Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Paediatrics Royal College > Heme/Onc/Neuro > Flashcards

Heme/Onc/Neuro Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Royal College: Emergency Medicine flashcards
1
Q

What are the components of the motor neuro exam?

A 
Side to side, top to bottom: Tone, Power
Cerebellar:
Nystagmus
Voice
UE: FTN, RAM
LE: Heel-shin, toe-tapping
Trunk; Romberg, tandem gait
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Following a first unprovoked seizure, what is the risk of epilepsy over the next 5 years?

A

40%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Hypsarrhythmia on EEG?

A

Infantile spasms/West syndrome 3-8 M

ACTG or Vigabatrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

3 Hz spike and wave on EEG?

A

Childhood absence epilepsy
3-8 years
Ethosuzimide or VPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Migraine criteria?

A 
A. At least 5 attacks
B. Headache lasting 1-72 hours
C. Two of 
1. Bilateral location
2. Pulsating quality
3. Moderate to severe intensity
4. Aggravated by physical activity
D. One of
1. Nausea +/- vomiting
2. Photo or Phonophobia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the characteristics of acute cerebellar ataxia?

A 
Post or parainfectious
Abrupt onset
Trunk affected more than limbs
Vertigo
Nystagmus
Afebrile
Normal mental status
Imaging normal
CSF WBC 0-25
Full recovery 3-6weeks
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What proportion of childhood cancers are ALL?

A

25%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Overall survival of childhood cancer

A

82%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

CDs to know

A

CD19- B cell

CD3- T cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ALL risk

A

Age
Presenting WBC
Cytogenetics
Response to treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the diagnosis in a child with pancytopenia, short stature, abnormal thumbs and hyperpigmentation?

A

Fanconi anemia

Presents around age5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two possibilities for anemia and low retics with other normal cell lines in a 1 year old?

A
  1. Transient erthroblastopenia of childhood (self-limited)

2. Diamond-Blackfan anemia (lifelong)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How do you distinguish between TEC and Diamond-Blackfan anemia?

A

DB 1st 6 M, TEC after 1 year
DB RBC have fetal characteristics (hbF)
Elevated adenosine deaminase in DB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Kostmann syndrome?

A

Severe congenital neutropenia

G-CSF used to elevate counts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Eczema
  2. Thrombocytopenia
  3. Recurrent resp infections

Diagnosis?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. FTT
  2. Chronic diarrhea
  3. Neutropenia
A

Schwachman-Diamond syndrome
Exocrine pancreatic dysfunction, skeletal ABN, growth retardation, BM insufficiency

Often mistaken for CF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the timing for the physiologic nadir anemia?

A

8-12 weeks

6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Three most common causes of eosinophilia?

A

Atopic dermatitis
Allergic rhinitis
Asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Marked cyanosis, lethargy with normal O2S?

A

Methemoglobinemia
Rx: Methylene blue
Hyperbaric
Exchange transfusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Platelet problems?

A

Epistaxis, hematuria, menorrhagia, GI hemorhhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Coagulation factor deficiencies?

A

Ecchymoses out of proportion to trauma
Delayed bleeding from odl wounds
Extensive hemorrhage, particularly into joint spaces

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Most common bleeding disorders?

A

von Willebrand- AD
Factor VIII (Hemophilia A) and Factor IX (B)
X linked, A>B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What disorder causes elevation of PT when other coagulation testing is normal?

A

Factor VII deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Most common initial presentation of hemophilia?

A

Bleeding after circumcision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is von Willebrand factor?

A

Large multimeric protein that binds to collagen at points of endothelial injury
Serves as a bridge between damaged endothelium and adhering platelets
Prolonged BT, PTT prolonged, decreased VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Treatment of vW disease?

A

DDAVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How likely is a bleeding disorder in a patient with menorhaggia?

A

20%

Most common von Willebrand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Vitamin K in coagulation?

A

Cofacor for II, VII,IX, X Protein C and S

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How do you distinguish liver vs. DIC vs Vita K deficiency

A

Factor V- Ab N in liver, N in Vita K

Factor VIII- decreased in DIC, normal in others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

DIC results?

A

Prolonged PTT
Low fibrinogen
Platelets low
D dimer high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are the AD inherited hypercoagulable states?

A

Factor V Leiden
Protein C deficiency
Antithrombin III deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

At what age does thymic function cease?

A

Peak mass at 10 years then decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are Howell-Jolly bodies?

A

Absent or reduced splenic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the difference between alloimmune and autoimmune?

A

Alloimmune: antibodies responsibles for hemolysis are directed against another RBCs
Autoimmune: antibodies are directed against the hsots red cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Where are platelets produced and how long do they last?

A

Non-nucleated cells
Produced by megakaryocytes
Lifespan 7-10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How does platelet adhesion occur?

A

Initiated by contact with extravascular components (collagen) facilitated by binding vWF
Secretion of mediators cause firm aggregation via fibrinogen binding and increase local vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

When does bleeding risk occur in thrombocytopenia?

A

Platelet count falls below 100: increased risk for bleeding
Usually >50 are adequate
Plts 10-30 may bleed with trauma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the characteristics of ITP?

A

Immune thrombocytopenia purpura

Plt usually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the characteristics of neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopena?

A

Manifested by isolated, transient but potentially severe thrombocytopenia
Due to destruction in plts by maternal alloAB
Occurs when fetal plt contain Ag inherited from Dad that Mom lacks
Fetal plts cross the placenta and trigger maternal Ab production
Most serious complicaiton: ICH
Recurrence in future in 75-90% more severe everytime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What are the characteristics of neonatal autoimmune thrombocytopenia?

A

Maternal Ab react with both maternal and infant platelets. Occurs with maternal autoimmune disorders (SLE, ITP)
Risk of ICH is greater in allo than auto
Nadir is 2-5 days then will usually recover

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is Kasabach Merritt syndrome?

A

Shorterned plt survival caused by sequestration of plts and coagulation activation in large vascular malformations of trunk and extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What are the mechanisms of thrombocytopenia?

A

Decreased production
Increased destruction
Sequestration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the most common causes of microcytic anemia?

A
  1. Alpha thal trait
  2. Beta thal trait
  3. Iron deficiency anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is HbA?

A

2 alpha

2 betas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

HgF

A

2 alpha

2 gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

HgBart

A

4 gamma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

hgH

A

4 beta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How does alpha thal trait present?

A 
2 genes
Mild microcytic, hypochromic anemia
HbBart present in neonatal period
When infant transitions to HgA, less gamma production therefore no more HgBart
No treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does alpha thalassemia present?

A

3 genes
HgH disease
Excess beta globin chains accumulate and form tetramers, making HbH
Unstable Hg precipitates in circulating RBC leading to hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What happens with 4 alpha thal genes?

A

Hydrops fetalis

HgBarts predominate. Severe impairment of O2 delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What is beta thal minor?

A

Microcytosis and hypochromia but only mild anemia

Hb electrophoresis in neonatal period is normal but 1 year HbA2 and HbF are elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is beta thal intermedia?

A

Variety of mutations that cause less signifcant disease than beta thal major

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is beta thal major?

A

2 defective genes and no beta globin is made so no hbA
Born healthy with hgF however symptoms at 6 months when transition from HgF to hbA should occur

Marked hypochromic, microcytic anemia

Chronic transfusions, iron chelation, stem cell transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is a TIBC?

A

Available binding sites for Fe so indirectly measures transferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the starting dose of iron for fe deficiency anemia?

A

3-6mg/kg/day TID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is G6PD?

A

Central enzyme of pentose phosphate shunt of glucose metabolism catalyzes conversion of G6P to 6PG and generated NADPH (acts to neutralize agents that oxidize hB)

Leading to precipitation of hB and damage to membrane resulting in premature RBC destruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the common inheritance of G6PD?

A

Type A: Most common X linked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What are the triggers for G6PD?

A

Meds: sulfa septa, macrobid, antimalarials, vita K, methylene blue, ASA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are the types of hemophilia?

A

A-Factor VIII

B-Factor IX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the first signs of hemophilia?

A

Easy bruising

Mucosal bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the classic signs of hemophilia?

A

Soft tissue bleeding and hemarthroses

Hallmark: Bleeding into joints

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the typical trigger for coagulation?

A

Tissue Factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the severity rating for hemophilia?

A

Mild >5%
Moderate 1-5%
Severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Leading cause of death in hemophilia?

A

intracranial hemorhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the possible treatments for hemophilia?

