Allergo-Immuno-Derma Flashcards

1
Q

Atopy is not a risk factor for anaphylaxis from ____ and ____

A

drug reactions or hymenoptera stings

Atopy is not generally thought to be a risk factor for anaphylaxis from drug reactions or Hymenoptera stings, but it is associated with radiocontrast sensitivity, exercise-induced anaphylaxis, idiopathic anaphylaxis, and allergy to foods or latex.

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2
Q

Dose of epinephrine for anaphylaxis

A

Epinephrine 0.3-0.5 ml of 1:1000 concentration IM

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3
Q

More favorable outcomes are seen in patients with anaphylaxis who are given epinephrine within the first ____ minutes

A

20

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4
Q

If with persistent hypotension (anaphylactic shock): IV infusion of ___ mL epinephrine, diluted ______ at 5- to 10-min intervals

A

2.5 mL epinephrine, diluted 1:10,000, at 5- to 10-min intervals

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5
Q

key effector cell in asthma and allergic rhinitis?

A

mast cells

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6
Q

How do you differentiate SJS vs TEN

A

Extent of surface area involved

SJS – total body surface area of blistering and eventual detachment is <10%
SJS/TEN overlap – 10–30% epidermal detachment
TEN – >30 epidermal detachment

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7
Q

Poor prognostic factors for SJS/TEN

A

Intestinal and upper respiratory tract involvement
older age
greater extent of epidermal detachment

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8
Q

most common variety of psoriasis

A

plaque type

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9
Q

most common cause of urticaria

A

idiopathic

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10
Q

Most important preventive strategy in px with prev hx of anaphylaxis

A

avoidance of trigger

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11
Q

Key pathway for ADR based on immune pathway

I
II
III
IVa
IVb
IVc
IVD

A

I - IgE
II - IgG mediated cytotoxicity
III- Immune complex
IVa- T cell mediated macrophage inflammation
IVb- T cell mediated eosinophil inflammation
IVc- T cell mediated Tcell inflammation
IVd- T cell mediated neutrophil inflammation

mnemonic: may MEeTiNg at 4pm
macrophage-eosino-t cell-neutro

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12
Q

Urticaria, angioedema and anaphylaxis are under what type of classification of adverse drug reaction

A

Type I

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13
Q

Drug induced hemolysis and thrombocytopenia are under what type of classification of adverse drug reaction

A

Type II

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14
Q

Vasculitis, Serum sickness, Drug induced lupus are under what type of classification of adverse drug reaction

A

Type III

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15
Q

TST and Contact dermatitis are under what type of classification of adverse drug reaction

A

Type IVA

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16
Q

DIHS and Morbiliform eruption are under what type of classification of adverse drug reaction

A

Type IVB

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17
Q

SJS and TEN and morbiliform eruption are under what type of classification of adverse drug reaction

A

Type IVC

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18
Q

AGEP is under what type of classification of adverse drug reaction

A

Type IVD

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19
Q

Most common presentation of anaphylaxis

A

urticarial eruption

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20
Q

Aspirin exacerbated respiratory illness has 3 clinical features which include

A

Asthma
Sinus dse with recurrent nasal polyps
Sensitivity to aspirin and other NSAIDs

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21
Q

When treatment center that lacks access to recombinant C1NH, bradykinin 2 receptor antagonist, kallikrein inhibitor, what could be given for acute attacks of hereditary angioedema?

A

FFP

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22
Q

Most potent APC of the immune system

A

dendritic cells

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23
Q

Which conditions may present with periungual telangiectasia as a pathognomonic sign?

A

scleroderma

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24
Q

% risk of atopic dermatitis for patients with both parents with AD

A

> 80%

One parent >50%

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25
Q

Most common site affected by seborrheic dermatitis

A

scalp

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26
Q

Number of weeks to classify urticaria and/or angioedema as chronic

A

> 6 weeks

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27
Q

Type of urticaria which presents in response to a sustained stimulus such as a shoulder strap or belt, running (feet), or manual labor (hands).

A

Pressure urticaria

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28
Q

Type of urticaria that is distinctive in that the pruritic wheals are of small size (1–2 mm) and are surrounded by a large area of erythema; attacks are precipitated by fever, a hot bath or shower, or exercise and are presumptively attributed to a rise in core body temperature.

A

Cholinergic urticaria

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29
Q

Angioedema without urticaria can be idiopathic or due to the generation of bradykinin in the setting of ______ deficiency that may be inborn as an autosomal dominant mutation or may be acquired through the appearance of an
autoantibody in the setting of malignancy or autoimmune disease

A

C1 inhibitor (C1INH)

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30
Q

Urticarial eruptions are distinctly pruritic, may involve any area ofthe body from the scalp to the soles of the feet, and appear in crops of _ h duration, with old lesions fading as new ones appear.

