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Hematology Flashcards

1
Q 
A 53 year old man is being evaluated for a stroke and is brought in to the Emergency Department. Which of the following should be done first?
A. Administer tPA
B. Administer Heparin
C. Run an MRI or CT scan
D. Administer Coumadin
A
  1. C
    Heparin: is an injectable blood thinner. It is used to treat and prevent deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism. It is also used as part of the treatment of myocardial infarction and unstable angina
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2
Q 
A person is of unknown blood type and there is no time to do a type and cross to determine which blood type is safe to transfuse. Which of the following is safest to transfuse into the patient's body?
A. Type A blood
B. Type B blood
C. Type AB blood
D. Type 0 blood
A
  1. D
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3
Q 
This antibody is the major antibody released in first-time pathogen exposure.
A. IgG
B. IgM
C. IgD
D. IgE
A
  1. B
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4
Q 
Of the following, this is the only "complete" blood cell.
A. platelets
B. Red Blood Cells
C. Lymphocytes
D. thrombocytes
A
  1. C
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5
Q 
Which of the following is a side-effect of all anticoagulant medications?
A. Gastric ulcers
B. Blood clots
C. Bleeding
D. Teratogenicity
A
  1. C
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6
Q 
Blood tests that help to diagnose autoimmune diseases look for the presence of particular
A. Antibodies
B. Red blood cells (RBCs)
C. Blood gasses
D. Enzymes
A
  1. A
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7
Q 
Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease?
A. Raynaud's disease
B. Scleroderma
C. Rheumatoid arthritis
D. Osteoarthritis
A
  1. D
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8
Q 
The RBC Indices provides all the following information about RBCs EXCEPT
A. Hgb concentration ofRBCs
B. Shape ofRBCs
C. Weight ofRBCs
D. Size ofRBCs
A
  1. B
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9
Q 
In the RBC Indices test, iron deficiency anemia which has been detected late is characterized by RBCs which are
A. Normal size
B. Fluctuating in size
C. Larger than normal
D. Smaller than normal
A
  1. D
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10
Q 
In the RBC Indices test, Vitamin B 12 and folic acid deficiency anemias are characterized by RBCs which are 
A. Normal size
B. Fluctuating in size
C. Smaller than normal
D. Larger than normal
A
  1. D
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11
Q

The Red Blood Cell Count (RBC count), Hematocrit (Hct), and Hemoglobin (Hgb) tests are integral in evaluating anemic patients and
A. Patients with ongoing bleeding problems
B. Patients with cancer
C. Patients with arthritis
D. Patients with thyroid problems

A
  1. A
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12
Q 
The Red Blood Cell Indices (RBC Indices) test is useful in classifying
A. Anemias 
B. Heart disease
C. Leukemias
0. Bone marrow failures
A
  1. A
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13
Q 
Which of the following is NOT associated with increased WBC count (leukocytosis)?
A. Infection
B. Bone marrow failure
C. Leukemia
D. Inflammation
A
  1. B
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14
Q 
CD4-helper cells and CD8-suppressor cells are examples of
A. Natural killer cells
B. T lymphocytes (from the thymus)
C. B lymphocytes (from the bone marrow)
D. Monoclonal antibodies
A
  1. B
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15
Q 
White Blood Cell Count (WBC) is especially helpful in directly evaluating all of the following EXCEPT
A. Allergies
B. Anemia
C. Infection
D. Immunosuppression
E. Neoplasm
A
  1. B
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16
Q 
How often does The U.S. Public Health Service recommend that CD4 prognostic markers be monitored in HIV infected patients?
A. Monthly
B. Yearly
C. Every two weeks
D. Every three to six months
A
  1. D
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17
Q

In AIDS the “window period” refers to
A. The time it takes for an HIV infection to test positive for HIV antibodies
B. The time that AIDS patients have left before they die
C. The time it takes before antibodies in AIDS patients can infect others
D. The time it takes for drug therapy to take effect

A
  1. A
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18
Q 
The RBC count blood test is related to the hemoglobin blood test and
A. The folic acid test
B. The blood smear test
C. WBC differential count test
D. The hematocrit blood test
A
  1. D
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19
Q 
A high WBC count indicates
A. Infection
B. Leukopenia
C. Cardiac failure
D. Anemia
A
  1. A
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20
Q 
Using a micro-centrifuge, the Hematocrit (Hct) blood test measures the percentage of total blood volume that is composed of
A. Monocytes
B. Neutrophils
C. RBCs
D. Basophils
A
  1. C
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21
Q 
The Complete Blood Cell Count (CBC) does NOT include
A. Platelet count
B. Blood smear count
C. RBC count and indices
D. WBC count
A
  1. B
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22
Q 
With critically low Hemoglobin (Hgb) levels, patients are at a great risk for all of the following EXCEPT
A. Diabetes
B. Heart attack
C. Angina pectoris
D. Stroke
E. Congestive heart failure
A
  1. A
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23
Q

