Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

Protein most responsible for iron transport in plasma

A

Transferrin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Protein that represents an indirect measure of total body iron stores

A

Ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Iron supplements should be taken in an empty or full stomach?

A

Empty since food inhibits iron absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

After iron supplementation, reticulocyte begin to increase in how many days

A

4-7 days

Tx must be sustined for 6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

When do you transfuse blood for IDA?

A

reserved for symptomatic anemia, cardiovascular instability and continued and excessive blood loss and who require immediate intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Formula for amount of iron needed by an individual patient

A

Body weight x 2.3 x (15-px hb in g/dL) + 500 or 1000 for iron stores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Pathogenic changes in the ____ protein can cause spherocytosis

A

Ankyrin

whereas changes in junctional complexes = elliptocytosis

Stomatocytosis= abnormalities of channel molecules

Other notes: anemia of hereditary spherocytosis is usually NORMOcytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

When do you advocate for splenectomy in patients with hereditary spherocytosis

A

Mild - avoided
Moderate - delayed until puberty
Severe - 4-6 yrs of age

must vaccinate against encapsulated organisms BEFORE splenectomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Most typical feature of G6PD deficiency on blood film

A

Poikilocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Expected levels of the following in G6PD deficiency

Hemoglobin
LDH
Haptoglobin

A

Decreased hemoglobin due to hemoglobinuria

Hig LDH due to hemolysis

Low to absent haptoglobin because haptoglobin binds free hemoglobin hence low in intravascular hemolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Tx for acute hemolytic anemia in G6PD deficiency

A

No specific tx unless severe which may require transfusion

If there is acute renal failure, HD may be necessary

If with chronic non severe hemolytic anemia, regular folic acid supplements and surveillance will suffice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Next line of tx when steroids do not improve autoimmune hemolytic anemia

A

Rituximab

If very rare and severe refractory case, may need high dose cyclophosphamide OR anti CD52 Alemtuzumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Predictors or probability of relapse of autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)

A

Severe anemia (Hb <6 g/dL)
Certain characteristics of Ab
Acute renal failure
infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which presents as chronic and indolent : cold agglutinin dse or warm AIHA ?

A

Cold

C= chronic

No predominance of spleen in Cold agglutinin dse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

First line tx for cold agglutinin dse

A

Rituximab

Prednisone and splenectomy = NOT effective

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Poisoning from which susbance is associated with Burton’s line?

A

Lead poisoning

Burton’s lie = bluish pigmentation of gum tooth line

Also assoc with basophilic stippling

so mga assoc with blue = lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is due to deficiency of what surface proteins?

A

CD 59 and 55

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Tx for PNH

A

Allogeneic transplant - defiinitive

Eculizumab for INTRA not extravascular hemolysis

do NOT give steroids- no effect on chronic hemolysis

Any px with venous thrombosis should be on anticoag prophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

How does pernicious anemia cause cobalamin deficiency?

A

anti IF antibodies decrease the availability of IF that binds to cobalamin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How does ZES cause cobalamin deficiency?

A

Inc acid causes inactivation of trypsin resulting in failure to release cobalamin from R binding protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How does GVHD cause cobalamin deficiency?

A

Malabsorption of cobalamin due to abnormal gut flora and ilealmucosa damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Characteristic peripheral blood smear pattern of thalassemia

A

Target cells

Another way of differentiating thalassemia from IDA is that IDA has low ferritin and obv low iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Most common hypoproliferative anemia

A

IDA

next: anemia of inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Mechanism most contributory to anemia in px with CKD

A

Dec EPO and reduction in red cell survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

First line for severe aplastic anemia

A

HSCT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Only tx that offers a chance of cure for MDS

A

HSCT

However due to significant tx related mortality and morbidity that increases with recipient age, only small proportion undergo this

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The only symptoms that would differentiate polycthemia vera from other causes of erythrocytosis

A

Aquagenic pruritus
Erythromelalgia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

1st step in the evaluation of elevated hemoglonin

A

Measure RBC mass

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What would you consider when px has elevated rbc mass and low hb

A

Polycthemia vera

Confirm JAK2 mutation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Next step when px has elevated hb, rbc mass and elevated EPO

