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NBDE Pt 2 > High Yield - OMFS > Flashcards

High Yield - OMFS Flashcards

1
Q

What test is needed for a patient on Warfarin/Coumadin?

A

INR (prothrombin time)

Should be under 3

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2
Q

What is the mode of action for Warfarin/Coumadin?

A

Decrease K+. Needed to synthesize factors II, VII, IX, X

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3
Q

T/F: The effects of Warfarin are seen immediately, and they go away abruptly upon stopping the med.

A

False

A few days for effect to occur. Can last up to 5 days after stopping

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4
Q

What is the mode of action of heparin?

A

Binds to and activates antithrombin III. Leads to inactivation of thrombin, factor Xa. This interrupts fibrinogen -> fibrin.

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5
Q

What is a normal INR?

A

1.
2-3 is desirable in Coumadin patients.
Higher equals more bleeding

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6
Q

What can reverse Coumadin?

A

Vitamin K supplement

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7
Q

T/F: An INR should be ordered for a severe alcoholic.

A

True

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8
Q

Which test will asses platelet function?

A

Bleeding time.

Aspirin affects this.

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9
Q

What will be the effect of inhibiting prostaglandins?

A

Increase gastric acid. Decrease gastric mucous

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10
Q

What is a normal hematocrit (RBC) level?

A 
Men = 45%
Women = 40%
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11
Q

T/F: The INR/PT asses the extrinsic clotting pathway.

A

True

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12
Q

T/F: PTT assesses the intrinsic clotting pathway.

A

True

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13
Q

Pts with hemophilia A are missing what clotting factor?

A

Factor VIII

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14
Q

T/F: Glucocorticoids are indicated for diabetic patients.

A

False

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15
Q

Why would Sulfonylurea not be effective in Type I diabetes pts?

A

Sulfonylurea stimulates beta cells in pancreas to release more insulin.
Type I diabetics lack beta cells

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16
Q

What type of channels do Sulfonylurea drugs bind to?

A

ATP-dependent K+ channels

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17
Q

What is the MOA of metformin?

A

Decreases glucose production in liver

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18
Q

Which molecule (insulin/glucagon) would cause a decrease in glycogenolysis in the liver?

A

Insulin.
Blood glucose high -> insulin released -> increase in glycogenesis and lipogenesis; decrease in glycogenolysis and lipogenolysis

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19
Q

T/F: There is more bacteria found in gingiva of diabetic patients.

A

False

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20
Q

What is the HbA1c for controlled diabetes?

A

Normal: 4-6
Increased: 7-8
Uncontrolled: >8

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21
Q

T/F: Epinephrine is contraindicated in hyperthyroidism patients.

A

True

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22
Q

What is given to an unconscious patient in hypoglycemic shock?

A

50% dextrose IV

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23
Q

What are common symptoms of CHF?

A

Orthopnea (SOB when laying flat) and dyspnea (SOB when exercising)

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24
Q

What is the most common reason for heart problems in kids?

A

Respiratory failure

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25
Q

What is Digitalis and how does in work?

A

Cardiac glycoside. Increase CO (treat CHF). Blocks Na/K/ATPase allowing more Ca influx

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26
Q

What med should be avoided in patient on Ginsing?

A

Aspirin

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27
Q

What are some side effects of nitroglycerin?

A

Orthostatic hypotension and headaches

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28
Q

T/F: Patients should take nitroglycerin during a TIA.

A

False

Angina

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29
Q

_____ patients have trouble inhaling, while _____ patients have trouble exhaling.

A

Asthma; COPD

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30
Q

What can occur after air is blown into the sulcus?

A

Soft tissue emphysema

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31
Q

What does a crowing sound or Stridor sound indicate?

A

Laryngospasm. Blockage of upper resp tract

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32
Q

Which pain relievers are contraindicated in asthmatics?

A

NSAIDs

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33
Q

T/F: Patient starts wheezing, it is important to give O2 as quickly as possible.

A

False

No O2 for asthma patients

34
Q

T/F: Pregnant patients should lay on left side.

A

True

Takes pressure off of Vena cava preventing syncope

35
Q

What is the trendelenburg position?

A

Supine with feet slightly elevated. Used for syncope

36
Q

T/F: Syncope can be treated with 100% O2.