Which of the following should NOT be done after a person tests positive for HIV?
A. Give results personally by telephone
B. Encourage patients to identify sexual contacts so that they can be informed and tested
C. Explain that a positive test implies the presence of the virus and does not mean that they have clinical AIDS
D. Provide education regarding safe sexual practices

A
  1. A
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24
Q 
A low RBC count indicates
A. Infection
B. Leukopenia
C. Anemia
D. Leukocytosis
A
  1. C
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25
Q 
The Platelet Count is routinely performed on patients with
A. Heart problems
B. Liver problems
C. Bleeding problems
D. Digestive problems
A
  1. C
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26
Q

The Reticulocyte Count (Retic Count) blood test
A. Evaluates RBC production by the bone marrow
B. Measures the number of circulating WBCs
C. Measures the number of circulating RBCs
D. Examines aged RBCs

A
  1. A
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27
Q 
The Complete Blood Cell Count (CBC) and Differential Count (Diff) blood tests provide information on the blood system and
A. Organ systems
B. Lymphatic system
C. Cardiovascular system
D. Blood vessels
A
  1. A
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28
Q

What CD4-cell count is indicative that an HIV infected person will develop AIDS?
A. 300 cells/mm3
C. > 500 cells/mm3
D.

A
  1. D
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29
Q 
The "window period" in AIDS lasts
A. Usually 2-12 weeks but possibly as long as 6 months
B. Usually 6-12 months
C. Less than one week
D. More than 12 months
A
  1. A
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30
Q 
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is utilized to track
A. Inflammatory processes
B. Hematocrit
C. Cancerous growths
D. Red blood cell formation
A
  1. A
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31
Q 
The drug warfarin (Coumadin) works by
A. Slowing clotting time
B. Improving heart rate rhythm
C. Blocking acid secretion in the stomach
D. Destroying bacteria
A
  1. A
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32
Q 
What type of anemia is associated with heavy menstrual bleeding?
A. Vitamin B12 anemia
B. Folic acid anemia
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Iron-deficiency anemia
A
  1. D
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33
Q

Communicable diseases
A. There is no need to report
B. Have to be reported to the Health Department
C. Need to be communicated with all identifiable patients partners
D. Need to be reported depending on the State

A
  1. B
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34
Q 
What tests are used to monitor the effectiveness of iron therapy?
A. Sodium and potassium levels
B. BUN
C. Liver functions studies
D. Hemoglobin and reticulocyte levels
A
  1. D
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35
Q 
One of the most common first signs of infectious mononucleosis is
A. Ringing in the ears
B. Severe sore throat
C. Abdominal discomfort
D. Diarrhea
A
  1. B
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36
Q 
Using a micro-centrifuge, the Hematocrit (Hct) blood test measure the percentage of total blood volume that is composed of
A. Neutrophils
B. Monocytes
C. RBCs
D. Basophils
A
  1. C
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37
Q

The reticulocyte count (Retic Count) blood test
A. Examines aged RBCs
B. Measures the number of circulating WBCs
C. Evaluates RBC production by the bone marrow
D. Measures the number of circulating RBCs

A
  1. C
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38
Q 
Low blood chloride levels are seen in
A. Dehydration
B. Prolonged vomiting or diarrhea
C. Kidney dysfunction
D. Eclampsia
A
  1. B
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39
Q 
Which of the following iron related blood tests is the most accurate indicator of iron deficiency?
A. Total Iron-Binding Capacity (TIBC)
B. Iron level
C. Transferrin Saturation
D. Ferritin
A
  1. D
40
Q

Angela is a 9-year old girl who is brought in by her mother. She is limping and her mother is supporting her as she walks into the office. Angela complains
of pain especially in her feet and hands. Angela is flushed and hot with a temperature of 1 02 degrees. She has red, swollen ankles and wrists, symmetrical in severity. The physical exam reveals a tender, enlarged liver, down 3 FBs below the right costal margin. The spleen is tender and causes Angela to flinch when it is palpated. She has a prominent friction rub over the
apex of her heart that sounds like the sawing of wood. Her eyes are red and swollen and she complains of pain behind both eyes. What is the presumptive
diagnosis?
A. Leukemia
B. Acute rheumatoid arthritis
C. Fractured ankle
D. Liver toxicity