A

Measure arterial o2 sat

If low: diagnostic eval for heart or lung dse
if normal: ask if smoker or not.
If smoker: measure carboxyhemoglobin levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Next step when px has elevated hb, rbc mass and elevated EPO, NON smoker and has normal hemoglobinaffinity

A

Search for tumor as source of EPO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Maintaining hemoglobin and hematocrit in polycythemia vera

A

<=14 g/dL and <45% in men
<=12g/dL and <42% in women

1445
1242

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Tx for symptomatic splenomegaly in polycythemia vera

A

Ruxolitinib - a JAK 2 inhibitor

PEG IFN a is an alternative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

How does survival of px with essential thrombocytosis compare with general population

A

Same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Major hormone regulator of plt production

A

Thrombopeitin

synthesized primarily in the liver parenchymal cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Most common cause of NON iatrogenic thrombocytopenia

A

Infection

if iatrogenic –> medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

deficient protease in TTP

38
Q

What constitutes TTP pentad

A

CNS symptoms, fever, renal failure, MAHA, thrombocytopenia

39
Q

Mainstay of tx for TTP

A

TPE

therapeutic plasma exchange

40
Q

Primary tx for HUS

A

Supportive

41
Q

Target of antibodies that cause HIT

A

PF4 and heparin/ other GAG

42
Q

Risk of developing HIT is highest after exposure to heparin for ______ days

43
Q

Most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

von willebrand dse

44
Q

what constitues ISTH scoring for DIC

45
Q

central mechanism of DIC

A

uncontrolled generation of thrombin

46
Q

Butt cells with auer rods in PBS is seen in what condition

A

Acute promyelocytic leukemia

47
Q

Cases in which whole blood may be transfused

A

massive blood loss and coagulopathy
trauma casualties requiring massive transfusion
hemorrhagic shock
neonatal exchange transfusion

48
Q

Hemoglobin transfusion thresholds for the ff
hemodynamically stable
preexisting cardiovascular disease
acute coronary artery dse

A

hemodynamically stable <7 (except for px undergoing orthopedic/cardiac surgery)

preexisting cardiovascular disease <8

acute coronary artery dse <9-10

49
Q

Platelet transfusion thresholds for the ff:
Absence of fever or infection
With fever or infection
For surgery, with DIC or other invasive procedure
Neurosurg/ eye surgery

A

Absence of fever or infection <=5

With fever or infection <= 10-20

For surgery, with DIC or other invasive procedure <= 50

Neurosurg/ eye surgery <=80

50
Q

Indications for FFP transfusion

A

Multiple coag factor deficiencies or DIC
Single coag factor def when factor replacement is NOT available
Trauma casualties with >30% blood loss
SEVERE bleeding due to warfarin OR taking warfarin for emergent surgery

51
Q

Cause of febrile non hemolytic transfusion rxn

A

Anti HLA antibodies and cytokines released from leukocytes in non leukoreduced blood

52
Q

Cause of acute hemolytic transfusion rxn

A

preformed antibodies that lyse donor erythrocytes

53
Q

Cause of DELAYED hemolytic transfusion rxn

A

Sensitization to RBC alloantigens

54
Q

Cause of allergic rxns during blood transfusion

A

plasma proteins

55
Q

Cause of GVHD during blood transfusion

A

donor T lymphocytes that attack host HLA antigens

56
Q

What should be given in pregnant px with Rh neg blood transfused with Rh positive blood to prevent allosensitization

57
Q

Treatment for TRALI

A

supportive

may occur within 6 hrs although delayed cases may occur up to 72h later

58
Q

Recipient risk factors assoc with inc risk of TRALI

A

Smoking, chronic alcohol use
Shock
Liver and cancer surgery
Mech vent
positive fluid balance

