HIPPA/MEDICAL RECORDS and Terminology Flashcards

1
Q

Who sets the HIPAA rules?

A

US Dept. of Health and Human Services

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2
Q

What does HIPAA stand for?

A

Health Insurance Portability Accountability Act

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3
Q

What year was it founded in?

A

1996

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4
Q

What issue does HIPAA address?

A

Addresses use and disclosure of health info of individuals and the use by organizations

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5
Q

Who is responsible for implementing and enforcing the Privacy Rule?

A

Office for Civil Rights is responsible for implementing and enforcing the Privacy Rule

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6
Q

what is the goal of HIPAA?

A

Goal of HIPAA is to assure health info is protected while info that is shared promotes high quality health care

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7
Q

What does HIPAA law specifically protect?

A

Protects all identifiable health info held or transmitted by a covered entity or business associate

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8
Q

o All demographic data related to a pt or individuals past/present or future mental health condition
o Provision of health care to that individual
o Past, present, or future payment for health care; identifiers include name, address, birth date and SSN.

are these identifiable or de-identified info?

A

identifiable info

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9
Q

what is not protected under HIPAA?

A

de-identified info

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10
Q

what is de-identified info?

A

Limited Data Set: protected health info from which certain specified direct identifiers of individuals and their relatives, household members, and employers have been removed
o This may be disclosed for research or public health purposes

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11
Q

The Privacy Rule permits the use and disclosure of protected information in how many national priority purposes?

A

12

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12
Q

name the reasons the privacy rule permits the use and disclosure of protected information.

A

Required by law, Public health activities, victims of neglect or abuse, health oversight activities such as audits, judicial proceedings, law enforcement purposes, to determine cause of death, facilitation of donation and transplantation of organs, research, serious threat to Health of Safety to public, essential government functions, worker’s compensation

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13
Q

When must written authorization be obtained?

A

Written authorization must be obtained for:

1) any use of protected health info that is not used for treatment,
2) payment,
3) health care operations
4) marketing (communications and referrals are not marketing)

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14
Q

Name what a Privacy Practices Notice must state.

A

Privacy Practices Notice must state:

1) how the covered entity may disclose the protected health info,
2) state the duty to protect privacy,
3) provide notice and abide by it and must be delivered no later than the first service encounter
4) should be posted prominently in the office

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15
Q

Must be a “good faith effort” to obtain acknowledgement of receipt of the privacy practices.
True or False

A

True

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16
Q

Documentation about privacy notices, disposition, complaints and other actions must be kept for how long?

A

6 years

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17
Q

Individuals do not have the right to review and obtain a copy of their records.
True or False

A

False

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18
Q

The maximum necessary protected information should be disclosed
true or false

A

false. the minimum necessary info should be disclosed.

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19
Q

Release of information may occur for national priority purposes.
true or false.

A

true

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20
Q

as an extern are you bound by HIPAA rules?

A

yes

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21
Q

what are the ONLY reasons that you can access patient info?

A

payment, patient care or treatment

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22
Q

what is considered to be anterior?

A

everything before the iris.

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23
Q

what is considered posterior?

A

vitreous, choroid, retina, etc.

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24
Q

Disc diameter is used to describe the distance of what?

A

Disc diameter used to describe the distance of lesions on the retina. ONH is approx. 1.5mm

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25
Q

what is the size of the normal disc? it increases until when?

A

Normal disc is 1/3 or .3 and increases until .1 and disc is gone

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26
Q

what does a patient learn during lid hygiene/maintenance?

A

Lid hygiene/ lid maintenance= procedure where patient is taught how to clean lids and put warm compresses on lids.

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27
Q

what is dry eye?

A

if any of the 3 layers of the tears are affected.

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28
Q

ptosis

A

droopy lid

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29
Q

what two types of conjunctivitis can you have?

A

bulbar or palpebral conjunctivitis

30
Q

inflammation of the conjunctiva

A

conjunctivitis

31
Q

what is glaucoma?

A

Glaucoma= increase intra ocular pressure. Damage optic nerve of eye. Can be treated by drop to relieve pressure.
Size of cup in relation to disc= cup to disc ratio.

32
Q

Acquired Esotropia?

A

Inward eye turn after 6 months old

33
Q

Pantascopic Angle: the eyeglass frame should sit slightly inward (bottom closer to eye).

