Heme/Onc Flashcards

1
Q

Triad of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

Hemolysis, cytopenias, and a hypercoagulable state (e.g. PVT)

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2
Q

CYP450 inducers that lead to decreased warfarin levels

A
  1. OCPs
  2. AEDs: carbamezepine, phenytoin, phenobarbital
  3. Rifamping
  4. Ginseng and St. John’s Wort
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3
Q

CYP450 inhibitors that lead to increased warfarin levels

A
  1. Acetaminophen and NSAIDs
  2. Some antibiotics and antifungals (e.g. metronidazole)
  3. SSRIs
  4. Amiodarone
  5. Cimetidine and omeprazole
  6. Thyroid hormone
  7. Gingko, cranberry juice, vitamin E
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4
Q

Reversal of warfarin

A

IV vitamin K plus prothrombin complex concentrate (or FFP if that is unavailable)

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5
Q

What is LMWH CI that unfractionated heparin is not?

A

ESRD

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6
Q

When do you treat ITP, and what with?

A

Bleeding or platelets <30k. Give steroids or IVIG

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7
Q

Triad of GVHD

A
  1. Dermatitis (maculopapular rash)
  2. Gastroenteritis (bloody diarrhea)
  3. Hepatitis (jaundice and elevated LFTs)
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8
Q

Marker for ALL

A

TdT

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9
Q

Transient visual disturbances, burning cyanosis in hands and feet, and itching in the shower

A

PV (can also see HTN and thrombosis)

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10
Q

Hyperviscosity syndrome in Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

A

Diplopia, tinnitus, HA, and dilated/segmented fundoscopic findings
(Elevated IgM can also lead to neuropathy and cryogloblinemia).
(Infiltration can lead to hepatosplenomegaly, anemia, and thrombocytopenia)

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11
Q

Smudge cells

A

Pathognomonic for CLL

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12
Q

High mitotic index and “starry sky” appearance

A

Burkitt lymphoma

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13
Q

VHL syndrome

A
  1. Hemangioblastomas
  2. Clear cell RCC
  3. Phochromocytoma
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14
Q

Anterior mediastinal masses

A
  1. Thymoma
  2. Thyroid tumor
  3. Teratoma and germ cell tumors
  4. Terrible lymphoma
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15
Q

Middle mediastinal masses other than lymphomas and lymph nodes

A

Bronchogenic cysts and tracheal tumors

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16
Q

Posterior mediastinal masses other than lymphomas and lymph nodes

A

Neurogenic tumors

17
Q

Test required before starting rituximab

A

PPD

18
Q

Work-up for first provoked unprovoked thromboembolism

A

CXR and age-appropriate cancer screening

19
Q

Macrocytic anemia with elevated bilirubin

A

Intramedullary hemolysis in megaloblastic anemia

20
Q

Who is at risk for primary hypotensive transfusion reaction?

A

Patients on ACEIs (bradykinin accumulation in blood products leads to hypotension, ACE breaks down bradykinin)

21
Q

What do you do for the next transfusion for a patient who had anaphylaxis after an RBC transfusion?

A

Washed RBCs (to wash away IgA)

22
Q

What do you do for the next transfusion for a patient who had febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction after an RBC transfusion?

A

Leukoreduced RBCs (FNHTR due to antibodies against donor WBC or breakdown of donor WBC releasing cytokines)

23
Q

Finding on exam in X-linked agammaglobulinemia

A

Absent lymphoid tissue (tonsils and lymph nodes)

Will present with recurrent sinopulmonary infections after 6 months of age

24
Q

Recurrent infections, eczema, and thrombocytopenia.

What is the underlying defect?

A

Wiskott-Aldrich syndroe. Due to defect in regulation of actin cytoskeleton

25
Q

Test for chronic granulomatous disease

A

Dihydrorodamine or nitroblue tetrazolium for lack of oxidative burst

26
Q

Most common organism causing sepsis in sicklers

A

Pneumococcus (even if vaccinated)

27
Q

Key side effect(s) of cyclophosphamide

A

Hemorrhagic cystitis and bladder cancer

Present with hydration and mesna

28
Q

Key side effect(s) of platinum-based chemotherapies

A

Cochlear dysfunction

29
Q

Electrolyte changes in tumor lysis syndrome

A

Elevations in phosphate, potassium, and uric acid, but hypocalcemia (precipitates with phosphate).