59
Q

Definition of massive transfusion

A

Transfusion of 50% of the patient’s total blood volume over 3 hrs OR

> 5-10 units of RBC

60
Q

What diagnostic tests can be requested to assess for iron overload

A

Serum ferritin
MRI
Liver biopsy

61
Q

Alemtuzumab is a an anti CD ___

A

52

** marami akong alam. 52 ang alem ko

62
Q

Blinanutumab is a an anti CD ___

63
Q

Rituximab is a an anti CD ___

64
Q

Moxetumumab is a an anti CD ___

65
Q

Brentuximab is a an anti CD ___

A

30

bRENTuximab - tRENTa

66
Q

Mechanism of action of Bevacizumab

A

inhibits VEGF to block angiogenesis

67
Q

Mechanism of action of Denosumab

A

RANK ligand inhibitor

68
Q

Mechanism of action of Everolimus

A

mTOR inhibitor

69
Q

Mechanism of action of Venetoclax

A

inhibtis Bcl-2

70
Q

Cardioprotectant that may be given with doxorubicin

A

Dexrazoxane

71
Q

Most feared pulmonary complication of bleomycin

A

Pulmonary fibrosis

Earliest indicator of adverse effect is a dec in DLCO or coughing

72
Q

Dose of doxorubicin assoc with cardiomyopatht

A

> 550 mg/m2

73
Q

Dose of bleomycin that inc incidence of pulmo fibrosis

A

> 300 cumulative units

minimally responsive to glucocorticoids

74
Q

MOA of renal toxicity of methotrexate

A

from crystallization in renal tubules

75
Q

Mesna lessens toxicity of which chemo agent

A

Cyclophosphamide

76
Q

Treatment for acute promyelocytic leukemia

A

ATRA

assoc with t(15;17) chromosomal tanslocation

77
Q

Supportive tx of choice for nausea and vomiting for high riskagents

A

Serotonin antagonisis (eg. odansetron) and neurokinin 1 antagonists (aprepitant)

78
Q

Plerixafor blocks what receptor

79
Q

most commonly mutated oncogene in cancers

80
Q

Trisomy 21 inc or dec risk of AML?

81
Q

Genetic abnormalities when present will classify a patient to have AML regardless of marrow blast count %

A

t (15;17)
t (8;21)
in(16)
t (16;16)

otherwise, need blast count >=205

82
Q

Most impt prognostic factor that predict outcome of AML

A

Chromosome and molecular investigations

83
Q

Most common PE finding in CML

A

Splenomegaly

84
Q

Most common symptom of myeloma

A

Bone pain

affecting nearly 70% of px

85
Q

Criteria for initiation tx for CLL

86
Q

Single most powerful predictor of survival in myeloma

A

Serum beta 2 microglobulin

can also substitute for staging

87
Q

Criteria for diagnosis solitary plasmacytoma

A

> Biopsy-proven solitary lesion of bone or soft tissue with evidence of clonal plasma cells
Normal bone marrow with no evidence of clonal plasma cells
Normal skeletal survey and MRI (or CT) of spine and pelvis (except for the primary solitary lesion)
Absence of end-organ damage such as hypercalcemia, renal insufficiency, anemia, or bone lesions (CRAB) that can be attributed to a lymphoplasma cell proliferative
disorde

88
Q

Criteria for dx multiple myeloma

A

> Clonal bone marrow plasma cells or biopsy-proven bony or extramedullary plasmacytoma
and any one or more of the following myeloma-defining events:
1.) Evidence of one or more indicators of end-organ damage that can be attributed to the underlying plasma cell proliferative disorder, specifically:
a. Hypercalcemia: serum calcium >0.25 mmol/L (>1 mg/dL) higher than the upper limit of normal or >2.75 mmol/L (>11 mg/dL)
b. Renal insufficiency: creatinine clearance <40 mL/minb or serum creatinine >177 μmol/L (>2 mg/dL)
c. Anemia: hemoglobin value of >20 g/L below the lower limit of normal, or a hemoglobin value <100 g/L
d. Bone lesions: one or more osteolytic lesions on skeletal radiography, CT, or PET-CTc
e. Any one or more of the following biomarkers of malignancy:
* Clonal bone marrow plasma cell percentage
≥60%
* Involved: uninvolved serum free light chain ratio ≥100
* >1 focal lesion on MRI studies

89
Q

What class of drugs do bortezomib, carfilzomib and ixazomin belong to

A

Proteoseoe inhibitors

90
Q

Class of drug: Panobinostat

A

Histone deacetylase inhibitor

tx for myeloma

91
Q

Class of drug: Selinexor

A

Selective inhibitor of nuclear export (SINE)

tx for myeloma