High Yield - Oral Path Flashcards

1
Q

________ is seen with hypertrophic filiform papilla. ________ is seen with hyperplastic foliate papilla.

A

Hairy tongue; Lingual tonsil hyperplasia

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2
Q

What disorder involves many apthous ulcers?

A

Behcet’s syndrome

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3
Q

_______ are pathognumonic for measles.

A

Koplick spots

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4
Q

What is an epstein pearl?

A

Seen on palate of children

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5
Q

Cavernous sinus thrombosis can be caused by an infection _______.

A

in the upper lip (danger triangle)

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6
Q

What are the first signs of CST?

A

Headaches, blurred vision

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7
Q

What spaces are involved in ludwig angina?

A

Sublingual, submental, submandibular

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8
Q

Mandibular 2nd molar infection spreads to what space?

A

Submandibular

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9
Q

What is a distinct characteristic of Treacher Collins?

A

Malformed ear

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10
Q

Strawberry tongue is seen in what diseas?

A

Scarlet fever

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11
Q

What is a fordyce granule?

A

Ectopic sebaceous gland

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12
Q

Most likely cause of Turner’s tooth?

A

Trauma when young

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13
Q

T/F: Apthous ulcers are normally found on keratinized tissue.

A

False
Apthous - nonkeratinized
Herpes - free and attached mucosa

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14
Q

What are the major differences between pemphigoid and pemphigus?

A
Pemphigoid = subepithelial, seperation of basement membrane, ocular lesions
Pemphigus = surface lesions (intraepithelial, suprabasilar), localized, skin lesions.
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15
Q

T/F: Pemphigoid and lichen planus are associated with desquamative gingivitis.

A

True

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16
Q

T/F: Epidermolysis bullosa is most likely seen in adults.

A

False

Kids

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17
Q

Which virus causes condyloma acuminatum?

A

HPV 6 and 11

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18
Q

T/F: Candidiasis can be wiped off.

A

True

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19
Q

What are common places for recurrent herpes?

A

Lip, gingiva, palate

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20
Q

T/F: Herpes zoster can mimic dental pain.

A

True

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21
Q

How does acyclovir work?

A

Inhibits mRNA

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22
Q

T/F: Histoplasmosis can mimic cancer.

A

True

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23
Q

Which disease can have the complication of herpetic neuralgia?

A

Herpes Zoster

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24
Q

_______ are often seen near the premolars and grow very rapidly.

A

Pyogenic granuloma

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25
Q

What is the most common benign neoplasm of epithelial tissue origin? Has cauliflower appearance.

A

papilloma

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26
Q

Epulis fissuratum most closely resembles a _______.

A

fibroma

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27
Q

Congenital epulis most closely resembles _______.

A

granular cell tumor

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28
Q

T/F: Incisional biopsy for leukoplakia.

A

True

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29
Q

Which type of leukemia is associated with Philadelphia chromosome?

A

CML

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30
Q

20 year old patient, spontaneously bleeding gums, bruises easily. Diagnosis?

A

Leukemia

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31
Q

What is the most common leukemia in children?

A

ALL

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32
Q

Young man with tingling lower lip, diffuse radiating trabeculae with swelling. Diagnosis.

A

Osteosarcoma

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33
Q

Verrucous carcinoma often is caused by ______.

A

smokeless tobacco

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34
Q

Most common salivary gland benign tumor?

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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35
Q

Most common malignant salivary gland tumor?

A

Mucoepidermoid carcinoma

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36
Q

Which salivary gland tumors have the best prognosis?

A

Acinar cell carcinoma, Mixed tumor (pleomorphic adinoma)

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37
Q

Which tumor involves peripheral invasion and looks like swiss cheese?

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma

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38
Q

What type of cyst can lead to ameloblastoma?

A

Dentigerous cyst

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39
Q

What is the most aggressive and most common odontogenic tumor?

A

Ameloblastoma

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40
Q

Gardner’s syndrome involves multiple _______.

A

odontomas

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41
Q

Radiograph shows maxillary canine surrounded by mixed radiolucent lesion?

A

AOT

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42
Q

Panoramic shows many teeth with open contacts and little enamel?

A

Amelogenesis imperfecta.

Autosomal dominant

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43
Q

What is often seen with osteogenesis imperfecta?

A

Dentinogenesis imperfecta

44
Q

T/F: Ectodermal dysplasia is often associated with dentinogenesis hyperplasia.

A

False

Ectoderm = enamel

45
Q

Difference between dentinogenesis imperfecta and dentin dysplasia?

A

DI - Crowns short and bulbous, narrow root, obliterated pulp

DD - Short roots, obliterated pulp, radiolucency, and mobile

46
Q

Difference between type I and type II dentinal dysplasia?

A

Type 1 - pulp obliteration

Type 2 - large pulp chamber

47
Q

T/F: Short roots = dentin dysplasia.

A

True

48
Q

T/F: Congenitally missing teeth (oligodontia) are often seen in ectodermal dysplasia.

A

True

49
Q

T/F: Blue sclera is seen in osteogenesis imperfecta

A

True

50
Q

Bilatteral jaw expansion in kid.