A

Factor replacement

DDAVP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the most common inherited bleedng disorder?

A

vwd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

How is vwd inherited?

A

AD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What happens in vWD?

A

Decreased quantity or activity of vWF

Protein is essential for primary platelet hemostasis and fibrin clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How do you investigate for VwD?

A

Ristocetin activity: good for evaluating for vWF function
VwF Ag: immunoassay, quantititave
PTT: mildly prolonged in 50% of vWD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the treatment for vWD?

A

Desmopressin: Increases vwF, factor VIII and ROC activity in types 1 and 2
vWF containing factor VIII concentrates: Needed in type 3 disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Which species of malaria is sickle protective for?

A

Falciparum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the pathology of sickle cell disease?

A

Replacement of hydrophilis glutamine acid with hydrophobic valine which alows HbS to polymerize in the deoxygenated state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What encourages sickling?

A

Low O2
Low pH
increased HbS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Most common forms of childhood cancer?

A
  1. ALL
  2. AML
  3. CML
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Disorder with the highest rate of leukemia?

A

Downs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the risk factors for ALL?

A

10Y
WBC >50
Philadelphia chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the genetic syndromes associated with Wilms?

A

WAGR: Wilms, aniridia, GU anomalies, DD

Denys Dash: Nephrotic syndrome, gonadal dysgenesis, renal failure

Hemihypertrophy

Beckwith Weidemann

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is the most common initial presentation of lymphoma?

A

Painless LN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How frequent is mediastinal involvement in lymphoma?

A

2/3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What are the predisposing conditions for lymphoma?

A 
Wiskott Aldrich
SCID
CVID
I linked lymphoproliferative syndrome
Ataxia telangiectasia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Hallmark of Hodkins lymphoma?

A

Reed Sternberg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the lab findings in tumor lysis syndrome?

A

HyperUric
HyperK
HyperPO4
HypoCA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the management of tumor lysis syndrome?

A
  1. Hyperhydration
  2. Reduce uric acid: Allopurinol, Rasbuicase
  3. Urinary alkalination
  4. K: limit K intake, treat as needed
  5. Supplement only if symptomatic
  6. PO4
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is aFP?

A

Alpha fetoprotein
Glycoprotein normally synthesized by fetal yolk sac
Increased in acute liver disease, ataxia telangiectasia, typrosinemia
Tumor marker: epithelial liver tumors, yolk sac, embryonal carcinomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What is BHCG?

A

Glycoprotein produced by tropholblasts of the placenta to stimulate hormones and maintain pregnancy
Increased in renal insufficiency, malignant germ cell tumors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the most common cancer of young men?

A

Testicular cancer

40% Seminomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What are the risk factors for testicular cancer?

A

Cryptocordism, gonadal dysgenesis, Klinefelter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What is the most curable cancer of childhood when detected early?

A

Retinoblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the common clinical findings in retinoblastoma?

A

Leukocoria
Strabismus
Proptosis, periorbital erythema, visual loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is methotrexate?

A

Antimetabolite
Competitive inhibition of folic acid
Cannot make nucleic acids
Inhibits cycle in ALL rapidly diving cells
Leukovorin added to protect healthy cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What are nucleotide analogs?

A

5fluruoracil, 6 MP, Cytobaraine
Almost identical to nucleic acids, therefore gets taken up and stops cell replication
SE: Rash, myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What are microtubule inhibitors?

A

Inhibits microtubular assembly, disrupts cell transport
VIncristine, vinblatin
SE: Neuropathy, skin burn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What are anthrocyclines?

A

Inhibit DNA polymerase and ribosomes
Doxorubicin, duanorubicin, actinomycin
SE: Cardiotoxicity and myelosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What are topisomerase inhibitiors?

A

Help unwind DNA, therefore cannot unwind

Eg Etoposides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What is the role of platinum based chemo therapy?

A

Cisplatin and carboplatin

gets into DNA helix and binds it soit can’t uncoil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What are the main concerns about longterm outcomes in cancer?

A
  1. Neurocognitive
  2. Cardiotoxicity
  3. Endocrinopathies
  4. Secondary malignancies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What are the non-infectious complications of blood transfusions?

A
  1. Bacterial sepsis
  2. TRALI
  3. Febrile nonhemolytic reactions
  4. Allergic reactions
  5. Immediate hemolytic reactions
  6. Delayed hemolytic reactions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What is the basis of febrile nonhemolytic reactions?

A

Cytokine release from donor WBCs due either to prolonged storage or recipient AB against donor WBCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is t cyclic vomiting syndrome?

A

Characterized by repeated episodes of nausea and vomiting lasting for hours to days
Separated by symptoms free periods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is abdo migraine?

A

Recurrent episodes of abdominal pain, typically midline or poorly localized, dull and mod to severe intenity
abdo pain is associated with two additional features:
Anoreixa, nausea, vomiting, pallor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What are the options for abortive therapy in migraines?

A

Triptans
NSAIDS
Anti-emetics
Dyhydroergotramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What are features suspicious of neurodegenerative disorders and not CP?

A

Regression of milestones
Family history of neuro conditions
Ataxia, involuntary movements, oculomotor abN, muscle atrophy, sensory loss
Hypotonia
Rapid deterioration of neuro sgins
Marked worsening during periods of catabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is ADEM?

A

Symptoms of encephalopathy including fever, vomiting, headache and meningismus
Symptoms peak by 4-7 days often with altered LOC
Associated with: Long tract pyramidal signs, acute hemiparesis, cerebellar ataxia, cranial neuropathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the gene that causes muscular dystrophy?

A

Dystropin

First sign: weakness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the clinical findings in duchenne muscular dystrpophy?

A

Weakness
Difficulty with running, jumping and walking up steps
Waddling gait, lumbar lordosis, calf enlargement
Positive gowers sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What is the natural history of DMD vs. BMD?

A

DMD: Confined to wheelchair by age 12, die in late teens/tweenties
BMD: Ambulatory beyond 16, survive beyond 30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is FrederichAtaxia?

A
  • AR degenerative d/o
  • degeneration and sclerosis of spinocerebellar tracts, posterior column, corticospinal tracts
  • progressive ataxia
  • absent DTR
  • kyphoscoliosis
  • nystagmus
  • pes cavus (high arch)
  • abnormal ECG
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Crouzon Syndrome ?

A

premature craniosynostosis and is inherited as AD trait

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Apert syndrome

A

Associated with premature fusion of multiple sutures, including the coronal, sagittal, squamosal, and lambdoid sutures.
Characterized by syndactyly of the 2nd, 3rd, and 4th fingers,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Rett syndrome

A

Normal dev until 6 months, then regression 6m-3yrs, then deceleration of head growth with stereotypical hand mvts, severe DD, gait ataxia and apraxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Drug of choice for absence epilepsy?

A

Ethosuximide
Valproate
Lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What s the most common brain lesions seen on MRI in CP?

A

PVL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What is the POSTER criteria for CP?

A 
Posturing/AbN movements
Oropharyngeal porbelms 
Strabismus
Tone
Evolutional maldevelopment
Reflexes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

What is the most common cause of neonatal asymmetric crying facies?

A

Congenital absence of depressor anguli oris muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is rolandic epilepsy?

A

Schoo age childn

Facial paresthesia or twitching and drooling followed by hemiclonic movements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What is the typical EEG of absence seizures?

A

3Hz spike wave pattern

Activated by hyperventilation

117
Q

What type of seizures presents with brief, bilateral, intermittent jerking like a parent?

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
Fast 3-5 Hz spikes
AD inheritance

118
Q

What is the triad of infantile spasms?

A
  1. Spasms.
  2. HYpsarrhythmia
  3. Developmental regression
119
Q

What is the likelihood of reccurence of febrile seizures?

A

30%

120
Q

What makes a febrile seizure complex?

A

Lower temp at presentation
Focal features
Extended duration
Occuring more than once in a day

121
Q

What is the risk of epilepsy after a febrile seizure?

A

2%

122
Q

What are the three most common neurocutaneous syndromes?

A
  1. Neurofibromatosis: AD
  2. Tuberous sclerosis: AD
  3. Struge webber:Sporadic
123
Q

What is the main triad of TSC?

A

Seizures
Mental retardation
Facial angiofibroma

124
Q

What is incontinentia pigmenti?