A

The eyeglass frame should sit slightly inward (bottom closer to eye).

34
Q

What is the back vertex?

A

power of the lens and is read off the back of a concave side of a lens.

35
Q

corrects irregular astigmatism and keratoconus

A

rigid CL

36
Q

keratometer

A

corneal curvature

37
Q

base curve indicates how curved the lens is. more curved is steep.
True or False.

A

True.

38
Q

Wearing schedule for contacts, should start slow for new wearers and gradually increase to full time.
True or False

A

True.

39
Q

contact lens wearers should only wear contacts for how long a day? how long should you leave your contacts out before sleeping?

A

12 hours and 3 hours

40
Q

myadriasis means

A

pupil dialated

41
Q

miosis means

A

pupil constrict

42
Q

cyclopegia

A

relax

43
Q

nystagmus

A

congenital or required

44
Q

most sensitive part of the fovea is?

A

macula

45
Q

what surrounds the macula?

A

the fovea

46
Q

what is macula degeneration? who is most effected by it? is there a cure for it?

A

deterioration of the macula. It effected by Caucasians mostly. No cure. Can be treated in early stages.

47
Q

what are the parts of the supra-orbital rim?

A

lacrimal, sphenoid, ethmoid, frontal, maxillary

48
Q

what is A-scan?

A

A-scan: linear measurement of eye. measures axial length of the eye; type of ultrasound

49
Q

what is a B-scan?

A

B-scan: shows what eye looks like in real time. used to visualize a cross section of tissues and looks like a moving “X-ray

50
Q

Malingering

A

Trying to fail an eye exam.

51
Q

Hering’s law of equal Innervation refers to what?

A

refers to two eyes, yoked muscle

52
Q

Sherrington’s Law of Reciprocal Innervation: refers to one eye only
True or False

A

True

53
Q

what are pursuits and saccades?

A
pursuits= following a target
saccades= jumping from one target to another.
54
Q

YAG Laser is used for what?

A

surgical procedures, such as cataract removal

55
Q

Floaters are normal after age 23 but is suspicious after a detachment or with flashes (retina is beating against itself).
True or False

A

True

56
Q
Single vision (SV) = ?
Distance correction + Near add = ?
A

SV= one piece lens

Distance correction plus near add= near correction or reading glasses

57
Q

what types of lens are the following:
one line= ?
two lines= ?
no lines= ?

A

bifocal= one line
trifocal= two lines
progressive or multi-focal lens= no lines

58
Q

what types of lens material are there?

A

glass, plastic, polycarbonate

59
Q

what is a pantascopic angle?

A

Pantascopic angle= angle glasses sit on patient face.

60
Q

what is PD or IPD mean?

A

Pupillary Distance= distance between pupils

61
Q

what is a pupillometer used for?

A

used to neutralize prescription to see what it is.

62
Q

what are different types of contact lens and what are they made out of?

A
1) Soft lenses
Hydrogel
Silicone
2) Rigid lenses
Gaspermeable material
3) Hybrid lenses= central rigid and soft mix
63
Q

what is progressive myopia?

A

Progressive Myopia= disease process where myopia changes and now your have problems with back of eye.

64
Q

what is a plano lens?

A

no power lens

65
Q

what is amblyopia? what are the characteristics?

A

Amblyopia= has reduced acquity not structural for pathology.
Reduced acuity not corrected by refraction, not structural or pathological etiology
20/30

66
Q

what is functional amblyopia?

A

Functional amblyopia
Refractive error
Strabismus
Hysterical

67
Q

what is organic amblyopia?

A
Organic amblyopia
Nutritional
Toxic
Congenital
Vision deprivation
68
Q

how many cardinal positions of gaze are there?

A

9

69
Q

what does conjugate eye movement mean?

what is the difference between vergence and version?

A

Conjugate movement= two eye move together
Vergence= eye toward or away
Version= side to side

70
Q

how many cranial nerves are there?

A

12

71
Q

what are the innervations of the eye muscles?

A

(SO4 LR6) 3 (all the rest)

72
Q

Define low vision and legally blind,

A

low vision= reduced VA. (can use whatever vision they have left to lead a normal life)

legally blind= within the limit to be classified as blind but not necessarily completely blind.