A
  1. B
41
Q 
Bill recently returned from a trip to Guatemala. While there he was treated for bloody diarrhea which was identified as Salmonella typhosa (typhoid fever). He responded well to treatment. Now, back in the US he has developed bloody diarrhea again with fever, cramping, and abdominal pain. Stool culture is negative. CBC blood test indicates low-grade anemia with a hemoglobin of 10.0 gms and a leukocytosis with WBC of 15,000. He is having 6-8 bowel movements per day. Physical exam reveals a mild tenderness on abdominal palpation of all quadrants slightly increased in the left lower quadrant. During the exam he is afebrile. All of the following are possible drug treatments except?
A. Aspirin
B. Aminosalicylates
C. Steroids
D. Antibiotics and TNF drugs
A
  1. A
42
Q 
A 42 year old female has had a rash on her face for the previous week. The rash is across her face and her nose and denies having a rash in other parts of her body. The rash worsens in the sun. She denies using new soaps, medications, and foods. She is fatigued, has a fever, weight loss, and is sensitive to the sun. She reports muscle pains, worse in the hands and wrists. She denies early morning joint stiffness. She denies temperature intolerance, polyuria, polydipsia, or polyphagia. PHYSICAL EXAM: BP 112/66; Heart rate is 62 and regular; respiratory rate 12/min; temperature 100.3 degrees F. She has several erythematous plaques over the cheeks and bridge of nose. Oropharynx moist with erythema in the posterior pharyngeal wall; no exudates; shallow ulcers in the buccal mucosa bilaterally. Neck is supple without cervical lymphadenopathy or thyromegaly. Joints have full range of motion, no swelling or deformity; muscles are normal. Based on the preceding history and limited physical examination prior to lab tests what is the most likely disease state?
A. Lyme disease
B. Discoid lupus
C. Systemic lupus erythematosis
D. Generalized Dermatitis
A
  1. C
43
Q 
The generic name for anticoagulant drugs all end with
A. -dronate
B. -dipine
C. -caine
D. -parin
A
  1. D
44
Q

A 22 year-old man has been diagnosed with Hodgkin Lymphoma. What was used to confirm the diagnosis.
A. CBC, Liver Panel
B. CBC, comprehensive metabolic panel
C. Liver Panel, comprehensive metabolic panel
D. Lymph node biopsy

A
  1. D
45
Q

A 44 year-old female has Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura. What are her symptoms?
A. Petechia and mucosal bleeding
B. Red patches of skin covered with silvery scales
C. Small, raised bumps, that leak fluid when scratched
D. Pruritis and skin rash

A
  1. A
46
Q

A 45 year-old woman has chronic and severe Iron Deficiency Anemia. What lab tests were conducted?
A. Liver Profile with serum ferritin
B. Basic metabolic panel
C. Peripheral blood smear with Howell-Jolly bodies
D. CBC, serum iron and iron-binding capacity, serum ferritin

A
  1. D
47
Q 
A 44 year-old female has Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura. What will the lab findings reveal?
A. Decreased platelet count
B. Increased white blood cell count
C. Decreased MCV
D. Increased MCH
A
  1. A
48
Q

A 35 year-old male has Allergic Purpura. How is the diagnosis confirmed?
A. Elevated serum lgE
B. Elevated serum IgA
C. Biopsy of skin lesions that shows leukocytoclastic vasculitis with IgA in vessel walls
D. Biopsy of skin lesions that shows lymphocytic vasculitis with IgE in vessel walls

A
  1. C
49
Q

A 62 year-old man has Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia. How was the diagnosis confirmed?
A. Elevated uric acid with immunophenotyping of bone marrow
B. Thrombocytopenia with peripheral blood lymphoblasts
C. Increased RBCs in the bone marrow
D. Peripheral blood smear and bone marrow showing sustained lymphocytosis
and increased lymphocytes in the bone marrow

A
  1. D
50
Q 
A 44 year-old female has Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura. What is the initial treatment?
A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories
B. Pack cells transfusion
C. Oral corticosteroids (Prednisone)
D. Platelet transfusion
A
  1. C
51
Q

65 year-old man has pernicious Anemia. What did lab tests show?
A. Absence of Howell-Jolly bodies .
B. Peripheral blood smear showing macrocytic RBCs
C. LDH decrease
D. MCV less than 50