A

X linked dominant disorder 100% female
Associated with seizures and MR
Lines of blisters on trunk and extremities then progress to brown hyperkeratotic lesions then whorled, swirling, macular lines

125
Q

Pancytopenia +short stature +abN thumbs + hyperpigmentation

A

Fanconi anemia
Numerous physical abN often present at birth
Anemia at 5 years
Chromomsal breakage analysis

126
Q

DIC labs

A

PT/PTT Prolonged
Fibrinogen LOw
Platelets Low
D-Dimer HIGH

127
Q

Predisposition to thrombosis?

A 
Factor V Leiden- AD, incomplete penetrance
Protein C- AD
Protien S
Antithrombin III deficinecy-AD
ALL AB
128
Q

In Sturge-Weber syndrome, where is the usual location of a Port-Wine stain?

A

Distribution of the first branch of the trigeminal nerve (ophthalmic branch)

129
Q

What are the 3 clinical features of Sturge-Weber syndrome?

-what is the classic finding on CT head of a patient with Sturge Weber who is coming in with focal seizures?

A

***Think vascular anomalies!

  1. Port-Wine stain
  2. Leptomeningeal vascular anomalies - can cause seizures and developmental delay
  3. Glaucoma: secondary to ocular vascular anomalies

-classic CT finding: intracranial calcification in railroad track/tram track appearance (leptomeningeal vascular anomalies of the cerebral cortex)

130
Q

What is the classic presentation of a pediatric stroke?

A

Focal weakness of an extremity, often followed by a focal seizure since most strokes involve the MCA territory

  • Todd’s paresis: focal weakness occurs AFTER the seizure
  • Stroke: focal weakness occurs BEFORE the seizure
131
Q

What is the definition of epilepsy?

A

Occurrence of 2 or more unprovoked seizures

132
Q

By definition, how long can a Todd’s paresis last up until?

A

24 hours maximum

133
Q

What is BECTS?

A

Benign Epilepsy of Childhood with Centrotemporal spikes aka Benign Rolandic Epilepsy

134
Q

What test should be done in all patients with new onset focal seizures?

A

MRI - urgency will depend on presence of other red flags

135
Q

In a patient presenting with their first unprovoked seizure, what are the chances of having another seizure in the future?

A

30%-40%

136
Q

What are characteristic features of BECTS? (4)
Common trigger?
Treatment?

A
  1. Occur at night
  2. Partial seizure with no loss of consciousness - however, in 1/3 of patients seizures will progress to secondary generalized
  3. Unilateral sensorimotor involvement of the face: tongue, lip, gums, cheeks
  4. Inability to speak: gurgling, grunting

Common trigger: sleep deprivation

Treatment: most do not require antiepileptic therapy since seizures are generally short lived and infrequent
-If treating: can use carbamazepine or clobazam

137
Q

What is the natural history of BECTs?

A

Usually resolve 2-4 years from onset. 95% outgrow by age of 15, 100% outgrow by age of 18

138
Q

What is the most common idiopathic epilepsy syndrome in children?

A

BECTS

139
Q

What is the peak onset of BECTS?

More common in boys vs. girls?

A

8-9 years old

More common in boys

140
Q

Differentiate tics from stereotypies?

A

Tics: asymmetric, occur when bored or distracted (not excited), onset at 4-5 years old, worsen with time into different movements, semivoluntary

Stereotypies: usually symmetric, occur when excited or happy, same movement over time

141
Q

Ways to check for tremor on exam?

A

Ask patient to pour water from one cup to another
Ask patient to draw spirals on piece of paper
Ask patient to touch their two index fingers together

142
Q

What does Romberg check for? Pronator drift?

A

Romberg - propioception

Pronator drift - UMN weakness

143
Q

2 features of essential tremor?

2 conditions to rule out?

A

Worsens with age
Occurs with certain postures
Does not occur at rest

Rule out hyperthyroidism and Wilson’s disease (ceruloplasmin)

144
Q

What is holoprosencephaly?

A

Cephalic disorder in which the forebrain fails to develop into two hemispheres.

  • can be mild or severe (leads to fetal demise)
  • midline defects can be seen (cleft palate, midline incisor, anosmia
  • cyclopsia is most severe form
145
Q

What is the definition of status epilepticus?

A

Seizure > 30 minutes
OR
2 or more seizures without return to baseline mental status

146
Q

What are the clinical features of tuberous sclerosis?

-mode of inheritance

A

Think ASHLEAF, hamartomas in multiple organs, autosomal dominant of variable penetrance

A = ashleaf hypopigmented macule seen with Woods Lamp
S = shagrene patch (area of thick leathery skin)
H = heart rhabdomyoma
L = lung hamartoma, retinal hamartoma
E = Epilepsy from brain tubers
A = Angiomyolipoma of the kidney
F = Facial angiofibromas

Can also get periungual fibromas (major criteria), subependymal giant cell astrocytomas
Infantile spasms may be the first recognized clinical manifestation of tuberous sclerosis (occur 6-12 mo, almost never occur > 12 mo) (65-70% of cases)
-indicate poor neurodevelopmental outcome

147
Q

Which conditions are associated with:

  • hypopigmented macules
  • hyperpigmented macules
A

Hypopigmented macules: tuberous sclerosis

Hyperpigmented macules: neurofibromatosis-1

148
Q

What is the triad of clinical features seen in the Miller Fisher variant of Guillain Barre syndrome?

A
  1. Ophthalmoplegia
  2. Ataxia
  3. Arreflexia
149
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for neurofibromatosis type-1?

A

COLOR-NF

Need 2/7 of the following:
Cafe au lait spots - minimum of 6 > 5 mm in prepuberty and > 15 mm in postpuberty
Optic glioma
Lisch nodules - hamartomas of the iris (almost never seen in children

150
Q

What is the pathophysiology of Guillain-Barre syndrome?

-how do you diagnose GBS?

A

Postinfectious polyneuropathy due to antibodies attacing myelin sheath causing demyelination

  • follows a nonspecific viral infection by 10 d
  • always affects motor nerves, sometimes autonomic nerves (arrhythmia, hyper/hypotension, bowel or bladder dysfunction), and only sometimes sensory nerves
  • diagnosis: CSF studies are essential, MRI spinal cord to rule out other spinal cord lesions that may also cause paralysis, nerve conduction studies, EMG, can also send stool samples for Campylobacter or H pylori
151
Q

What do you see in CSF of a patient with guillain barre syndrome?

A

Usually either completely normal or see isolated elevated proteins
-NO pleocytosis (this is diagnostic of GBS since in any other cause like infection, if proteins go up, you would ALSO see a cellular response with pleocytosis)

152
Q

What are 2 MRI findings generally seen on imaging of guillain barre syndrome patients?

A

With gadolinium enhancement:

  1. Thickening of cauda equina
  2. Thickening of intrathecal nerve roots
153
Q

What is the management of a patient with guillain barre syndrome?
-prognosis?

A
  1. Admit to hospital and monitor closely since ascending paralysis can rapidly involve resp muscles within 24 hrs
  2. Use spirometry to monitor lung capacity
  3. IVIG x 5 days
  4. May need to keep patient NPO if bulbar muscles are affected (difficulty speaking or swallowing leading to increased risk of aspiration)
    - prognosis: spontaneous recovery within 2-3 wks with return of full strength usually
154
Q

What 3 clinical features are predictive of poor outcome in guillain barre syndrome?

A
  1. Need for intubation
  2. Cranial nerve involvement
  3. Maximum disability at time of presentation
155
Q

What are the main etiologies of cerebral palsy? (3)

A
  1. Prenatal insult (80%): maternal infection most common leading to abnormal brain development
  2. Intrapartum asphyxia ( 97th percentile)
156
Q

What are the classifications of cerebral palsy? (4)

  • most common?
  • what are the usual findings on MRI for each?
  • what are the usual causes for each?
A
  1. Spastic diplegia (35% = most common)
    - MRI findings: PVL, periventricular cysts or scars in white matter, ventricular enlargement
    - major causes: damage to the white matter due to prematurity, ischemia, infection, endocrine/metabolic (thyroid)
  2. Spastic quadriplegia (20%):
    - MRI findings: PVL, multicystic encephalomalacia
    - causes: ischemia, infection, endocrine/metabolic/genetic/developmental
  3. Hemiplegia (25%):
    - MRI findings: in utero or neonatal stroke
    - causes: thrombophilic disorders, infection, genetic/developmental/periventricular hemorrhagic infarct
  4. Extrapyramidal (athetoid, dyskinetic) (15%):
    - MRI findings: asphyxia = symmetric scars in putamen and thalamus, kernicterus = scars in globus pallidus and hippocampus, mitochondrial = scars in globus pallidus, caudate, putamen, brainstem
    - causes: asphyxia, kernicterus, mitochondrial, genetic/metabolic
157
Q

What is the usual clinical presentation of infants with spastic hemiplegia?

