Hematopoiesis Flashcards

1
Q

When does hematopoiesis begin and where?

A

Blood cell formation begins in the embryo yolk sac –> liver –> bone marrow (5th month)

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2
Q

What kind of marrow produces the blood cells?

A

‘Red marrow’ is hematopoietic: In long bones, marrow becomes yellow (fatty) by age 20 and in flat bones, red marrow persists for life.

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3
Q

All marrow cells derive from a multipotent master stem cell.

What are the three general types?

A

hematopoietic stem cells (HSCs)
endothelial cells (ECs)
mesenchymal stem cells (MSCs)

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4
Q

What two cell lineages come from HSCs?

A

myeloid and lymphoid

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5
Q

What two cell types are lymphoid?

A

B and T cells

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6
Q

What four cell types are myeloid?

A

erythroid, granulocyte, monocyte and megakaryocytes

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7
Q

Which cells are used in BM transplantation?

A

HSCs

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8
Q

What are clusters of differentiation?

A

~250 cell surface markers on bone marrow cells integral cell membrane proteins that enable “typing” of bone marrow cells

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9
Q

What is the definition of myeloid?

A
Myeloid includes:
granulocytes
monocytes
basophils
eosinophils
eythroids
megakaryocytes
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10
Q

Each cell type arises from a Colony-Forming Unit (CFU) which are induced by growth factors/cytokines termed what?

A

CSFs (Colony-Stimulating Factors)

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11
Q

What is the Multipotent CSF we have to know?

A

Stem Cell Factor (SCF) binds c-Kit -> all myeloid & lymphoid CFUs

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12
Q

What are four unipotent CSFs?

A
  • Erythropoietin -> CFU-E (erythropoiesis)
  • Thrombopoietin -> CFU-meg (thrombopoiesis)
  • G-CSF = Granulocyte-Colony Stimulating Factor -> CFU-G (neutrophils)
  • M-CSF -> monocyte -> macrophage
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13
Q

25 year old male with hypocellular (high fat) bone marrow core biopsy would you expect cytoses or cytopenia?

A

cytopenia due to low cellularity of the marrow

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14
Q

If a pt has hypocellular BM what are the clinical consequences?

A

marrow being wiped out = no capacity to make RBCs (cause SOB), granulocytes (infection) or platelets (bleeding)

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15
Q

What types of cells should you transplant in a pt with hypocellular marrow?

A

progenitor cells

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16
Q

60 year old male core BM biopsy is hypercellular dominated by one type of immature cell. How would this pt present clinically?

A

marrow being one type of immature cell = no capacity to make mature RBCs (cause SOB), granulocytes (infection) or platelets (bleeding)

17
Q

If erythroids dominate an aspirate smear, what growth factor could cause this?

A

Erythropoietin

18
Q

What is the difference between automated and manual WBC differentials?

A

Automated: done by analyzer counts thousands of cells in less than 5 minutes but cannot categorize abnormal cells

Manual: done by tech counts about 100 cells in 20 minutes potentially less accurate

19
Q

How do you do a manual WBC?

A

pick a good spread of cells where they don’t overlap much and use a scanning pattern counting and categorizing all WBCs until you reach 100

20
Q

Erythropoietin is produced by the ______ in the setting of _______ and stimulates red blood cell production

A

kidney & hypoxia

21
Q

Thrombopoietin increases ____________ production and platelet formation

A

megakaryocyte

22
Q

______ plays a central role in increasing neutrophil production

A

Granulocyte colony-stimulating factor (G-CSF)

23
Q

What decreases EPO production?

A

normoxia and polycythemia

24
Q

What is the transcription factor for EPO?

A

Hypoxia-inducible factor is bound during normoxia and released during hypoxia

25
Q

What are some recombinant forms of EPO?

A

epoetin alfa & darbopoietin

26
Q

When would you use recombinant EPO?

A

Anemia induced by CKD, chemo, myelodysplastic syndrome, HIV, infants with low birth weights and people who refuse blood transfusions.

27
Q

What are the side effects of recombinant erythropoeitin

?

A

HYPERTENSION, HEADACHE, venous thrombosis, CVD and pure red cell aplasia

28
Q

Thrombopoietin (TPO) is constitutively produced where?

A

LIVER plus some kidney and spleen

29
Q

In the setting of thrombocytopenia, TPO levels ____ from the absence of platelets, leading to _______ megakaryocyte binding

A

rise & increased

30
Q

Elevated platelet counts (thrombocytosis) ________ circulating TPO, thereby ______ megakaryocyte activity

A

decrease for both

31
Q

What are the thrombopoietin receptor agonists?

A

eltrombopag & romiplostim

32
Q

What are thrombopoietin receptor agonists used for?

A

Treatment of thrombocytopenia, most commonly immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and is associated with decreased need for platelet transfusions

33
Q

What are the side effects of thrombopoietin receptor agonists?

A

Side effects include headache, venous thrombosis and myelofibrosis

34
Q

What is the myeloid growth factor produced by monocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts, and endothelial cells?

A

Granulocyte Colony Stimulating Factor (G-CSF)

35
Q

When is Granulocyte Colony Stimulating Factor (G-CSF) increased?

A

G-CSF levels increase in the setting of pro-inflammatory mediators including IL-1 and TNF

36
Q

What is the recombinant G-CSF ?

A

filgrastim

37
Q

When is filgrastim used?

A
  • Prevention of infection in patients with chemotherapy-induced neutropenia (most commonly in acute leukemia and breast cancertherapy)
  • Treatment of fevers, infections in patients with neutropenia
  • HIV associated neutropenia
  • Chronic neutropenia syndromes (eg autoimmune neutropenia)
  • Mobilization of stem cells prior to autologous bone marrow
38
Q

What are the side effects of filgrastim?

A

fever, bone pain and rare fluid retention/pulmonary edema