A
  1. B
52
Q

A 22 year-old man has Hodgkin Lymphoma. What are his symptoms?
A. Easy bleeding, gum bleeding: epistaxis, enlarged liver and spleen
B. Arthralgia, erythema nodosum, breathlessness, cough, enlarged spleen
C· painless lump in the neck, low-grade fever, night sweats, weight loss
D. Sweat gland dysfunction, wheezing, dyspnea, clubbing fingers and toes

A
  1. C
53
Q

A 22 year-old man has Hodgkin Lymphoma. What is the treatment?
A. Corticosteroids and antivirals
B. Anti-virals, and antibiotics
C. Chemotherapy with and without radiation
D. Radiation and antivirals

A
  1. C
54
Q

A 65 year-old man has Pernicious Anemia. What are his symptoms?
A. Weakness, fatigue, shortness of breath on exertion, pale face
B. Weakness, tachycardia, shortness of breath, petechia
C. Weakness, craving for ice, dirt or paint, concave nails
D. Weakness, sore tongue, numbness-tingling in the extremities

A
  1. D
55
Q

A 62 year-old woman has Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia. What are his symptoms?
A. Fatigue, lymph node enlargement, fever, abdominal fullness with enlarged spleen, bone tenderness
B. Palpable lymph nodes, thyroid enlargement, dysphagia, mental apathy, sensitivity to cold and heat
c. Persistent pre menopausal bleeding and discharge, pain, weight-loss, frequent voiding
D. Weight loss, abdominal and back pain, jaundice, diarrhea, clay-colored stools skin lesions

A
  1. A
56
Q

A 62 year-old Jewish man has Chronic Lymphocytic Leukemia. What is the treatment?
A. Antibiotics and corticosteroids
B. Radiation, non-steroidal anti-inflammatories
C. Chemotherapy, corticosteroids (Prednisone)
D. Anti-viral, antibiotics

A
  1. C
57
Q 
A 65 year-old man has Pernicious Anemia. What is the treatment?
A. Vitamin B-12, Folic Acid
B. Vitamin B6, Vitamin B1
C. Vitamin C, Vitamin D
D. Vitamin K
A
  1. A
58
Q

A 35 year-old male has Allergic Purpura. What is the treatment?
A. Aspirin ·
B. Corticosteroids (Prednisone)
C. Anti-histamine (Benadryl)
D. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories (Motrin)

A
  1. B
59
Q 
The average life span of an RBC is
A. 120 days
B. 1 week
C. 1 month
D. 1 year
A
  1. A
60
Q

The waste product bilirubin is produced from
A. Portions of heme molecules that contain iron
B. Globin chains of hemoglobin
C. Glucagon
D. Portions of heme molecules that do not contain iron

A
  1. D
61
Q

Erythropoiesis increases when
A. Oxygen levels in the blood increase
B. Carbon dioxide levels in the blood increase
C. Oxygen levels in the blood decrease
D. Carbon dioxide levels in the blood decrease

A
  1. C
62
Q 
Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is
A. Excreted by the kidneys
B. Recycled to the bone marrow
C. Stored in the yellow bone marrow
D. Excreted by the liver
A
  1. B
63
Q

The function of RBCs is to
A. Remove carbon dioxide from active cells
B. Remove nitrogenous wastes from active tissues
C. Carry oxygen from the lungs to the body’s cells
D. Defend the body against infectious organisms

A
  1. C
64
Q 
Plasma proteins that are important in body defense are the
A. Immunoglobulins
B. Albumins
C. Lipoproteins
D. Fibrinogens
A
  1. A
65
Q 
Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone
A. Thymosin
B. Angiotensin I
C. Cobalamin
D. Erythropoietin
A
  1. D
66
Q 
Which anemia is caused by failure of the bone marrow to produce new blood cells?
A. Pernicious
B. Aplastic
C. Dietary
D. Hemorrhagic
A
  1. B
67
Q 
The combination of plasma and formed elements is called
A. Serum
B. Extracellular fluid
C. Lymph
D. Whole blood
A
  1. D
68
Q 
Serum is
A. Plasma minus the proteins
B. The same as blood plasma
C. Plasma minus the formed elements
D. Plasma minus the fibrinogen
A
  1. D
69
Q 
The formed elements of blood include
A. clotting proteins
B. blood cells
C. defense proteins
D. lipoproteins
A
  1. B
70
Q 
Over 95% of the protein in a red cells is
A. Fibrinogen
B. Albumin
C. Hemoglobin
D. Collagen
A
  1. C
71
Q 
The percentage of whole blood occupied by erythrocytes is the
A. Specific gravity
B. Packed volume
C. Hematocrit
D. Viscosity
A
  1. C
72
Q