A
  1. Decreased spontaneous movement on the affected side
  2. Hand preference at very early age
  3. Arm involvement > leg involvement
  4. Spasticity in affected side (increased muscle tone especially in antigravity muscles like gastrocnemius which increases with velocity) = usually walks on tiptoes, flexed wrist
158
Q

What is the most common neuropathologic finding in children with spastic diplegia?

A

PVL (seen on MRI in > 70% cases)

159
Q

What is the most severe form of CP and what are the clinical features?

A

Spastic quadriplegia:

  1. marked motor impairment of all extremities
  2. High association with MR, seizures
  3. Swallowing difficulties are common increasing risk of aspiration pneumonia
  4. Speech and visual abnormalities
160
Q

What are the clinical features of athetoid CP?

A
  1. Hypotonic with poor head control and marked head lag –> develop increased tone with rigidity and dystonia over several years
  2. Upper extremities > lower extremities with limb positioning in fixed postures
  3. Tongue thrust/drooling
  4. Upper motor neuron signs are usually not present, seizures are uncommon
  5. Intellect preserved in many patients
161
Q

Which form of CP is most likely to be associated with birth asphyxia?

A

Athetoid CP

162
Q

In patients with dystonia who have a normal MRI, what condition should you rule out?

A

Segawa disease: DOPA-responsive dystonia!

-may LOOK like athetoid CP but when you give DOPA, they then develop normally and the symptoms resolve

163
Q

What tests should be ordered for work-up of a patient with possible CP? (6)

A
  1. MRI head
  2. MRI spine (r/o abnormalities at the base of the skull, spinal cord tumor)
  3. Metabolic work-up
  4. Hearing/vision tests
  5. Genetic testing if other congenital malformations are present
  6. For hemiplegia, need coags/thrombosis work-up to r/o stroke
164
Q

What are main treatment modalities for children with CP?

A
  1. Multi-D team function: PT/OT/dietician/SLP/social workers
  2. Exercises to decrease contractures
  3. Ortho referral: may require tenotomy of achilles tendon, etc.
  4. Motorized wheelchairs, special feeding devices, etc.
  5. Constraint-induced movement therapy: useful in hemiplegic CP where the good side is constrained with casts while the impaired side performs exercises to improve hand and arm functioning
  6. Medications to treat spasticity: benzos, baclofen, dantrolene, levodopa for dystonia, botox injections into specific muscle groups or salivary glands
165
Q

What are the most common causes of recurrent headaches in children and adolescents? (2)

A
  1. Migraine

2. Tension

166
Q

What is spina bifida occulta?

-what is occult spinal dysraphism?

A

Midline defect of the vertebral body WITHOUT protrusion of the spinal cord or meninges

  • usually asymptomatic
  • usually a defect in posterior vertebral body fusion
  • occult spinal dysraphism: cutaneous manifestations (hemangioma, discoloration of the skin, pit, hairy patch) overlying closure defect of the posterior vertebrae (L5-S1 most commonly) and can be associated with developmental abnormalities of the spinal cord (tethered cord for example)
167
Q

What are options for prophylaxis of migraines? (6)

-indication for use?

A

Indications for use:

  1. Need for abortive medication > 3x/wk
  2. Missing lots of school or lots of functional impairment

Good evidence:
1. Flunarizine (calcium channel blocker)

Poor evidence but used anyway:

  1. Tricyclic antidepressants: amitryptiline
  2. Anticonvulsants: topiramate, valproic acid, levetiracetam
  3. Beta blockers: propranolol
  4. Calcium channel blockers: verapamil
  5. SSRIs: fluoxetine
168
Q

What drugs can cause movement disorders? (3)

A
  1. Antipsychotics
  2. Anti emetics (metochlopramide)
  3. Anti histamines (cetirizine)
169
Q

What are signs/symptoms of acute dystonic reaction? (2)

-treatment?

A

Caused by too much dopamine blockade usually by an antipsychotic, thus leading to uninhibited cholinergic activation

  1. Torticollis
  2. Tongue protrusion
    - treatment: anticholinergic! 1st line = benzatropine (Cogentin), 2nd line = benzos, 3rd line = IV benadryl
170
Q

What are clinical features of neuroleptic malignant syndrome? (4)

A
  1. Dystonia
  2. Fever
  3. Muscle rigidity
  4. Autonomic symptoms: tachycardia, hypertension
171
Q

What is the most common cause of chorea in children?

  • what are the clinical hallmarks of SC?
  • what is the treatment?
A

Sydenham’s chorea

  • emotional lability is CHARACTERISTIC of sydenham’s chorea
  • clinical hallmarks:
    1. Chorea
    2. Hypotonia
    3. Emotional lability** (this is super characteristic)
  • treatment: PENICILLIN x 10 d course (to decrease risk of rheumatic fever), steroids, then long term penicillin prophylaxis, ECHO to r/o carditis
172
Q

What is the order of which the primitive reflexes disappear?

A
  • stepping reflex: 2 mo
  • grasps: 2-3 mo
  • atonic neck reflex: 4-6 mo
  • moro: 4-6 mo
  • babinski becomes downgoing: 1 yo
173
Q

What are the clinical features of pseudotumor cerebri?

  • imaging results?
  • LP results?
  • causes? (5)
A
  1. Headache
  2. 3rd or 6th nerve palsy
  3. Papilledema
  4. Diplopia
    - imaging: MRI/CT normal
    - LP normal except for increased opening pressure
    - causes:
  5. Medications
  6. Hyperparathyroidism/hypothyroidism
  7. Cushing’s syndrome
  8. Obesity
  9. Sinus venous thrombosis
174
Q

What medications can cause pseudotumor cerebri? (6)

A
  1. Tetracyclines (minocycline)
  2. Cyclosporine
  3. Steroids
  4. Nitrofurantoin
  5. High vitamin A
  6. Growth hormone supplementation
175
Q

What is the treatment for pseudotumor cerebri?

A
  1. Removing any offending drugs
  2. Weight loss
  3. Acetazolamide or topamax
  4. Therapeutic LPs for severe
176
Q

What are side effects of phenytoin?

A
  1. Hypotension
  2. Fulminant hepatic failure
  3. Lymphadenopathy
  4. Stevens-Johnsons
177
Q

Which two medications can increase serum phenytoin serum levels?

A
  1. Warfarin
  2. Septra (decreases metabolism of phenytoin)

***decreases metabolism of dilantin by decreasing P450 enzyme activity

178
Q

What percentage of children with absence seizures develop GTC seizures?

A

40-50%

179
Q

What factors determine good prognosis for absence seizures (aka resolution)? (5)

A
  1. No GTC seizures
  2. Developmentally normal
  3. Normal neurological exam
  4. No family history of seizures
  5. Normal EEG
180
Q

What 3 medications can be used to treat absence seizures?

A
  1. Ethosuxamide (best choice)
  2. Valproic acid
  3. Lamotrigine
181
Q

What criteria must be fulfilled to make the diagnosis of chronic daily headache (CDH)?

A
  1. > 4 month history
  2. > 15 headaches/month
  3. Headaches last > 4 hours
    - normal neuro exam
182
Q

What are the main distinguishing features between tension-type headaches and migraines?

A

Tension type headaches:

  • usually mild
  • do not disrupt patient’s lifestyle or activities
  • no N/V/photophobia

Migraines:

  • stereotypes attacks of frontal, bitemporal or unilateral intense pounding or throbbing pain that is aggravated by activity and disrupt patient’s lifestyle or activities. Improved with rest.
  • associated with N/V/photophobia/phonophobia
  • can have visual aura preceding the headache and last 15-30 mins
183
Q

What are indications for neuroimaging in a patient presenting with headache? (8)

A
  1. Most severe on awakening or am vomiting
  2. Focal neuro signs/papilledema on exam
  3. Awaken the patient from sleep
  4. Altered LOC
  5. Seizure
  6. Exacerbated by bending or coughing
  7. Acute, severe without previous history of headache
  8. Progressively worsenin
184
Q

What are clinical features of SUNCT?