A

Cherubism

51
Q

Large radiopacity with ground glass appearence?

A

Fibrous dysplasia

52
Q

Cafe-au-lait spots and polyostotic fibrous dysplasia in which disorder?

A

McCune Albright

53
Q

What treatment for traumatic bone cyst?

A

None

54
Q

Cotton wool appearance in skull and increased alkaline phosphatase?

A

Paget’s disease

55
Q

T/F: Paget’s disease has high potential for turning malignant.

A

True

Can lead to osteosarcoma

56
Q

Teeth floating in air.

A

Langerhans histocytosis (Hand Schuller Christian)

57
Q

Multiple OKCs seen in which disorder?

A

Gorlin’s syndrome. Nevoid basal cell carcinoma

58
Q

T/F: OKCs have a high recurrence rate.

A

True

59
Q

Multiple osteomas and intestinal polyps.

A

Gardner’s syndrome

GI polyps can turn malignant

60
Q

Unilateral facial paralysis.

A

Bell’s palsy

61
Q

Best imaging for TMJ?

A

MRI

62
Q

Which parts of TMJ responsible for rotation?

A

Condyle and articulating disk

63
Q

Football player with tenderness of temporalis and hard to open mouth in morning?

A

Myofacial pain syndrome

64
Q

T/F: Erythema multiform and pemphigus both show nikolski sign.

A

True

65
Q

What is the most common location for mucocele?

A

Lower lip

66
Q

T/F: Ranula is due to trauma.

A

True

67
Q

Sialoliths are most commonly associated with which duct?

A

Submandibular

68
Q

What is the inverted Y in maxillary radiograph?

A

Floor of nasal fossa, maxillary sinus

69
Q

What is another name for antral pseudocyst?

A

Mucous retention cyst

70
Q

Describe radiolucency in dentigerous cyst?

A

From one CEJ to other surrounding crown

71
Q

What does TB look like in mouth?

A

Large Ulcer

72
Q

Oral granulomas, apthous ulcer, rectal bleeding.

A

Chrohn’s

73
Q

What is most common nonodontogenic cyst?

A

Nasopalatine cyst (heart shaped radiograph)

74
Q

White area cannot be wiped off?

A

Leukoplakia or white sponge nevus

75
Q

T/F: White sponge nevus will often be seen on the gingival margin and tongue.

A

False

Mostly buccal mucosa

76
Q

What is Carbamazapine use for?

A

Trigeminal neuralgia

77
Q

T/F: Actinic cheilitis can lead to SCC.

A

True

78
Q

30-50 year old female with mixed lesions on anterior mandible. Teeth are vital.

A

Cemento osseous dysplasia

79
Q

What cells are targeted in lichen planus?

A

T lymphocytes

80
Q

T/F: Cafe-au-lait spots with neurofibromatosis.

A

True

81
Q

Talon cusp seen in _________

A

dens evagenatus

82
Q

Warthin tumor is seen in which gland?

A

Parotid

83
Q

What is a stafne defect?

A

Radiolucency seen due to depression in mandible for submandibular gland.

84
Q

What are other terms for stafne defect?

A

Stafne bone cyst, salivary inclusion

85
Q

T/F: Rheumatoid arthritis often accompanies Sjorgrens syndrome.

A

True

86
Q

Multiple freckles on lips.

A

Peutz-Jeghers

87
Q

First sign of osteosarcoma?

A

Widening of PDL

88
Q

Soap bubble (honeycomb) lesion, moves teeth, often seen in posterior mandible.

A

Odontogenic myxoma

89
Q

Most of the xray is converted to ____.

A

heat

90
Q

Why oil in xray tube?

A

Cools off anode

91
Q

Max dose of radiation for dental personel?

A

50msv/year

92
Q

What is the purpose of collimater?

A

Reduce area of exposure, reduce scatter, increase penetrability

93
Q

What material is used as a filter?

A

Aluminum

94
Q

What is the target metal in an xray tube?

A

Tungsten

95
Q

What provides the greatest decrease in radiation to patient?

A

Rectangular collimator

96
Q

Wide anterior teeth in pan?

A

Too far back

97
Q

Very long anterior maxillary teeth in pan.

A

Chin too far down

98
Q

Pan has reverse occlusal plane.

A

Chin to high

99
Q

What is the pneumbra?

A

Fuzziness on outside of radiograph. Decreased contrast.

100
Q

How to avoid problems with pneumbra?

A

decrease size of focal spot, increase distance to source object, be sure of parallelism

101
Q

Which xray is most important for maxillary sinus?

A

Waters, or CT

102
Q

Radiographic image appears to light.

A

Underexposed, low mA or short exposure

103
Q

How does xray damage cells?

A

Hydrolysis of water molecules

104
Q

Which cells are least likely to be damaged by xrays?

A

Muscle

105
Q

T/F: Multiple myeloma is treated with bisphosphonates

A

False

106
Q

T/F: Ortho is contraindicated in pt taking bisphosphonate.

A

True

107
Q

Higher KPV = higher _____.

A

energy (shorter wavelength)