The function of hemoglobin is to
A. Protect the body against infectious agents
B. Carry oxygen
C. Carry nutrients from the intestine to the body’s cells
D. Aid in the process of blood clotting

A
  1. B
73
Q

Which of the following statements concerning red blood cells Is false?
A. Red blood cells have a large nucleus
B. Red blood cells are biconcave discs
C. Red blood cells lack mitochondria
D. Red blood cells are specialized for carrying oxygen

A
  1. A
74
Q 
Plasma proteins that are necessary for blood clotting are the
A. Lipoproteins
B. Albumins
C. Immunoglobulins
D. Fibrinogens
A
  1. D
75
Q 
Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by the
A. Spleen
B. Lungs
C. Kidneys
D. Thymus gland
A
  1. A
76
Q

Platelets function in all of the following except
A. Initiating the clotting process
B. Forming temporary patches in injured areas
C. Contraction after clot formation
D. Dissolving a formed clot

A
  1. D
77
Q 
Which of the following cells do NOT have a nucleus?
A. Leukocytes
B. Erythrocytes
C. gGranulocytes
D. Agranulocytes
A
  1. B
78
Q 
Hereditary deficiency of coagulation is referred to as
A. Hemophilia
B. Anemia
C. Hemolysis
D. Leukemia
A
  1. A
79
Q 
Platelets are
A. Fragments of large megakaryocyte cells
B. Small cells that lack a nucleus
C. Small cells with lobed nuclei
D. Large cells that lack a nucleus
A
  1. A
80
Q 
Most of the pro-coagulants that are required for clotting are synthesized by
A. The kidneys
B. Megakaryocytes
C. Platelets
D. The liver
A
  1. D
81
Q 
The process of fibrinolysis
A. Dissolves clots
B. Activates fibrinogen
C. Forms emboli
D. Draws tom edges of damaged tissue together
A
  1. A
82
Q 
Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors?
A. Vitamin A
B. Vitamin B
C. Vitamin K
D. Vitamin D
A
  1. C
83
Q 
Stoppage of bleeding is called
A. Vascular spasm
B. Coagulation
C. Hemostasis
D. Thrombosis
A
  1. C
84
Q 
Which destroys bacteria through phagocytosis?
A. Lymphocyte
B. Neutrophil
C. Erythrocyte
D. Basophil
A
  1. B
85
Q 
If a person lives in San Francisco and vacations in the Rocky Mountains, you would expect to observe an increase in 
A. White blood cell count
B. Number of lymphocytes in their blood
C. Number of platelets in their blood
D. Red blood cell count
A
  1. D
86
Q 
The pigment in red blood cells that carries oxygen is
A. Erythropoietin
B. Melatonin
C. Urobilinogen
D. Hemoglobin
A
  1. D
87
Q 
Which opposes the effect of histamine in allergic responses and phagocytizes antigen antibody structures, and kills some types of parasitic worms?
A. Neutrophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Basophil
D. Eosinophil
A
  1. D
88
Q 
An increase in the number of white blood cells is called
A. Leukopenia
B. Anemia
C. Polycythemia
D. Leukocytosis
A
  1. D
89
Q

A person’s blood type is determined by the
A. Shape of red blood cells
B. Chemical character of the hemoglobin
C. Presence or absence of specific molecules on the cell membrane
D. Size of red blood cells

A
  1. C
90
Q 
Which contains hemoglobin and transports oxygen and carbon dioxide?
A. Lymphocyte
B. Basophil
C. Erythrocyte
D. Neutrophil
A
  1. C
91
Q 
What is a blood clot transported by the blood stream?
A. Embolus
B. Thrombin clot
C. Thrombus
D. Platelet plug
A
  1. A
92
Q 
During a viral infection you would expect to see increased numbers of
A. Eosinophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Neutrophils
D. Basophils
A
  1. B
93
Q 
White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are
A. Monocytes
B. Eosinophils
C. Neutrophils
D. Basophils
A
  1. D
94
Q 
Which functions in hemostasis and releases chemicals to enhance vascular spasm?
A. Basophil
B. Erythrocyte
C. Platelets
D. Neutrophil
A
  1. C
95
Q 
The blood volume of an averaged sized male is
A. 4 to 5 liters
B. 3 to 4 liters
C. 6 to 7liters
D. 5 to 6 liters
A
  1. D
96
Q 
Which white blood cells are important in producing antibodies?
A. Monocytes
B. Eosinophils
C. Lymphocytes
D. Neutrophils
A
  1. C

biomedicine preview pretest (11 decks)

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