  • workup?
  • treatment?
A

Short lasting unilateral neuralgiform headache attacks with conjunctival injection and tearing:

  1. Severe neuralgiform pain of very short duration = painful paroxysms felt in or around the eye in V1 distribution of trigeminal nerve
  2. 2-600 times per day
  3. Ipsilateral conjunctival injection and tearing very prominent

Workup: need MRI brain in every case due to secondary causes of SUNCT from pituitary tumor

Treatment:

  1. Oxygen for pain relief
  2. Trials of indomethacin
  3. May need carbamazepine or lamotrigine
185
Q

What therapies can be used for acute treatment of migraine?

A
  1. Biobehavioural:
    - regular sleep schedule
    - regular dietary schedule (avoid missing meals)
    - hydration
    - elimination of precipitating factors
    - biofeedback
    - psychotherapy
  2. Medications:
    - Analgesics (NSAIDs, acetaminophen)
    - triptans (intranasal sumatriptan has good evidence but can only be used in children > 12 yo)
    - antiemetics (metoclopramide, promethazine, ondansetron)
186
Q

What is the definition of partial vs. primary generalized seizure?
-in a patient who is found during a generalized seizure, what one feature can help you determine whether the seizure was primary generalized vs. focal with secondary generalization?

A

Partial: sz arises from one region of the cortex
-remember that partial seizures can become secondary generalized once the electrical conduction spreads from one hemisphere to the other
Generalized: sz arises from both hemispheres simultaneously
-primary generalized vs. secondary generalized: if the child is verbal, they MAY be able to tell you they had an aura prior. Presence of an aura indicates a focal origin

187
Q

What are uncinate seizures?

-gelastic seizures?

A

Uncinate seizures: arise from medial temporal lobe with an olfactory hallucination of an extremely unpleasant odor (burning rubber)
-gelastic seizures: originate from hypothalamic tumor, spells of uncontrolled laughter

188
Q

What is the characteristic EEG finding of absence seizures?

-what maneuvers can provoke absence seizures? (2)

A

3-Hz spike and wave activity

-stimulated by hyperventilation or strobe light stimulation

189
Q

How can you differentiate between absence seizures (generalized) versus complex partial temporal seizures?

A

Both cause cessation of activity, staring spells, and automatisms

  • Absence seizures: no postictal confusion, simple automatisms, provoked by hyperventilation, last a few seconds
  • Complex partial temporal seizures: + postictal confusion, more complex automatisms, last several minutes

**Impt to differentiate between these since anticonvulsant treatment is different!

190
Q

What is the cause of benign neonatal convulsions?

A

Autosomal dominant genetic disorder localized to chromosome 20

  • get generalized clonic seizures towards the end of the 1st week of life
  • favorable prognosis
191
Q

What are the clinical features of juvenile myoclonic epilepsy (classic triad)? Classic hallmark feature?
-treatment?

A

Autosomal dominant disorder

  • occurs in adolescence
  • classic triad:
    1. Myoclonic jerks
    2. GTC sz
    3. Absence sz
  • classic hallmark feature: morning myoclonus within 90 minutes of awakening (could be described as clumsy with difficulty combing hair or dropping fork)
  • treatment: valproic acid
192
Q

What are potential causes of infantile spasms?

  • which are more likely to respond to therapy?
  • what is the most recognized cause?
  • what treatment is used to treat infantile spasms? (4)
A
  1. Idiopathic = 40% of cases = MORE LIKELY TO RESPOND TO THERAPY and 40% have good intellectual outcome
  2. Specific etiology = 60% of cases = LESS LIKELY TO RESPOND TO THERAPY and have poor intellectual prognosis
    - metabolic disorders
    - developmental malformations (polymicrogyria, lissencephaly, schizencephaly, Down syndrome)
    - Neurocutaneous syndromes (Tuberous sclerosis is the most common recognized cause), sturge weber
    - Congenital infections
    - encephalopathies

Treatment:

  1. ACTH
  2. Vigabatrin
  3. Benzos
  4. Valproic acid
193
Q

What is Lennox-Gastaut syndrome?

A

Epileptic syndrome = multiple seizure types

  • most children have underlying brain injury or malformations
  • usually respond poorly to treatment
194
Q

What is Landau-Kleffner syndrome?

  • EEG findings?
  • treatment?
A

Acquired epileptic aphasia

  • abrupt loss of previously acquired language in young children due to acquired cortical auditory deficit (will become oblivious to everyday sounds)
  • some patients develop several types of seizures as well
  • EEG is highly abnormal in language areas sleep (perisylvian region) especially during NREM
  • treatment: valproic acid is treatment of choice. Can also try keppra or steroids if prolonged course, speech therapy
195
Q

What is Rasmussen encephalitis?

-treatment?

A

Chronic, progressive focal inflammation of the brain

  • unknown cause
  • begins with focal motor seizures, then progresses to hemiplegia and cognitive deterioration
  • treatment: hemispherectomy
196
Q

What factors increase the risk of development of epilepsy after a febrile seizure? (4)

A
  1. Complex febrile seizure
  2. Developmental delay
  3. Family history of seizures
  4. Abnormal neuro exam
    - 2% chance if one risk factor present
    - 10% chance if two risk factors present
197
Q

What is the recurrence risk for 2nd seizure if a patient presents with a 1st seizure of GTC?
-recurrence risk for 2nd seizure if a patient with preexisting neurologic abnormality has a partial seizure and an abnormal EEG?

A
  • 1st seizure being GTC: 50% = can wait to start antiepileptics
  • 1st seizure being partial in preexisting neurologic abnormality with abnormal EEG: 75% = start antiepileptics
198
Q

Which anti epileptics should be used for treatment of generalized motor seizures? (4)

A
  1. Valproic acid
  2. Lamotrigine
  3. Topiramate
  4. Levetiracetam
199
Q

What anti epileptics should be used for treatment of partial seizures? (5)

A
  1. Carbamazepine
  2. Oxcarbazepine
  3. Phenytoin
  4. Phenobarb
  5. Gabapentin
200
Q

Which epilepsy conditions generally require anti convulsant therapy for life?

A
  1. Lennox Gastaut
  2. Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy
  3. Atypical absence seizures
201
Q

What is transverse myelitis?

  • clinical features?
  • workup?
  • treatment?
A

Acute postinfectious demyelination of the spinal cord (usually viral)

  • can also occur post immunization
  • will have a clearly defined sensory level of deficits (sensorimotor and autonomic)
  • clinical features: neck or back pain, then numbness and paralysis in the affected musculature with urinary retention/bowel incontinence
  • workup: need to do CSF (will see pleocytosis and elevated IgG) and MRI (gadolinium-enhancing cord lesion)
  • treatment: high dose steroids
202
Q

What is a disease of the anterior horn cell?

-clinical features of SMA 1, SMA 2, SMA 3?

A

Spinal muscular atrophy

  • progressive degeneration of anterior horn cells and denervation of muscle
  • SMA-1 (Werdnig-Hoffman disease) = severe infantile form (severe hypotonia, affected at birth and progress to flaccid quadriplegia with bulbar palsy, respiratory failure and death within 1st year of life
  • SMA-2: late infantile form
  • SMA-3 (Kugelberg-Welander disease): most mild form, begins in late childhood with proximal weakness and progresses slowly over decades
  • **Children with SMA have muscle fasciculations due to denervation (see best in tongue)
  • ***Children with SMA are thought to have higher than normal intellect for their age because the effort that they cannot put into physical activities is redirected to intellectual and language development :) Also, they are exposed to adult speech more often due to the social repercussions of the disease :(
203
Q

What do fasciculations represent?

-UMN or LMN?

A

Fasciculations: specific clinical sign of muscle denervation!
-sign of LMN lesion

204
Q

What does EMG of SMA patient show?

  • what is the definitive diagnostic test for SMA?
  • what is the treatment for SMA? (5 main concepts)
A

Fasciculations and fibrillations

  • definitive diagnostic test: specific DNA probe for SMA in the SMN gene
  • treatment: nusinersen/spinraza
    1. Minimize contractures
    2. Prevent scoliosis
    3. Prevent aspiration
    4. Maximize social/language/intellectual skills
    5. Manage respiratory infections with chest physio, pulmonary toileting
205
Q

What diagnostic tests can be ordered for a possible LMN lesion (anterior horn cell, peripheral nerve, NMJ, muscle)? (3)

A
  1. CK
  2. EMG
  3. Muscle biopsy
206
Q

What are the 3 peripheral nerve diseases in childhood?

