HIPPA/MEDICAL RECORDS and Terminology Flashcards
Who sets the HIPAA rules?
US Dept. of Health and Human Services
What does HIPAA stand for?
Health Insurance Portability Accountability Act
What year was it founded in?
1996
What issue does HIPAA address?
Addresses use and disclosure of health info of individuals and the use by organizations
Who is responsible for implementing and enforcing the Privacy Rule?
Office for Civil Rights is responsible for implementing and enforcing the Privacy Rule
what is the goal of HIPAA?
Goal of HIPAA is to assure health info is protected while info that is shared promotes high quality health care
What does HIPAA law specifically protect?
Protects all identifiable health info held or transmitted by a covered entity or business associate
o All demographic data related to a pt or individuals past/present or future mental health condition
o Provision of health care to that individual
o Past, present, or future payment for health care; identifiers include name, address, birth date and SSN.
are these identifiable or de-identified info?
identifiable info
what is not protected under HIPAA?
de-identified info
what is de-identified info?
Limited Data Set: protected health info from which certain specified direct identifiers of individuals and their relatives, household members, and employers have been removed
o This may be disclosed for research or public health purposes
The Privacy Rule permits the use and disclosure of protected information in how many national priority purposes?
12
name the reasons the privacy rule permits the use and disclosure of protected information.
Required by law, Public health activities, victims of neglect or abuse, health oversight activities such as audits, judicial proceedings, law enforcement purposes, to determine cause of death, facilitation of donation and transplantation of organs, research, serious threat to Health of Safety to public, essential government functions, worker’s compensation
When must written authorization be obtained?
Written authorization must be obtained for:
1) any use of protected health info that is not used for treatment,
2) payment,
3) health care operations
4) marketing (communications and referrals are not marketing)
Name what a Privacy Practices Notice must state.
Privacy Practices Notice must state:
1) how the covered entity may disclose the protected health info,
2) state the duty to protect privacy,
3) provide notice and abide by it and must be delivered no later than the first service encounter
4) should be posted prominently in the office
Must be a “good faith effort” to obtain acknowledgement of receipt of the privacy practices.
True or False
True
Documentation about privacy notices, disposition, complaints and other actions must be kept for how long?
6 years
Individuals do not have the right to review and obtain a copy of their records.
True or False
False
The maximum necessary protected information should be disclosed
true or false
false. the minimum necessary info should be disclosed.
Release of information may occur for national priority purposes.
true or false.
true
as an extern are you bound by HIPAA rules?
yes
what are the ONLY reasons that you can access patient info?
payment, patient care or treatment
what is considered to be anterior?
everything before the iris.
what is considered posterior?
vitreous, choroid, retina, etc.
Disc diameter is used to describe the distance of what?
Disc diameter used to describe the distance of lesions on the retina. ONH is approx. 1.5mm
what is the size of the normal disc? it increases until when?
Normal disc is 1/3 or .3 and increases until .1 and disc is gone
what does a patient learn during lid hygiene/maintenance?
Lid hygiene/ lid maintenance= procedure where patient is taught how to clean lids and put warm compresses on lids.
what is dry eye?
if any of the 3 layers of the tears are affected.
ptosis
droopy lid
what two types of conjunctivitis can you have?
bulbar or palpebral conjunctivitis
inflammation of the conjunctiva
conjunctivitis
what is glaucoma?
Glaucoma= increase intra ocular pressure. Damage optic nerve of eye. Can be treated by drop to relieve pressure.
Size of cup in relation to disc= cup to disc ratio.
Acquired Esotropia?
Inward eye turn after 6 months old
Pantascopic Angle: the eyeglass frame should sit slightly inward (bottom closer to eye).
The eyeglass frame should sit slightly inward (bottom closer to eye).
What is the back vertex?
power of the lens and is read off the back of a concave side of a lens.
corrects irregular astigmatism and keratoconus
rigid CL
keratometer
corneal curvature
base curve indicates how curved the lens is. more curved is steep.
True or False.
True.
Wearing schedule for contacts, should start slow for new wearers and gradually increase to full time.
True or False
True.
contact lens wearers should only wear contacts for how long a day? how long should you leave your contacts out before sleeping?
12 hours and 3 hours
myadriasis means
pupil dialated
miosis means
pupil constrict
cyclopegia
relax
nystagmus
congenital or required
most sensitive part of the fovea is?
macula
what surrounds the macula?
the fovea
what is macula degeneration? who is most effected by it? is there a cure for it?
deterioration of the macula. It effected by Caucasians mostly. No cure. Can be treated in early stages.
what are the parts of the supra-orbital rim?
lacrimal, sphenoid, ethmoid, frontal, maxillary
what is A-scan?
A-scan: linear measurement of eye. measures axial length of the eye; type of ultrasound
what is a B-scan?
B-scan: shows what eye looks like in real time. used to visualize a cross section of tissues and looks like a moving “X-ray
Malingering
Trying to fail an eye exam.
Hering’s law of equal Innervation refers to what?
refers to two eyes, yoked muscle
Sherrington’s Law of Reciprocal Innervation: refers to one eye only
True or False
True
what are pursuits and saccades?
pursuits= following a target saccades= jumping from one target to another.
YAG Laser is used for what?
surgical procedures, such as cataract removal
Floaters are normal after age 23 but is suspicious after a detachment or with flashes (retina is beating against itself).
True or False
True
Single vision (SV) = ? Distance correction + Near add = ?
SV= one piece lens
Distance correction plus near add= near correction or reading glasses
what types of lens are the following:
one line= ?
two lines= ?
no lines= ?
bifocal= one line
trifocal= two lines
progressive or multi-focal lens= no lines
what types of lens material are there?
glass, plastic, polycarbonate
what is a pantascopic angle?
Pantascopic angle= angle glasses sit on patient face.
what is PD or IPD mean?
Pupillary Distance= distance between pupils
what is a pupillometer used for?
used to neutralize prescription to see what it is.
what are different types of contact lens and what are they made out of?
1) Soft lenses Hydrogel Silicone 2) Rigid lenses Gaspermeable material 3) Hybrid lenses= central rigid and soft mix
what is progressive myopia?
Progressive Myopia= disease process where myopia changes and now your have problems with back of eye.
what is a plano lens?
no power lens
what is amblyopia? what are the characteristics?
Amblyopia= has reduced acquity not structural for pathology.
Reduced acuity not corrected by refraction, not structural or pathological etiology
20/30
what is functional amblyopia?
Functional amblyopia
Refractive error
Strabismus
Hysterical
what is organic amblyopia?
Organic amblyopia Nutritional Toxic Congenital Vision deprivation
how many cardinal positions of gaze are there?
9
what does conjugate eye movement mean?
what is the difference between vergence and version?
Conjugate movement= two eye move together
Vergence= eye toward or away
Version= side to side
how many cranial nerves are there?
12
what are the innervations of the eye muscles?
(SO4 LR6) 3 (all the rest)
Define low vision and legally blind,
low vision= reduced VA. (can use whatever vision they have left to lead a normal life)
legally blind= within the limit to be classified as blind but not necessarily completely blind.