A

True

Except hyperventilation syndrome

37
Q

What is the most common dental complication in chair?

38
Q

What medication should be given to a patient experiencing grand mal seizure?

A

Dilantin (phenytoin)

39
Q

What drug is indicated for status epilepticus (long seizure)?

A

Diazepam (valium)

40
Q

Pregnancy, myasthenia gravis, and acute narrow glaucoma are all contraindications for _______.

41
Q

________ can cause seizures.

A

Hyponatremia

42
Q

_______ has a very low risk of resp depression in regards to benzos.

43
Q

Serious drug interaction between MAO inhibitor and which opioid?

A

Meperidine

44
Q

What are some symptoms of opioid overdose?

A

Hypothermia, Hypotension, miosis, respiratory depression

45
Q

What is the role of an antagonist?

A

High affinity, no intrinsic activity

46
Q

Which opiate is given as a transdermal patch?

47
Q

What is the reversal agent for opioids?

48
Q

What drug is used for recovering opioid addicts?

49
Q

T/F: Mu receptors are found in the medulla.

50
Q

What pain relievers can you give a patient with a codeine allergy?

A

NSAIDs, Naproxen, Meperidine, tramadol,

51
Q

Why do 2nd generation antihistamines not cause drowsiness?

A

They do not cross the BBB.

Most end in -tidine

52
Q

T/F: Benedryl (diphenhydramine) causes xerostomia.

A

True

Anticholinergic effect

53
Q

T/F: H1 blockers are used for gastric ulcers.

A

False
H1: nasal
H2: gastric

54
Q

T/F: Tylenol can cause liver toxicity.

55
Q

T/F: Plavix and aspirin inhibit platelet aggregation.

56
Q

How long after stopping will aspirins anti-coag effects continue?

57
Q

T/F: Saw Palmetto enhances anti-coagulants.

58
Q

T/F: The ceiling analgesia of Ibuprofen is reached at 400mg.

A

True

600mg best for anti-inflammation

59
Q

T/F: Celebrex is a COX2 inhibitor that does not cause coagulation.

60
Q

Which pain reliever is preferred in patients with kidney problems? Liver problems?

A

Acetaminophen is best for kidney failure.

NSAIDs better for liver failure.

61
Q

Best pain med for pregnant patient?

62
Q

T/F: Codeine is indicated in a breastfeeding mother.

63
Q

Drugs are scheduled based on potential for _____.

64
Q

Morphine, cocaine, methadone, hydrocodone, and fentanyl are all schedule ___ drugs.

A

Schedule 2

65
Q

Codeine products with Tylenol or aspirin are schedule __ drugs.

A

Schedule 3

66
Q

Most benzodiazepines are schedule ___ drugs.

A

Schedule 4

67
Q

T/F: Vicodin is a schedule 2 narcotic.

A

False
Schedule 3
Since it has less than 15mg hydrocodone

68
Q

What NSAID lasts for 8 hrs?

69
Q

What is the most difficult impaction to remove?

A

Mandibular distoangular

70
Q

When is distraction osteogenesis preferred over normal osteotomy?

A

When a large advancement is needed

71
Q

T/F: Arthrocentesis is considered a surgical treatment.

72
Q

T/F: Local anesthetics have the direct effect of vasoconstriction.

A

False

Epinephrine causes vasoconstriction. LA itself causes dilation

73
Q

T/F: Lidocaine can be packaged with and without epinephrine.

74
Q

What is the pKa of lidocaine?

75
Q

What is the proper position for LA injection?

A

Supine. Helps prevent syncope

76
Q

What is considered slow delivery of LA?

A

1 carp over 1 minute

77
Q

What is the proper depth of insertion for PSA?

A

16mm. Half length of long needle.

78
Q

What is the adequate amount of anesthesia for an ASA block?

79
Q

T/F: Lower pKA results in faster onset.

80
Q

What are the most important factors for duration of action for LA?

A

Lipid solubility and protein binding. Bupivicaine is longest acting LA

81
Q

T/F: Articaine has a relatively short half-life.

82
Q

What is the first step in taking a biopsy on a soft tissue lesion deep to mucosa?

A

Aspirational biopsy

NBDE Pt 2 (12 decks)

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