A
  1. Guillain-Barre syndrome
  2. Hereditary motor sensory neuropathy (Charcot-Marie Tooth disease)
  3. Tick paralysis
207
Q

What are the main clinical features of Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease (hereditary motor sensory neuropathy)? (3

A
  1. Pes cavus deformity of the feet (high arched)
  2. Bilateral weakness of dorsiflexion
  3. Eventually develop weakness and atrophy of the entire lower legs
208
Q

What are often the earliest signs of myasthenia gravis? (2)

A

Ptosis and extraocular muscle weakness

  • older children may complain of diplopia
  • young children may hold their eyes open with their fingers
209
Q

What is the 2 diagnostic tests for myasthenia gravis?

A
  1. IV edrophonium chloride (tensilon)
    - acetylcholinesterase inhibitor = blocks the enzyme so that more acetylcholine can bind to the few receptors that aren’t blocked by the auto-antibodies
    - see a transient improvement in strength and decrease in fatigability
  2. EMG: decremental response is seen to repetitive nerve stimulation = fatigable weakness

***muscle biopsy is not needed in most cases

210
Q

A baby is born to a mother with myasthenia gravis. She exhibits generalized hypotonia and inability to suck. How do you confirm the diagnosis? What is your management? When can you expect resolution?

A

Infants born to moms with MG are affected because mom’s auto-antibodies cross the placenta.

  • Confirmation of diagnosis: administer IM neostigmine and watch for improvement
  • Treatment: oral pyridostigmine or neostigmine 30 minutes before feeding until resoltuion occurs
  • Resolution: approximately 3 wks (up to 10 wks)
211
Q

What is the treatment of myasthenia gravis?

A
  1. Cholinesterage inhibitors: neostigmine IM q4-6 hr and before meals to improve swallowing
  2. Steroids
  3. Thymectomy (especially in patients with high titers of anti-Ach receptor antibodies)
  4. IVIG
  5. Plasmapheresis
212
Q

What clinical features on exam can be seen in Duchenne muscular dystrophy?

A
  1. Gower sign
  2. Calf hypertrophy
  3. Proximal leg weakness
  4. Hyperlordosis
  5. Waddling gait
213
Q

What investigations should be ordered to diagnose Duchenne muscular dystrophy? Which is gold standard for diagnosis?

A
  1. Elevated serum CK
  2. DNA probe - GOLD STANDARD - diagnostic
    - look for duplication or deletion of exons within DMD gene (will get an answer with this 70% of the time)
    - if duplication/deletion testing is negative, then should sequence the DMD gene
  • *Muscle biopsy with muscle fiber degeneration and increased connective tissue
  • only do this if the genetic tests are negative!!!!
214
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of myotonic muscular dystrophy (ie. Steinert disease)?

A

Autosomal dominant CTG triplet repeat on chromosome 19

215
Q

A teenager presents to you with progressive distal extremity weakness and myotonia (difficulty with muscle relaxation). He is also found to have cardiac arrhythmia, cataracts, male pattern baldness and hollowing of muscles around temples, jaw and neck. His face is expressionless with a tented mouth. What is the diagnosis?

A

Myotonic dystrophy

216
Q

What are the clinical features of malignant hyperthermia? (6)

  • drugs that are ABSOLUTELY contraindicated in malignant hyperthermia? (2)
  • treatment? (3)
A
  1. Rapid increase in body temp (fever)
  2. Rapid increase in CO2 (due to increased metabolic rate)
  3. Muscle rigidity
  4. Cyanosis/hypotension
  5. Arrhythmias
  6. Seizures

Drugs that are ABSOLUTELY contraindicated since they can trigger malignant hyperthermia reaction:

  1. Succinylcholine
  2. Inhalational anesthetics

Treatment:

  1. IV dantrolene (muscle relaxant)
  2. Sodium bicarbonate
  3. Cooling
217
Q

What are the characteristic features of seizures seen in Panayiotopoulos syndrome?

  • timing?
  • duration of seizure?
A

Predominant autonomic symptoms with ictal emesis

  • always include in ddx for conditions like syncope, migraine, cyclic vomiting, motion sickness, etc.
  • timing: usually occur at night
  • duration: usually: > 5 minutes
218
Q

What are the characteristic features of seizures seen in idiopathic childhood occipital epilepsy (Gastaut type)?

  • timing?
  • duration?
A

Brief, frequent occipital seizures with visual blindness and hallucinations

  • timing: usually occur during the day
  • brief
219
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for Tourette syndrome? (3)

-male:female ratio?

A
  1. Must include both motor AND vocal tics
  2. Occurs over the period of 1 year with no more than 3 consecutive tic-free months
  3. Onset prior to age 18 yo

***Male:female ratio for TS: 4:1

220
Q

What are 2 common comorbid conditions seen with Tourette Syndrome?

A
  1. ADHD (50% of children with TS)

2. OCD (33% of children with TS)

221
Q

How can you distinguish between tics versus true involuntary movement disorders (ie. chorea or myoclonus)? (2)

A

With tics:

  1. Presence of premonitory sensory urge that is then relieved by the tic
  2. Ability to suppress tics voluntarily
222
Q

What are the treatment options for tics? (2)

A
  1. Behavioural approach: comprehensive behavioural intervention for tics (CBIT)
  2. Medication: based on tic severity, functional interference, self-injurious aspects, etc.
    - no meds eliminate tics completely, just reduce to a state of tolerable function
    - first line: clonidine (alpha 2 adrenergic agonist)
    - second line: atypical neuroleptics (risperidone)
223
Q

What are the 4 types of skull fractures and management of each?

A
  1. Linear = no treatment
  2. Diastatic (spreads apart sutures) = no treatment
  3. Compound (bone fragments breaking the skin surface) = EMERGENT SURGICAL DEBRIDEMENT but no prophylactic antibiotic therapy
  4. Depressed (edge displaced inferiorly) = if > 0.5-1 cm, need surgical elevation of bone fragments and repair of associated dural tears
  • **Any time you see a skull fracture, be concerned that the force was high enough to produce a possible underlying hematoma
  • don’t forget tetatnus prophylaxis
224
Q

An infant presents to you a few weeks after a fall from the changing table with a soft, pulsatile palpable scalp mass. What is your diagnosis?

A

Leptomeningeal cyst: rare complication of linear skill fracture with separation of the edges of the fracture and laceration of the dura. The arachnoid membranes can then be trapped between the edges of the fracture and results in herniation of fibrotic tissue/meninges/brain to form a soft tissue mass.
-requires surgical excision of abnormal tissue and dural repair

225
Q

What is a CSF leak?

A

When a skull fracture tears adjacent dura, creatining a communication between the subarachnoid space and the nose/sinuses/ear
-can see presence of air within the subdural/subarachnoid/ventricular space on CT which indicates a dural tear

226
Q

What are 2 clinical signs suggesting uncal herniation?

A
  1. Unilateral 3rd nerve palsy
  2. Contralateral hemiparesis

***Temporal lobe is shifting across the tentorial edge and pushing on the brainstem

227
Q

What is the most common cause of primary subarachnoid hemorrhage?

A

Berry aneurysm of one of the major cerebral arteries in circle of willis

228
Q

What are the guidelines for determination of brain death?

  • 8 criteria
  • 2 possible ancillary tests
  • rules for newborns 1 yo?
A

Requires a cause of coma sufficient to account for the loss of brain function should be established

  • in the setting of hypoxic-encephalopathic injury (ie. from cardiac arrest), exam must be delayed more than 24 hours post injury
  • in trauma patient with mechanical head injury, exam doesn’t have to be delayed!!
  1. 2 physicians must be present
  2. The physicians must be qualified to do the assessment
  3. Body temperature > 34 (>36 for newborns)
  4. No confounding drug intoxication
  5. No spontaneous movements, communication or interaction with the environment
  6. No supraspinal response to externally applied stimuli
  7. Absence of brainstem reflexes:
    i. pupillary light
    ii. oculocephalic (dolls eye maneuver)
    iii. oculovestibular (cold caloric stim)
    iv. corneal
    v. oropharyngeal (gag)
    vi. tracheal (cough) = tug on ETT
  8. Apnea test: 10 min period of preoxygenation with 100% O2, take an art gas. Then turn off ventilator and watch for spontaneous breathing, repeat art gas and see if PaCO2 rises to > 60.
    - CO2 has to increase by 20 mm Hg AND rise above 60 mm Hg AND pH has to be 1 yo: need two physicians but can perform the exam concurrently
229
Q

What are the 3 main categories of etiologies of hydrocephalus?

