining.
b. Remove the tissue block from the chuck and melt paraffin and repeat decalcification.
c. Remove the tissue block from the chuck and place it face down on a pad of cotton /gauze moistened and saturated with l0%
hydrochloric acid for one hour. Adjust staining.
d. Repeat the processing and decalcification of the tissue

A

c. Remove the tissue block from the chuck and place it face down on a pad of cotton /gauze moistened and saturated with l0%

115
Q
  1. Rapid decalcifying agents are most likely to adversely affect any subsequent staining, causing the

a. Cell nuclear chromatin to take up too much hematoxylin and other basic dyes
b. Failure of acid dyes to stain tissues
c. Staining of acid dyes eosin is not affected produce a bright red stain with differential shading.
d. Failure of nuclear chromatin to take up hematoxylin and other basic dyes

A

d. Failure of nuclear chromatin to take up hematoxylin and other basic dyes

116
Q
  1. Decalcifying agents that combine with calcium ions and salts (e.g. iron and magnesium deposits) to form weakly dissociated complexes and facilitate removal of calcium salt.

a. Acids
b. Chelating agents
c. Electrical ionization (electrophoresis)
d. Ion exchange resins

A

b. Chelating agents

117
Q
  1. It is a simple, reliable and convenient method of verifying the completeness of decalcification of dense, bony tissue, and is done via the precipitation of insoluble calcium hydroxide or calcium oxalate.

a. Chemical Method
b. Mechanical method
c. Physical method
d. X-Ray or Radiological Method

A

a. Chemical Method

118
Q
  1. A toxic dehydrating agent, primarily employed for blood, tissue films and smear preparation.

a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Methyl alcohol
c. Butyl alcohol
d. Isopropyl alcohol

A

b. Methyl alcohol

119
Q
  1. It is an indication of the full saturation of dehydrating fluid with water, using a layer of anhydrous copper sulfate

a. clearing of solution
b. no discoloration/transparent copper sulfate crystals
c. blue discoloration of copper sulfate crystals
d. white discoloration of copper sulfate crystals

A

c. blue discoloration of copper sulfate crystals

120
Q
  1. Dioxane method where specimen is placed on gauze and suspended in a bottle of dioxane and calcium oxide or quicklime 3-
    24 hours

a. Graupner’s Method
b. Weiseberger’s method
c. Both
d. Neither

A

b. Weiseberger’s method

121
Q
  1. Dehydrates rapidly and combustible at 110-120” and toxic by inhalation, and are skin contact and ingestion.

a. Cellosolve
b. Dioxane
c. Molliflex
d. Tetrahydrofuran

A

a. Cellosolve

122
Q
  1. Characteristics of an Ideal Dehydrating Solution, except.

a. dehydrate rapidly without producing considerable shrinkage or distortion of tissues.
b. evaporate very fast
c. be able to dehydrate even fatty tissues.
d. not remove stains.

A

b. evaporate very fast

123
Q
  1. Most commonly used dehydrating agents.

a. Acetone
b. Alcohol
c. Dioxane4-cellosolve
d. Tetrahydrofuran

A

b. Alcohol

124
Q
  1. A clear, colorless, flammable fluid is the alcohol recommended for routine dehydration and best dehydrating agent.

a. Ethyl alcohol
b. Methyl alcohol
c. Butyl alcohol
d. Isopropyl alcohol

A

a. Ethyl alcohol

125
Q
  1. Gross description of tissue after clearing, if there is no complete dehydration of tissue.

a. Bluish color
b. Milky/Whitish appearance
c. Translucent/transparent
d. Yellow pigmentation

A

b. Milky/Whitish appearance

126
Q
  1. Most common clearing agent.

a. Cedarwood
b. Chloroform
c. Toluene
d. Xylene

A

d. Xylene

127
Q
  1. Recommended for routine work (6-24 hours) and for tough tissues (e.g. skin, fibroid and decalcified tissue), does not make tissue transparent.

a. Chloroform
b. Cedarwood oil
c. Xylene
d. Methyl benzoate and methyl salicylate

A

a. Chloroform

128
Q
  1. Agent clears paraffin and celloidin in 5-6 days, becomes milky upon prolonged storage.

a. Benzene
b. Xylene
c. Cedarwood oil
d. Methyl benzoate and methyl salicylate

A

c. Cedarwood oil

129
Q
  1. Slow-acting that can be used when double embedding techniques

a. Benzene
b. Chloroform
c. Xylene
d. Methyl benzoate and methyl salicylate

A

d. Methyl benzoate and methyl salicylate

130
Q
  1. Inadequate impregnation will promote retention of the clearing agent, showed by

a. Milky/Whitish appearance
b. Translucent/transparent
c. Yellow pigmentation
d. Gritty cutting sensation

A

a. Milky/Whitish appearance

131
Q
  1. It is considered as the fastest way of impregnating a tissue sample:

a. manual processing
b. automatic processing
c. vacuum embedding
d. None of these

A

c. vacuum embedding

132
Q
  1. Low viscosity celloidin, soluble in equal concentration of ether and alcohol, with a lower viscosity, allowing it to be used in higher concentrations and still penetrate tissues rapidly.

a. Dry celloidin Method
b. Nitrocellulose Method
c. Paraffin method
d. Gelatin method

A

b. Nitrocellulose Method

133
Q
  1. Microtome parts that line up the tissue block in proper position with the knife and adjusting the proper thickness of the tissue for successive sections.

a. Block Holder
b. Knife Carrier and Knife
c. Pawl, Ratchet Feed Wheel and Adjustment Screw
d. Base and lever

A

c. Pawl, Ratchet Feed Wheel and Adjustment Screw

134
Q
  1. Microtome primarily used for cutting tissue sections at 0.5 micra, for electron microscopy.
    a. Cambridge Microtome
    b. Minot Microtome
    c. Base-Sledge Microtome
    d. Ultrathin microtome
A

d. Ultrathin microtome

135
Q
  1. The most sensitive of the oil soluble dyes with greater affinity for phospholipids and neutral fats (TAG), but not with crystalline cholesterol, and free fatty acids:

a. Sudan Black B
b. Sudan IV
c. Sudan III
d. Oil Red O

A

a. Sudan Black B

136
Q
  1. A fluorescent dye that is also used with osmic acid to fix and stain blood and glandular tissues:

a. Rhodamine B
b. Osmic tetroxide
c. Orcein
d. Neutral red

A

a. Rhodamine B

137
Q

137.Stains elastic fibers and recommended for dermatological studies because it demonstrates the finest and most delicate fibers in the skin:

a. Osmium tetroxide
b. Orcein
c. Picric acid
d. Prussian blue

A

b. Orcein

138
Q
  1. Used as a decolorizer and counterstain for ascaris eggs, erythrocytes and a bacterial spore stain:

A. Malachite green
B. Methylene blue
C. Neutral red
D. Orcein

A

A. Malachite green

139
Q
  1. What is the color of Doderlain bacilli to Pap’s staining?

A. Yellow
B. Red
C. White
D. Lavender

A

D. Lavender

140
Q
  1. “Strongly suggestive of malignancy” is reported as what in Class System?

a. Class I
b. Class II
c. Class III
d. Class IV

A

d. Class IV

141
Q
  1. What type of adipose tissue tend to increase as humans age?

a. Brown adipose tissue
c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B

A

b. White adipose tissue

142
Q
  1. To obtain optimum cutting quality, the angle between two smooth plane surfaces should be:

a. 20 degrees
b. 14 degrees
c. 27 degrees
d. 45 degrees

A

b. 14 degrees

143
Q
  1. It is the most commonly used clearing agent?

A. Xylene
B. Benzene
C. Chloroform
D. Clove oil

A

A. Xylene

144
Q
  1. What type of microtome uses a diamond knife?

A. Vibrotome
B. Ultrathin microtome
C. Rotary microtome
D. Cambridge microtome

A

B. Ultrathin microtome

145
Q

145.It is used to demonstrate circulatory system by injection?

A. Malachite greem
B. Janus green
C. Picric acid
D. Prussian blue

A

D. Prussian blue

146
Q
  1. Which of the following affect decalcification?

A. Patient’s age
B. Temperature
C. All of these
D. None of these

A

C. All of these

147
Q
  1. All laboratory instruments should:

a. Have repairs conducted while connected to a facility wiring
b. Be grounded or double insulated
c. Have safety checks performed every 6 months
d. Be connected to a multiple outlet adaptor

A

c. Have safety checks performed every 6 months

148
Q
  1. The ideal tissue to formalin ratio is:

A. 1:1
B. 1:20
C. 20:1
D. 10:1

A

B. 1:20

149
Q
  1. Fixative of choice for umbilical cord and mucopolysaccharide rich tissues:

A. 10 % formalin
B. Lead fixative
C. Chromate fixative
D. Picric acid

A

B. Lead fixative

150
Q
  1. Penetration of fixative into tissue is dependent on the ff.
    factors, EXCEPT:

A. Concentration of fixative
B. Type of fixative
C. Thickness of tissue
D. Presence of blood and fat in tissue
E. All of these

