Hip and Pelvis Bony Flashcards

1
Q

This type of treatment option is use of intramedullary rod, pins, prosthesis, or a fixed sliding plate, screws, wires

a. ORIF
b. arthroplasty
c. hemiarthroplasty
d. bucks traction

A

ORIF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

This type of treatment option uses prosthetic device for fracture of the femoral neck or head

a. ORIF
b. arthroplasty
c. hemiarthroplasty
d. bucks traction

A

arthroplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

This type of treatment option is only the prosthetic femoral head is implanted

a. ORIF
b. arthroplasty
c. hemiarthroplasty
d. bucks traction

A

hemiarthroplasty

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Bucks traction or skeletal traction is followed by use of cast brace can be described as

a. ORIF
b. arthroplasty
c. hemiarthroplasty
d. non surgical

A

non surgical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How long does it take for a fracture to heal for an upper limb adult?

a. 8-12 weeks
b. 12-16 weeks
c. 3-4 weeks
d. 6-8 weeks

A

8-12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How long does it take for a fracture to heal for a lower limb adult?

a. 8-12 weeks
b. 12-16 weeks
c. 3-4 weeks
d. 6-8 weeks

A

12-16 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How long does it take for a fracture in the upper limb of a child to heal?

a. 8-12 weeks
b. 12-16 weeks
c. 3-4 weeks
d. 6-8 weeks

A

3-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

How long does it take for a fracture of the lower limb in a child to heal?

a. 8-12 weeks
b. 12-16 weeks
c. 3-4 weeks
d. 6-8 weeks

A

6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What factors affect fracture healing?

A

tissue response
the patient
method of treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

_ fixation uses pins, screws, rods, plates and or/prosthesis to immobilize the fracture during healing

a. internal fixation
b. external fixation

A

internal fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

several small holes are drilled into the bone and metal pins are inserted through or into the bone

a. internal fixation
b. external fixation

A

external fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which type of fixation allows for early ambulation and exercise of the affected body part while relieving pain?

a. arthroplasty
b. internal fixation
c. external fixation

A

external fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which type of fixation is at risk for pin-tract infection that can lead to osteomyelitis?

a. arthroplasty
b. internal fixation
c. external fixation

A

external fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the mechanism of injury of pelvic fractures?

A

compression, high speed collision, fall, direct blow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the most common injury sites for a pelvis fracture?

a. the ilium
b. anterior pubis and anterior ischium
c. posterior pubis and posterior ischium
d. lateral pubis and lateral ischium

A

anterior pubis and anterior ischium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are associated risks with a pelvis fracture?

A

damage to overlying blood vessels and adjacent organs resulting in peritonitis, sepsis, infection, hemorrhage, shock

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

List possible sequela from pelvic fractures

A
rupture of major arteries 
neurological damage 
sacroiliac injury or pain 
hip joint disruption
damage to GI structures
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what major artery is at risk of injury with a pelvic fracture?

a. obturator artery
b. brachial artery
c. femoral artery
d. gluteus artery

A

femoral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

During immobilization, motion is allowed depending upon the stability of the fracture (true/false)

A

true

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Femoral neck fracture prognosis depends on

A
location 
displacement
reduction
stability 
if it requires fixation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

A proximal femur fracture MOI is

a. trauma to the anterior side
b. trauma posteriorly
c. direct lateral impact
d. direct impact on the femur

A

direct lateral impact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the most common injury sites for a proximal femur fracture?

A

neck
intertrochanteric
subtrochanteric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the associated risks of a proximal femur fracture

a. nerve damage
b. soft tissue damage
c. hemorrhage
d. b and c

A

soft tissue damage

hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Fractures in the neck are usually due to

a. trauma
b. collision
c. congenital defects
d. decreased bone mineral density

A

decreased bone mineral density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Femur neck fractures are commonly found in

a. kids
b. athletes
c. elderly
d. adults

A

elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Blood supply is not compromised with a neck fracture (true/false)

A

false

the fracture is intracapsular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What treatment is common for a neck fracture?

a. THR or internal fixation
b. external fixation
c. immobilization
d. therapy

A

THR or internal fixation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

How are subcaptial fractrues treated?

A

internal fixation, screw and side plate or hemiarthroplasty

29
Q

Subcapital fractures are common in what population

a. children
b. athletes
c. elderly
d. any age

A

elderly

30
Q

How are intertrochanteric fractures treated?

a. external fixation
b. hemiarthroplasty
c. arthroplasty
d. screw fixation device

A

screw fixation device

31
Q

Subtrochanteric fractures are common in what population

a. elderly
b. young
c. adults
d. athletes

A

young

32
Q

Femoral shaft fractures are common in what population

a. elderly
b. children
c. all age groups
d. adults

A

all age groups

33
Q

Which type of fracture involves significant trauma?

a. subtrochnateric fractures
b. intertrochanteric fractures
c. subcaptial fractures
d. femur fractures

A

femur fractures

34
Q

Which type of fracture presents with immediate loss of function, pain, and deformity?

a. subtrochnateric fractures
b. intertrochanteric fractures
c. subcaptial fractures
d. femur fractures

A

femur fractures

35
Q

Avascular Necrosis, infection, arthritis, dislocation, coxa vara/valga are potential complications with

a. hemiarthroplasty
b. arthroplasty
c. ORIF
d. external fixation

A

ORIF

36
Q

A fracture of some component of the acetabulum occurs as the hip dislocates (true/false)

A

true

37
Q

How do you treat a fracture-dislocation?

A

reduction of the fracture with traction and rest for 12 weeks

38
Q

Patients with a fracture dislocation are not prone to re-dislocation (true/false)

A

false

39
Q

What is the most common direction of hip dislocation associated with an acetabular fracture?

a. anterior
b. medial
c. lateral
d. posterior

A

posterior

40
Q

Compression trauma or rotational trauma is most commonly the MOI for what type of injury?

a. femur fractures
b. intertrochanteric fractures
c. fracture dislocation
d. hip dislocation

A

fracture dislocation

41
Q

This type of injury is a blunt force to bent knee when the hip is flexed

a. compression trauma
b. rotational trauma
c. fall from a high surface
d. MVA

A

compression trauma

42
Q

This type of injury is a severe internal rotation of thigh with the hip partially flexed

a. compression trauma
b. rotational trauma
c. fall from a high surface
d. MVA

A

rotational trauma

43
Q

List the associated risks with fracture dislocation

A

damage to the sciatic nerve

compromise of blood supply to head of femur

44
Q

How is the hip dislocated?

a. the neck moves away from the head of the femur
b. the acetabulum separates from the femoral head
c. the shaft pulls the head out of the acetabulum
d. the femoral head moves out of the acetabulum

A

the femoral head moves out of the acetabulum

45
Q

What position is the hip most commonly dislocated in?

a. extension, adduction and internal rotation
b. flexion, abduction and internal rotation
c. flexion, adduction and internal rotation
d. extension, abduction and external rotation

A

flexion, adduction and internal rotation

46
Q

If a patients presents with extreme pain, obvious deformity and are unwilling to move the extremity they most likely

a. fractured their acetabulum
b. fractured the femur
c. dislocated their hip
d. fractured and dislocated their hip

A

dislocated their hip

47
Q

Immobilization for hip dislocation is usually

a. 2-3 weeks
b. 3-4 weeks
c. 4-6 weeks
d. 5-7 weeks

A

4-6 weeks

48
Q

This type of complication follows hip dislocation, fracture and chronic synovitis

A

avascular necrosis

49
Q

What are the most common sites for stress fracture?

a. neck of the femur
b. head and neck
c. acetabulum
d. femoral shaft and neck

A

femoral shaft and neck

50
Q

This type of pathology is idiopathic and is described as the femoral head slipping posteriorly and inferiorly

a. legg-calve-perthes disease (LCPD)
b. slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
c. femoral fracture
d. hip dislocation

A

slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)

51
Q

A young child has pain in the groin area, loss of IR, flexion and abduction, pain with AROM/PROM, they most likely have

a. legg-calve-perthes disease (LCPD)
b. slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
c. femoral fracture
d. hip dislocation

A

slipped capital femoral epiphysis

52
Q

SCFE is a problem with

A

the epiphysis plate

53
Q

In what direction does the femoral head slip in SCFE?

a. posteriorly and superiorly
b. posteriorly and inferiorly
c. anteriorly and inferiorly
d. anteriorly and superiorly

A

posteriorly and inferiorly

54
Q

This is defined as avascular necrosis of the proximal femoral epiphysis and is a chronic condition that develops slowly in children

a. legg-calve-perthes disease (LCPD)
b. slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
c. femoral fracture
d. hip dislocation

A

LCPD

55
Q

LCPD is more common in girls (true/false)

A

false

boys

56
Q

A young patient shows signs of pain in the hip or groin that radiates to the knee, limps, has decreased ROM and possible hip flexor tightness. They might have

a. legg-calve-perthes disease (LCPD)
b. slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE)
c. femoral fracture
d. hip dislocation

A

LCPD

57
Q

What are treatment options for LCPD?

A

rest/activity modification
casting or bracing
surgery
PT to strengthen hip and maintain ROM

58
Q

This is described as progressive deterioration of the articular cartilage and overgrowth of periarticular bone

A

degenerative joint disease

59
Q

Degenerative hip changes develop _ to repetitive _, _, or _ injury

A

secondary
trauma
age
acute injury

60
Q

_ DJD is secondary to aging

A

primary (idiopathic)

61
Q

_ DJD is a result of congenital abnormalities that alter biomechanics

A

secondary (traumatic)

62
Q

signs and symptoms of OA

A

anterior groin pain
radiation of pain into L1 and L2 dermatome
stiffness after prolonged rest
decreased ROM in extension, IR and loss of end range flexion
antalgic gait and pain with ADLs

63
Q

OA of the hip will show decreased ROM in (3)

A

extension, IR, loss of end range flexion

64
Q

The clinical prediction rule for OA

A

self-reported squatting as an aggravating factor
active hip flexion causing lateral hip pain
scour test with adduction causing lateral hip or groin pain
active hip ext causing hip pain
passive IR of less than or equal to 25 degrees

65
Q

Deterioration of the hip joint cartilage is defined as

a. osteoarthritis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. traumatic arthritis
d. non-union

A

osteoarthritis

66
Q

inflammation in the lining of the hip joint is defined as

a. osteoarthritis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. traumatic arthritis
d. non-union

A

rheumatoid arthritis

67
Q

arthritis resulting from physical injury to the hip joint is defined as

a. osteoarthritis
b. rheumatoid arthritis
c. traumatic arthritis
d. non-union

A

traumatic arthritis

68
Q

What are the indications for THA?

A
osteoarthritis 
rheumatoid arthritis
traumatic arthritis
non-union
AVN
other problems - congenital hip dysplasia or SCFE