A
  1. Obstruction of CSF pathways:
    - Foramen of Monro obstruction: craniopharyngioma, germinoma, pituitary tumor, intraventricular tumor (ependymoma), tuberous sclerosis
    - Aqueduct of sylvius (cerebral aqueduct) obstruction: midbrain tumor, postinfectious
    - impaired flow from 4th ventricle to the foramen of magendie and two lateral foramina of luschka
    - dandy walker malformation
    - arnold chiari malformation
  2. Overproduction of CSF: choroid plexus papilloma
  3. Defective resorption of CSF (ie. communicating hydrocephalus): hypoplasia or destruction of arachnoid villi (absorbs CSF)
230
Q

What is Parinaud syndrome?

A

Sunsetting eyes = dilation of the cerebral aqueduct compresses the surrounding periaqueductal vertical gaze centre = paresis of upward gaze
-seen with CNS tumors or hydrocephalus

231
Q

What are 2 most common organisms that infect VP shunts?

A
  1. Staph epidermidis

2. Corynebacterium

232
Q

What is the difference between neuronal degenerative disorders and leukodystrophy?

A
  • Neuronal degenerative disorder: diseases affecting grey matter
  • Leukodystrophies: diseases affecting white matter
233
Q

Which enzymatic disorders are most common causes of neurodegenerative dseases? (3)

A
  1. Lysosomes
  2. Mitochondria
  3. Peroxisomes
    - any patient presenting with a degenerative neurologic condition should have leukocytes or skin fibroblasts harvested for measurement of lysosomal, peroxisomal, mitochondrial enzymes
234
Q

How do you classify gray matter neuronal degeneration conditions?
-what are the conditions in each class? (4 each)

A

Separate into disorders WITH or WITHOUT hepatosplenomegaly

  • With HSM:
    1. Mucopolysaccharidoses (Hurler syndrome, Hunter syndrome, Sanfilippo syndrome)
    2. Mucolipidosis
    3. Niemann-Pick disease
    4. Gaucher disease
  • Without HSM:
    1. Tay-Sachs
    2. Rett syndrome
    3. Neuronal ceroid lipofuscinosis
    4. Mitochondrial diseases: ie. MELAS
235
Q

What are clinical features of mucopolysaccharidoses? (6)

  • cause?
  • examples?
A

Caused by defective lysosomal enzymes resulting in the accumulation of mucopolysaccharides

  1. Dwarfism
  2. HSM
  3. Kyphoscoliosis
  4. Coarse facies
  5. Cardiac abnormalities
  6. Corneal clouding
    - Examples of mucopolysaccharidoses:
  7. Hurler syndrome (most severe)
  8. Hunter Syndrome
  9. Sanfilippo syndrome
236
Q

What are the clinical features of Niemann-Pick disease?

-cause?

A

Cause: deficiency of sphingomyelinase thus sphingomyelin accumulates in cells of the reticuloendothelial system (liver, spleen, lungs, bone marrow, brain)

  1. Intellectual retardation/regression
  2. Myoclonic seizures
  3. HSM
  4. Hypotonia
  5. Retinal cherry red spots
237
Q

What are clinical features of Tay-Sachs disease?

-cause?

A

Cause: gangliosidosis caused by deficiency of hexosaminidase A = accumulation of GM2 ganglioside in cerebral gray matter and cerebellum

  • Normal until 6 months of age, then develop irritability, listlessness, hyperacusis, intellectual retardation and retinal cherry-red spot
  • overall: blindness, convulsions, spasticity, opisthotono
238
Q

What are the clinical features of MELAS?

A

Mitochondrial myopathy
Encephalopathy
Lactic Acidosis
Stroke like episodes

239
Q

What are the prominent common clinical features of leukodystrophies? (6)

A
  1. Spasticity
  2. Ataxia
  3. Optic atrophy
  4. Peripheral neuopathy
  5. Seizures
  6. Dementia
240
Q

What are examples of leukodystrophies? (3)

A
  1. Metachromatic leukodystrophy: AR lipidosis caused by deficiency of arylsulfatase
    - demyelination of CNS/peripheral nervous system
  2. Krabbe disease: AR lipiosis caused by deficiency of galactocerebrosidase
  3. Adrenoleukodystrophy: X-linked with progressive central demyelination and adrenal cortical insufficiency
    - inability of peroxisome to degrade unbranced very long chain fatty acids
    - most common presentation = boys in early school years who develop subtle behaviour changes and intellectual deterioration, followed by cortical visual and auditory deficits and stiff gait
241
Q

What are the clinical features of Friedreich ataxia? (6)

A

Manifests in early teenage years:

  1. Ataxia/dysmetria
  2. Dysarthria
  3. Pes cavus/hammer toes
  4. Diminished proprioception/vibration
  5. Nystagmus
  6. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

***think cerebellar/brainstem dysfunction, feet and heart

242
Q

What are clinical features of ataxia-telangiectasia?

-findings on lab investigations?

A

AR genetic disorder of DNA repair

  1. Neurologic symptoms: ataxia, dystonia, chorea, swallowing difficulties, oculomotor apraxia (makes head movements to compensate for inability to generate saccadic eye movements), intellect is preserved, wheelchair bound by childhood
  2. Telangiectasias: conjunctival, skin
  3. Premature grey hair
  4. Recurrent sinopulmonary infections

***Think: neuro, skin, immunological deficiency, gonadal dysgenesis

Lab findings: high AFP, low IgA

243
Q

What are the clinical features of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome?

-treatment?

A

X-linked; deficiency of an enzyme that leads to excess uric acid

  1. Psychomotor retardation
  2. Spasticity
  3. Severe self-mutilation
  4. Gouty arthritis with renal calculi

***treatment: allopurinol to treat hyperuricemia and renal complications but there is no effective treatment for the neurologic disease

244
Q

What are clinical features of Wilson disease?

  • lab finding?
  • treatment?
A

AR inborn error of copper metabolism

  1. Neuro symptoms from copper deposition in the CNS: in teenage years, see dysarthria, dysphasia, drooling, fixed smile, tremor, emotional lability
  2. Abnormal copper deposition in the liver = cirrhosis
  3. Kayser-Fleischer rings from copper deposition in the cornea
    - lab finding: decreased serum ceruloplasmin
    - treatment: copper-chelating agent = oral penicillamine
245
Q

What 2 CNS tumors occur commonly in neurofibromatosis type 1?

A
  1. Optic nerve glioma

2. Astrocytomas

246
Q

What tumors are seen in neurofibromatosis type 2? (3)

A
  1. Schwannonmas: acoustic, cranial or spinal nerves
  2. Meningiomas
  3. Gliomas
247
Q

What is schizencephaly?

A

Symmetrical abnormal bilateral clefts within the cerebral hemispheres that extend from the cortical surface to the ventricular cavity

248
Q

What is lissencephaly?

A

Smooth brain with absence of sulcation

249
Q

What is the classic triad of Dandy-Walker malformation?

A
  1. Complete or partial agenesis of the cerebellar vermis
  2. Cystic dilation of the 4th ventricle
  3. Enlarged psoterior fossa
250
Q

Which neurodegenerative conditions have retinal cherry-red spots? (4)
-what causes the retinal cherry spots?

A

Retinal cherry spots: abnormal accumulation of lipids in ganglion cells surrounding the center of a normal retinal macula

  1. Niemann-Pick disease (has HSM)
  2. Tay-Sachs (GM2 gangliosidosis) (does NOT have HSM)
  3. Mucolipidoses
  4. Sandhoff disease (gangliosidosis type 2)
251
Q

What is the enzyme deficiency seen in Tay-Sachs disease?

A

Deficiency of hexosaminidase A

252
Q

How do you confirm a diagnosis for malignant hyperthermia?

A

Caffeine contracture test: muscle biopsy tissue specimen is exposed to caffeine = muscle spasm is diagnostic for malignant hyperthermia

253
Q

What is ADEM?

A

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis

-initial inflammatory, demyelinating event with multifocal neurological deficits accompanied by encephalopathy

254
Q

What are possible triggers for ADEM?

A
  1. Preceding infection: viruses, mycoplasma
  2. Postvaccination

***Essentially have CNS autoantigen production and antibody formation

255
Q

What are the clinical features of ADEM? (6)

  • findings on MRI
  • usual age of presentation
A
  1. Lethargy
  2. Fever
  3. Headache
  4. Vomiting
  5. Seizures
  6. HALLMARK = ENCEPHALOPATHY (confusion, irritability, coma)
    - findings on MRI: large, multifocal enhancement in white and grey matter of cerebrum, cerebellum and brainstem
    - usual age of presentation
256
Q

What is the treatment for ADEM?