A

12- to 36-h

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31
Q

Urticarial lesions that last longer than 36 h, result in scarring, and are reported as painful and not pruritic warrant ____ to evaluate for cellular infiltration, nuclear debris, and fibrinoid necrosis of the venules consistent with urticarial vasculitis.

A

biopsy

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32
Q

antifibrinolytic agent that may be used for preoperative prophylaxis of hereditary angioedema but is contraindicated in patients with thrombotic tendencies or arterial atherosclerosis.

A

ε-aminocaproic acid

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33
Q

most effective drugs available for the relief of established rhinitis, seasonal or perennial, and are effective in relieving nasal congestion as well as ocular symptoms

A

Intranasal high-potency glucocorticoids

Their most frequent side effect is local irritation, with fungal overgrowth being a rare occurrence.

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34
Q

In allergic rhinitis, the efficacy of SLIT is comparable to SCIT but only for the three allergen formulations currently available which include what?

A

dust mite, timothy/northern grasses, and short ragweed

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35
Q

most common presentation of anaphylaxis (>90% of cases)

A

Cutaneous manifestation

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36
Q

Example of delayed anaphylatic reaction

A

anaphylaxis to meats in alpha-gal–sensitized patients.

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37
Q

In anaphylaxis, The most obvious serum biomarker to assay,_____ , has an extremely short half-life with a measurable time-window that expires <1 h from the onset of anaphylaxis.

A

histamine

38
Q

In anaphylaxis, A more practical and useful biomarker is ______ , which peaks 60–90 min after the onset of anaphylaxis and can be measured as long as 5 h after the onset of anaphylaxis

A

serum tryptase

39
Q

it is recommended that patients who suffer from anaphylaxis be placed in the ____ position before receiving epinephrine.

A

Supine

an upright or sitting posture may lead to “empty ventricle syndrome” in which there is insufficient venous return to the heart from sudden-onset hypotension secondary to intravascular volume depletion. Epinephrine can further accelerate empty ventricle syndrome due to its chronotropic effects.

40
Q

80% of children with _____ allergy remain sensitive for life

A

peanut

While most allergy to egg, milk, soy, and/or
wheat resolves spontaneously during childhood

41
Q

Most forms of the disease (mastocytosis) are characterized by somatic gain-of-function mutations in the _____ gene.

A

stem cell factor receptor (KIT)

42
Q

Systemic mastocytosis (SM) refers to involvement of a noncutaneous site usually _____

A

bone marrow

43
Q

Type of systemic mastocytosis that accounts for the majority of adult patients.

A

Indolent systemic mastocytosis

44
Q

Smoldering systemic mastocytosis (SSM) is characterized by high mast cell burden as evidenced by a bone marrow infiltration of > ___ % and a baseline serum tryptase > ___ ng/mL (B findings), but absence of systemic mastocytosis associated with clonal hematologic non–mast cell lineage disease (SM-AHNMD) or aggressive systemic mastocytosis (ASM)

A

> 30%
200 ng/mL

45
Q

the rarest form of systemic mastocytosis and is invariably fatal at present

A

Mast cell leukemia (MCL)

46
Q

The cutaneous lesions of Maculopapular cutaneous mastocytosis (MPCM) are reddish-brown macules, papules, or plaques that respond to trauma with urtication and erythema AKA ____ sign

A

Darier’s sign

47
Q

Serum levels of this aracidonic acid dervided product diretcly correlates with anaphylaxis severity

A

Platelet activating factor

48
Q

Mediator of anaphylaxis that causes hypotension and tachycardia when released in high concentration

A

Histamine

49
Q

Type of psoriasis frequently after URTI
with B-hemolytic streptococci

A

Eruptive/Guttate psoariasis

also most common in children

50
Q

What is the tx of choice for non pregnant px with pustular psoariasis

A

oral retinoid

51
Q

why should you avoid oral glucocorticoids in severe widespread psoriasis

A

risk of life- threatening pustular psoriasis when therapy is discontinued

52
Q

4 key elements of pathogenesis of acne vulgaris

A
  1. Follicular epidermal hyperprofliferation
  2. Excess sebum production
  3. Inflammation
  4. Presence and activity of Propionibacterium acnes
53
Q

Most common form of pemphigus

A

pemphigus vulgaris

54
Q

Autoantibodies for pemphigus vulgaris

A

desmoglein 3 and 1

55
Q

Prevalent allele in bullous pemphigoid

A

MHC Class II allele HLA-DQβ1*0301

56
Q

Autoantibodies for bullous pemphigoid

A

hemidesmosomes

57
Q

Type of urticaria precipitated by fever, a hot bath or shower, or exercise

A

Cholinergic

58
Q

contraindication for immunotherapy for allergy

A

significant cardiovascular disease or unstable asthma

59
Q

Appropriate regimen for radiocontrast allergy prophylaxis

A

Prednisone 40mg/tablet, 1 tablet at 13hrs, 6 hrs, 1hr prior to CT scan.

