Hematology Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is hematopoiesis?

A

Is the formation and development of blood cells

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2
Q

Where does hematopoiesis take place in a fetus?

A

Liver

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3
Q

Where does hematopoiesis take place in adults?

A

bone marrow

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4
Q

What is a erythrocyte?

A

RBC

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5
Q

What are the five stages of RBC maturation?

A

Rubriblast Prorubricyte Rubricyte Metarubricyte Polychromatophil

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6
Q

What are the four stages of eosinophil maturation?

A

Eosinophilic Myelocyte Eosinophilic Metamyelocyte Eosinophilic Band Eosinophil

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7
Q

What are the four stages of neutrophil maturation?

A

Neutrophilic Myelocyte Neutrophilic Metamyelocyte Neutrophilic Band Segmented Neutrophil

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8
Q

What are the four stages of basophil maturation?

A

Basophilic Myelocyte Basophilic Metamyelocyte Basophilic Band Basophil

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9
Q

What are the three stages of monocyte maturation?

A

Monoblast Promonocyte Monocyte

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10
Q

What are the three stages of lymphocyte maturation?

A

Lymphoblast Prolymphocyte B and T Lymphocytes

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11
Q

What are the four stages of platelet maturation?

A

Megakaryoblasts Promegakaryocytes Megakayocytes Platelets

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12
Q

Do you get plasma or serum in a purple top tube?

A

Plasma

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13
Q

What anticoagulant is in a purple top tube?

A

EDTA

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14
Q

What are purple top tubes commonly used for?

A

CBC’s and Platelet counts

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15
Q

Do you get plasma or serum in a green top tube?

A

Plasma

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16
Q

What anticoagulant is in a green top tube?

A

Lithium Heparin

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17
Q

What are green top tubes commonly used for?

A

blood chemistries, electrolytes, and stats

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18
Q

What anticoagulant is in a red top tube?

A

no additive

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19
Q

Do you get plasma or serum in a red top tube?

A

serum

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20
Q

How long must a red top tube sit before centrifugation?

A

15-30 minutes

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21
Q

What are red top tubes commonly used for?

A

chemistries and serological assays

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22
Q

If the serum isn’t removed immediately what can it effect?

A

Blood glucose

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23
Q

Do you get plasma or serum in a tiger/marble top tube?

A

serum

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24
Q

What anticoagulant is in a tiger/marble top tube?

A

no additive but does have a silicon gel

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25
Q

What are tiger/marble top tubes commonly used for?

A

chemistires, serological assays, and some outside lab tests

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26
Q

Why can’t you use a tiger/marble top tube for drug testing? And what tests are these?

A

It affects results in thyroid and phenobarb levels

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27
Q

Do you get plasma or serum in a blue top tube?

A

Plasma

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28
Q

What anticoagulant is in a blue top tube?

A

Sodium citrate

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29
Q

What are blue top tubes commonly used for?

A

coagulation assays

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30
Q

What grey top tube is rare to use? Is it plasma or serum? What are the uses? What is the anticoagulant?

A

Plasma sample. Contains the anticoagulant sodium fluoride. Used for glucose assays

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31
Q

What grey top tube will you most likely see? Is it plasma or serum? What are the uses? What is the anticoagulant?

A

ACT. Serum sample. Contains Diatomaceous Earth. Used for testing clotting ability

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32
Q

What is another name for packed blood cell vomume (PCV)?

A

Hematocrit (HCT)

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33
Q

What does PCV tell you?

A

The percentage of whole blood that is composed of red blood cells

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34
Q

What is the normal PCV range for dogs?

A

37-55%

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35
Q

What is the normal PCV range for cats?

A

35-45%

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36
Q

What piece of equipment do you used to read TP?

A

refractometer

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37
Q

What is the normal TP range in dogs and cats?

A

6.0-7.5g/dL

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38
Q

What does TP tell you?

A

refers to the total amount of protein in plasma

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39
Q

What is the major functional component of the red blood cell and the component that is responsible for carrying O2 to the tissues and CO2 back to the lungs?

A

Hemoglobin

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40
Q

What does knowing the Hgb level help you determine?

A

Presence or absence of iron deficiency. To treat both iron deficiency and anemia appropriately

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41
Q

T or F. RBC’s are bi concave.

A

True

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42
Q

What do you always need to include when talking about RBC morphology?

A

size, shape, color

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43
Q

T or F. You don’t need to report the quantity when reporting variations in size, color, and shape.

A

False

44
Q

What is the term for some size variation?

A

anisocytosis

45
Q

When cells on a smear are normal what would you call them?

A

Normocytic

46
Q

What does macrocytosis mean?

A

increase in cell size

47
Q

What does microcytosis mean?

A

decrease in cell size

48
Q

What is the term for normal color?

A

Normochromic

49
Q

T or F. The central pallor in dogs is 1/3 of the diameter of the cell.

A

True

50
Q

What species is it common to see rouleaux?

A

Normal equine and feline

51
Q

What are the functions of a WBC?

A

control inflammation Control bacterial infection Provide immunity Help blood clot Help destroy clots Help prevent unwanted cells

52
Q

What WBC is the first line of defense?

A

Neutrophil

53
Q

What are the functions of a neutrophil?

A

First line of defense against microbial infection Performs phagocytosis and pinocytosis

54
Q

What is a left shift?