A

IV high dose steroids to decrease inflammation, consider IVIG or plasmapheresis

257
Q

Which metabolic condition is associated with poor growth, developmental delay, and risk of STROKES/THROMBOEMBOLIC EVENTS?

A

Homocystinuria

258
Q

A baby presents to yuo with a prominent occiput, broad forehead, absent anterior fontanelle and a long and narrow head. Otherwise normal. What is your diagnosis?

A

Primary craniosynostosis of the sagittal suture leading to scaphocephaly = long and narrow skull = boat shaped head!

259
Q

A patient presents to the ED with sudden onset of headache with fall to the floor. On exam, he has a left central facial weakness, left hemiparesis with conjugate ocular deviation to the right. What is the diagnosis?

A

Stroke! Abrupt onset of hemisyndrome with eyes looking AWAY from the paralyzed side indicates acute stroke.

260
Q

What is the difference between the weakness seen in myotonic dystrophy versus other muscular dystrophies?

A

Myotonic dystrophy weakness and wasting is DISTAL first (will progress to proximal) whereas other myopathiesare proximal muscle weakness
-in myotonic dystrophy, will see weakness in hand movement

261
Q

What associated features on exam can be seen in myotonic dystrophy? (4)

A
  1. Ptosis
  2. Baldness
  3. Cataracts
  4. Hypogonadism
262
Q

A patient presents with signs of meningitis, pleiocytosis in CSF with high protein and low glucose and a CT scan with contrast enhancement of the basal cisterns. What is your diagnosis?

A

TB meningitis

  • Exudate in the basal cisterns is classic
  • can also see tuberculomas, ringed lucencies, infarction
263
Q

What is the classic finding on pathology of an astrocytoma?

A

Rosenthal fibers

264
Q

What is the enzyme deficiency seen in GM 1 Gangliosidoses?

-clnical features?

A

Complete lack of acid Beta-galactosidase activity
-clinical features: CNS degeneration, HSM, macroglossia, coarse facial features, cherry-red spots, gingival hyperplasia, edema of extremities

265
Q

In which age group are night terrors most commonly seen?

A

Age 5-7 yo

266
Q

What are the clinical features of PHACE syndrome?

A
  1. Posterior fossa malformations
  2. Hemangiomas
  3. Arterial anomalies
  4. Coarctation of the aorta
  5. Eye abnormalities
    * **Consider in any child with a unilateral facial lesion and blidnness
267
Q

What is Arnold-Chiari malformation?

A

Downward displacement of cerebellar tonsils through the foramen magnum

  • may cause hydrocephalus
  • 4 types total
268
Q

What is an AVM?

  • clinical features of unruptured AVM?
  • risk of rupture?
  • clinical features of ruptured AVM?
A

AVM = abnormal connection between arteries and veins (congenital)

  • clinical features of unruptured AVM:
    1. Intracranial bruit heard through open fontanelle
    2. High output cardiac failure due to abnormal shunting between arterial and venous systems
    3. Local brain ischemia = focal neurological deficits, seizures, headaches

Risk of rupture: 2% per year

Clinical features of ruptured AVM: sudden, severe headache and loss of consciousness, with rising ICP due to intracranial hemorrhage with subsequent coma and death if no intervention

269
Q

What is the most common ortho problem seen in NF-1?

A

Scoliosis

270
Q

What is the inheritance pattern of neurofibromatosis-1?

A

Autosomal dominant

271
Q

What is the underlying cause of trigoncephaly?

  • clinical features?
  • treatment?
A

Cranosynostosis of metopic suture

  • clinical features: pointed forehead, hypotelorism
  • treatment: craniostomy with removal of metopic suture
272
Q

During what phase of sleep does neonatal sleep myoclonus occur in?
-prognosis?

A

Non-REM sleep = bilateral rhythmic jerks involving upper and lower limbs

  • can be reproduced by slow rocking of the infant in a head to toe direction
  • no autonomic changes seen, occur ONLY in sleep, stop with awakening
  • this helps differentiate these from seizures
  • resolve spont at 2-3 mo age
273
Q

At what time of the day does benign myoclonus of infancy usually occur?

  • age of onset?
  • prognosis?
  • how to differentiate between infantile spasms?
A

Benign nonepileptic infantile spasms = brief tonic contractions occur in clusters

  • USUALLY at mealtimes
  • first occur at 3-8 mo of age, then resolve spont at 2-3 yo
  • really cannot differentiate on history or physical exam between these and infantile spasms (REMEMBER YOUR LITTLE BABY FROM ED) and thus, need to refer to neuro asap and get EEG/MRI
  • if EEG and MRI are normal and baby is developmentally normal, then this is benign myoclonus of infancy.
274
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of CN 7 palsy?

-what is the diagnosis in a baby with just mouth drooping and other facial muscles are functioning well?

A
  1. Idiopathic (Bell’s Palsy)
  2. Congenital (Mobius syndrome)
  3. Traumatic - forceps delivery, LGA
  4. Infectious - varicella, HSV, lyme disease
  5. Other - cholestoetoma, tumors
    - diagnosis: congenital absence of the depressor angularis oris
    - sparing of the nasolabial fold
275
Q

What are the two types of GM2 gangliosidoses?

A
  1. Tay Sachs: hexosaminidase A deficiency

2. Sandhoff disease

276
Q

What is the most common reason for surgical intervention in a child born with a myelomeningocele?

A

Hydrocephalus = needs surgical repair within a day or so after birth, often with a VP shunt too

277
Q

What is the most common cause of spastic diplegia?

A

PVL

278
Q

What is the first line treatment for acute migraine?

-what about tension headache?

A

Migraine = NSAIDs

Tension headache = acetaminophen

279
Q

How can you differentiate between positional plagiocephaly vs. craniosynostosis?

A

In positional plagiocephaly, should have ipsilateral anterior displacement of the ear!!!

280
Q

How do you differentiate post infectious cerebellitis from meningoencephalitis? (3)
-what are 3 potential etiologic agents causing post infectious cerebellitis?

A
  1. No fever
  2. No altered LOC
  3. No seizures

3 potential etiologic agents:

  1. VZV
  2. Coxsackie
  3. Echovirus
281
Q

What is the concern with use of valproic acid or carbamazapine during pregnancy?

A

Neural tube defects

282
Q

What is the diagnostic criteria for migraine?

A 
1. . At least 5 attacks
PLUS
2. Headache lasts 1-72 hrs
PLUS
3. Two of:
a. Bilateral location
b. pulsating quality
c. moderate to severe intensity
d. aggravated by physical activity
PLUS
4. One of:
a. nausea or vomiting
b. photophobia or phonophobia
283
Q

What are the criteria for a positive apnea test in diagnosis fo brain death?
-when would ancillary testing be required?

A
  1. CO2 has to increase by 20 mm Hg
  2. CO2 has to rise ABOVE 60 mm Hg
  3. pH has to be
284
Q

Red flags for neurological disorder in newborn on prenatal history? (5)

A
  1. Premature birth
  2. Decreased fetal movement
  3. Polyhydramnios due to impaired swallowing (weakness)
  4. Trouble establishing feeding?
  5. Resuscitation required after birth?
285
Q

How can reflexes help you differentiate between muscle vs. nerve problem?

A

Nerve problem = reflexes will be completely absent

-muscle problem = reflexes will be present or reduced

286
Q

What investigation should be ordered after 1 unprovoked seizure?
-what about 2nd unprovoked seizure?

A

After 1 unprovoked seizure: EEG!!!!!

After 2 unprovoked seizures: MRI Head

287
Q

What is one treatment you can start for breath holding spell?

A

Iron supplements

288
Q

Which antiepileptic causes renal calculi?

  • which causes significant behavioural issues?
  • which causes gingival hyperplasia and coarsening of facies?
  • which causes stevens johnsons syndrome?
A

Bilateral renal calculi = topiramate

Significant behavioural issues = keppra

Gingival hyperplasia and coarsening of facies = phenytoin

Stevens johnsons syndrome = lamotrigine

289
Q

What are the health surveillance guidelines for neurofibromatosis type 1?

A

Yearly!

  1. Check BP
  2. Ophtho exams
  3. MRI any suspected plexiform neurofibromas
  4. Monitor growth: short stature, delayed puberty (have their own growth charts)
  5. Developmental assessment/school support
  6. Scoliosis exam
  7. Vision screening/hearing

Paediatrics Royal College (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions