Hematology/Oncology and High Risk OB Flashcards
________ contain hemoglobin and have the ability to carry oxygen.
Erythrocytes
What is the purpose of fibrinolysis?
to dissolve clots as vascular injury is repaired
T/F: You would expect to see an increased bleeding time in a patient with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
True
T/F: Your patient is in acute septic shock. You would expect her platelet count to be elevated.
False, you would expect her platelet count to be diminished.
The international normalized ratio (INR) is used to test patient response to what medication?
blood thinners (i.e. Coumadin)
What is the reversal agent (antidote) for a heparin overdose?
Protamine sulfate
Fresh frozen plasma would be the best product for which of the following?
a) A patient who is on warfarin and actively bleeding, or requires immediate surgery
b) A patient with hemophilia A
c) A patient with thombocytopenia
d) A patient in hemorrhagic shock
a) A patient who is on warfarin and actively bleeding, or requires immediate surgery
T/F: Fresh frozen plasma contains platlets.
False
T/F: Cryoprecipitate requires ABO matching before administration for all patients.
False
What blood product is typically used for patients having an acute sickle cell crisis?
Packed red blood cells
T/F: Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a life-threatening combination of clotting at the microscopic level as well as free bleeding at the systemic level.
True
T/F: Your patient is in DIC. You would expect this patient’s platelet count to be low.
True
Treatment for DIC can vary between giving blood components or low-dose heparin. Which of the following statements is true regarding DIC treatment?
a) All patients in DIC should be given concurrent whole blood to replace lost blood.
b) Patients in DIC will all be given platelets and cryoprecipitate.
c) The decision to give either blood components or heparin depends on whether bleeding predominates, or fibrin deposits predominates.
d) Patients in DIC are rarely given heparin because heparin will accelerate free bleeding.
c) The decision to give either blood components or heparin depends on whether bleeding predominates, or fibrin deposits predominates.
What is the most common genetic bleeding disorder?
von Williebrand’s disease
Cardiac output usually increases by ___% during pregnancy and increases even higher during labor.
40
T/F: Hypotension develops more readily and more markedly following sympathetic blockage in pregnant patients due to vascular tone being more dependent on sympathetic control.
True
T/F: Maternal blood glucose is always relatively high (140 - 180 mg/dl) to supply glucose to the growing fetus
False
Preterm labor is defined as regular uterine contractions prior to week ____ that are sufficient frequency and intensity to effect effacement and dilation of the cervix.
37
What is the mechanism of action of magnesium sulfate?
The exact mechanism of action is unknown
What is the reversal agent (antidote) for magnesium sulfate toxicity?
Calcium gluconate
Your patient is a 28-week gestation, who develops sudden painless, bright red bleeding that occurred without warning. What should you suspect?
Placenta previa
T/F: Your patient has placenta abruption. This patient would typically present with an increased hemoglobin and hematocrit as her body attempts to compensate for the hemorrhage.
False, this patient would have a diminished hemoglobin and hematocrit
What position is most appropriate for a patient with a suspected uterine prolapse?
knee-chest position
T/F: Once a preeclamptic patient has any signs or symptoms, it becomes severe preeclampsia.
True
T/F: Eclampsia does not require seizure activity to make the definitive diagnosis.
False
T/F: There is a well-defined correlation between progressive blood pressure elevation and prediction of preeclampsia.
False
You have just delivered a baby, and now you are waiting for the placenta to deliver. What stage of labor is this?
3rd stage
Which of the following statements regarding PEEP and neonatal resuscitation is correct?
a) PEEP should never be used in neonates as it may cause a pneumothorax
b) Initial lung recruitment may require initially high PEEP to expand the lungs
c) PEEP can only be used in neonates after the initial resuscitation phase
d) PEEP can only be used in neonates as a last resort (i.e. cardiac arrest)
b) Initial lung recruitment may require initially high PEEP to expand the lungs
What is the typical range for respiratory rate of a neonate?
40 - 60 breaths per minute
T/F: Intubation in any 3rd trimester patient should always be considered a difficult airway because of the failure rate of intubation in these patients.
True
T/F: Pregnancy requires an increased amount of sedation and anesthesia to achieve a therapeutic level.
False, pregnant patients typically require a reduced amount of sedation and anesthesia
When doing fluid resuscitation of a patient in maternal shock, is it preferred to have massive crystalloid infusion or early blood transfusion?
Early blood transfusion is preferable to massive crystalloid infusion
What does the mnemonic “STABLE” stand for in regards to fetal-maternal hemorrhage?
Stay calm
Triage
Assess
Baby
Launch
Evaluate & Evacuate
What is the most significant potential side effect of magnesium sulfate administration?
Respiratory depression