A

E. All of these

151
Q
  1. Specimen labeled S99-450, the number 450 represents:

A. Specimen number 450
B. Year 1945
C. Professional fee
D. hospital fee

A

A. Specimen number 450

152
Q
  1. The plasma-Thrombin method is a technique of preparing:

A. Smears of cytology
B. Adhesive
C. Cell block
D. Decalcification technique

A

A. Smears of cytology

153
Q
  1. Smears from the cervical-vaginal sample are BEST fixed with:

A. 10 % formalin
B. 70% isopropanol
C. 95% ethanol
D. acetone

A

C. 95% ethanol

154
Q
  1. Paraffin embedding is done at what temperature?

A. 58-58°C
B. 47°C
C. 60°C
D. 100°C

A

C. 60°C

155
Q
  1. Dirt or grit on the microtone knife is best cleansed with:

A. Acetone
B. 95% alcohol
C. Xylene
D. Water

A

C. Xylene

156
Q
  1. The working temperature of the cryostat:

A. 37°C
B. 0°C
C. - 20°C
D. -80°C

A

C. - 20°C

157
Q
  1. Thymol is added to Meyer’s egg albumin to prevent growth of:

A. Fungus
B. Bacteria
C. BOTH
D. NEITHER

A

C. BOTH

158
Q
  1. The bevel angle is maintained by:

A. Honing
B. Stropping
C. BOTH
D. NEITHER

A

C. BOTH

159
Q
  1. With an applicator stick or a platinum loop, the material is rapidly and gently applied in a direct or zigzag line throughout the slide attempting to obtain a relatively uniform distribution of secretion.

A. teasing or dissociation
B. spreading
C. squash preparation (crushing)
D. streaking

A

D. streaking

160
Q
  1. After hematoxylin staining, microcalfications usually appear as:

a. black granular masses with lighter halos
b. dark blue granular masses with lighter blue halos
c. dark purple granular masses with lighter purple halos
d. dark red granular masses with lighter red halos

A

d. dark red granular masses with lighter red halos

161
Q
  1. It is considered to be the most rapid fixative:

A. Carnoy’s fluid
B. Helly’s solution
C. Orth’s fluid
D. Regaud’s solution

A

A. Carnoy’s fluid

162
Q
  1. Nitric acid for decalcification is used at what concentration?

A. 10%
B. 100%
C. 5%
D. 37%
E. A & C

A

E. A & C

163
Q
  1. Who signs the laboratory result form in a histopathology section?

A. Pathologist
B. Medical technologist
C. Attending physician
D. All of the above

A

A. Pathologist

164
Q
  1. The substances that hasten the binding affinity of the dye to the tissue is called:

A. Mordant
B. Adhesive
C. Accentuator
D. Dye complex

A

C. Accentuator

165
Q
  1. Clue cells are diagnostic of what infection?

A. Neisseria gonorrhoea
B. Gardnerella vaginalis
C. HSV-II
D. Candida albicans

A

B. Gardnerella vaginalis

166
Q
  1. Which of the following stones hones offer the COARSEST grain?

A. Arkansas
B. Carborundum
C. Belgian yellow
D. All of the above

A

B. Carborundum

167
Q
  1. Refractive index of the mounting medium is rated at (or higher)

A. 1.518
B. 1.158
C. 1.815
D. 1.581

A

A. 1.518

168
Q
  1. The following statements are TRUE of stropping, EXCEPT:

A. Use leather strops
B. Polishes cutting edge of the knife
C. Stroke: heel to toe
D. Performed at 80 to 120 strokes

A

C. Stroke: heel to toe

169
Q
  1. Removal of formalin pigments is done before ;

A. Fixation
B. Microtomy
C. Tissue staining
D. Dehydration

A

C. Tissue staining

170
Q
  1. Clearing agents, EXCEPT:

A. Acetone
B. Petroleum ether
C. Xylene
D. Toluene

A

A. Acetone

171
Q
  1. Fine needle aspiration biopsy smears are fixed using:

A. 95 % alcohol
B. Methanol
C. 10 % formalin
D. 70 % isopropyl alcohol

A

A. 95 % alcohol

172
Q
  1. Hydrogen peroxide and potassium periodate are examples of:

A. Mordants
B. Ripening agents
C. Adhesives
D. Decolorizing agents

A

B. Ripening agents

173
Q
  1. The regressive staining method employs which staining step?

A. Deparaffinization
B. Dezenkerization
C. Differentiation
D. Dehydration

A

C. Differentiation

174
Q
  1. Temperature of the floatation water bath:

A. 37°C
B. 56-58°C
C. 47°C
D. 100°C

A

C. 47°C

175
Q
  1. A Dioxane method where specimen is placed on gauze and suspended in a bottle of dioxane and calcium oxide for 3-24 hours

A. Graupner’s method
B. Weiseberger’s method
C. all of these
D. none of these

A

B. Weiseberger’s method

HTMLE (4 decks)

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