A

When there is 5% or more band neutrophils

55
Q

When is a segmented neutrophil considered hypersegmented?

A

Nucleus has more than 5 segments

56
Q

What is a right shift?

A

Greater than 5% hypersegmented neutrophils

57
Q

What are some causes of hypersegmented neutrophils?

A

Blood has been in tube longer than 3 hours Vitamin b12 deficiency Steroids

58
Q

What is most common cell found in circulating blood of cats and dogs?

A

Segmented neutrophil

59
Q

What is the second most common cell found in circulating blood of cats and dogs?

A

lymphocyte

60
Q

What is the most common cell found in circulating blood of ruminants?

A

lymphocyte

61
Q

What are the functions of a lymphocyte?

A

B cells mature into B lymphocytes in the bone marrow and secrete antibodies. T cells migrate to and mature in the thymus and then they respont to antigens by activating phagocytes, natural killer cells (NK), antigen-specific cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, and the release of various cytokines in response to an antigen

62
Q

What is the largest cell in the circulating blood?

A

monocytes

63
Q

What are the functions of monocytes?

A

Plays a critical role in providing immunity. Processes foreign antigens and delivers them to lymphocytes increasing immune reaction. Phagocytosis of pathogens that neutrophils have not been effective against. Chief cell for eating “bad things”

64
Q

What are the functions of eosinophils?

A

Detoxifying parasites. Regulates allergic and inflammation responses by releasing antihistamines from granules

65
Q

What are the three granulocytes?

A

Eosinophils, Neutrophils, and Basophils

66
Q

What are the two agranulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes and Monocytes

67
Q

T or F. Basophils are common in circulating blood.

A

False

68
Q

What are the functions of basohils?

A

Some what unknown Release histamine to provide neut’s to the injury Prevent blood from clotting Release heparin from granules

69
Q

What are the three main functions of platelets?

A

Clotting Preservation of capillary walls Transportation of substances from clotting and for constriction or dilation of blood vessels

70
Q

Where do you look for clumped platelets?

A

feathered edge

71
Q

What do platelets look like in dogs?

A

Generally a consistent size and shape

72
Q

What do platelets look like in cats?

A

Usually vary in size and shape. Clump easy

73
Q

What are macroplatelets?

A

Giant platelets that are larger than RBC’s.

74
Q

What numeric description would you want to include when you see macroplatelets?

A

slight, moderate, marked

75
Q

What do we do with the blood smear?

A

Confirm the cell numbers provided by the automated cell count. Perform a differential count…differentiating between types of white blood cells and their relative numbers. Assess cellular morphology and structural components of the cells. Look for blood-borne parasites

76
Q

What are blood smears made with?

A

EDTA whole blood

77
Q

If the patient is anemic what would you want to do with your angle?

A

increase

78
Q

If the patient is dehydrated what would you want to do with your angle?

A

decrease

79
Q

T or F. It is okay if the blood smear falls off an edge

A

False

80
Q

What are the 3 distinct areas on an ideal blood smear?

A

thick blood cell area, red cell area, feathered edge

81
Q

How much of the slide should your blood smear make up?

A

1/2 to 3/4

82
Q

Where would you want to do your WBC differential count and assess cell morphology?

A

Red cell area (Rainbow field/counting area)

83
Q

How would you correct the problem if the smear is too short or too thick?

A

make the blood drop smaller and decrease the angle of the spreader slide

84
Q

How would you correct the problem if the smear is too thin?

A

Increase the size of the blood drop, increase the angle of the spreader slide, and apply less pressure

85
Q

What are the three parts of the Diff Quick Stain?

A

Fixative (light blue), Eosin stain (red), Methylene Blue (dark BLUE)

86
Q

What is a good time in each of the three parts of the diff quick stain?

A

15 seconds

87
Q

What do you want to do first when looking at your stained slide?

A

Asses the feathered edge for clumped platelets and heartworm microfilariae or other parasites

88
Q

What do you want to do second when looking at your stained slide?

A

Move to the red cell area and do your WBC differential on 100x (oil)

89
Q

How many WBC’s do you want to count when doing a differential

A

100 WBC’s

90
Q

What else do you want to do besides your differential?

A

Assess morphology… RBC - are the cells normal shape and size and is the central pallor normal for the breed WBC - are the neutrophils mature or not, are the lymphocytes normal or reactive, are there inclusions Platelets - are there normal numbers and size

91
Q

In order to be effective, the blood smear must have what four proper things?

A

sample mixing, smear technique, staining, and time

92
Q

How much time do you have to make do your CBC post draw before cells start to deteriorate?

A

3 hours

93
Q

What are absolute values?

A

getting the actual number of each cell circulating in the blood

94
Q

What are thrombocytes?

A

Platelets

95
Q

What are leukocytes?

A

WBC

96
Q
A

Rouleaux

97
Q
A

Agglutination

98
Q
A

Segmented Neutrophil

99
Q
A

Band Neutrophil

100
Q
A

Hypersegmented Neutrophils

101
Q
A

Lymphocytes

102
Q
A

Monocytes

103
Q
A

Eosinophils

104
Q
A

Basophils

105
Q
A

Thrombocytes (Platelets)

106
Q
A

Macroplatelets (Giant Platelets)