*some sources say 50 mg 1 tab at 13 hrs , 7 hrs, 1 hr prior

60
Q

What antibody is protective against scleroderma renal crisis

A

Anti U1RNP

61
Q

This syndrome is characterized by recurrent bacterial infections, eczema and bleeding from thrombocytopenia

A

Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome

62
Q

What should be given to patients with systemic mastocytosis with abdominal pain and diarrhea?

A

oral cromolyn sodium

63
Q

What should be given to patients with systemic mastocytosis with ssx of malabsorption

A

systemic steroids

64
Q

most potent known vasoconstrictor

A

LTD4

65
Q

lipid mediator responsible for leukocyte-endothelial cell adhesion and subsequent directed migration

A

LTB4

66
Q

lipid mediator responsible for vascular leak and mediates the recruitment of eosinophils to the bronchial mucosa

A

LTE4

vascular leeeeeak
eeeeosinophils

67
Q

How do you differentiate urticaria vs angioedema

A
68
Q

known risk factors for ACE I related angioedema

A

Black race, organ transplant, female gender, smoking, increasing age

69
Q

Heridary angioedema is aFully penetrant, autosomal dominant disease due to a mutation in the _____ gene (C1INH)

A

SERPING1

70
Q

Bradykinin-mediated angioedema, whether caused by ACE inhibitors or by C1INH deficiency, is noteworthy for these characteristics (3)

A

> conspicuous absence of concomitant urticaria or pruritus
frequent involvement of the gastrointestinal tract
duration of symptoms >24 h

71
Q

Recommended diagnostic tests for hereditary angioedema/ urticaria

A

CBC with assessment for eosinophilia, ESR and TSH level are recommended by consensus guidelines

72
Q

Other tx options for urticaria unresponsive to systemic glucocorticoids

A

Hydroxychloroquine, Dapsone, Colchicine
-Added to the regimen after hydroxyzine and before or along with systemic glucocorticoids

Cyclosporine
-Chronic idiopathic urticaria that is severe and poorly responsive to other modalities and/or where glucocorticoids are a requirement

73
Q

Known predisposing risk factors for allergic rhinitis

A

Female sex, particulate air pollution exposure, maternal tobacco smoking

74
Q

What constitues Aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (AERD), also known as Samter’s Triad

A

triad of asthma, rhinosinusitis, respiratory reactions to COX-1 inhibitors

75
Q

Contraindications for immunotherapy for allergic rhinitis

A

significant cardiovascular disease or unstable asthma

76
Q

Atopic triad

A

Bronchial asthma, allergic rhinitis, atopic dermatitis

77
Q

Major criteria for atopic dermatitis

A

CHIP

Chronicity
History of atopy
Involvement of face and flexures
Pruritus

78
Q

Mutation associated with atopic dermatitis

A

filaggrin mutation

79
Q

Difference between irritant vs allergic contact dermatitis

A

See table

Allergic contact dermatitis also goes beyond area of exposure

80
Q

Common sites of involvement of psoriasis

A

Scalp, elbows, knees, hands, feet,
trunk and nails

81
Q

Phenomenon in psoriasis wherein Traumatized areas develop lesions

A

Koebner phenomenon

82
Q

Sign in psoriasis wherein there is Bleeding after scale is removed

A

Auspitz sign

83
Q

Organisms involved in dermatophytosis

A

Trichophyton
Microsporum spp
Epidermophyton

84
Q

Treatment for pemphigus vulgaris

A

Treatment: Systemic glucorticoids alone/ in
combination with other immunosuppressive
agents

rituximab; azathioprine, mycophenolate mofetil,
or cyclophosphamide

Tx resistant disease: Plasmapheresis and/ IVIg

85
Q

Autoantibodies associated with bullous pemphigoid

A

hemidesmosomal proteins BPAG 1,2

86
Q

Treatment for bullous pemphigus

A

Local disease: Potent topical lucocorticoids

Extensive disease: Systemic Glucocorticoids alone/ with other adjuncts

Doxycycline, azathioprine, Mycophenolate mofetil, Rituximab

87
Q

Which is nikolsky positive Pemphigus vulgaris or bullous pemphigoid?

A

pemphigus vulgaris

88
Q

Risk factors for adverse drug reactions

A

Elderly patient
Patients with autoimmune disease
Hematopoietic stem cell transplant recipient
With acute EBV and HIV infection

89
Q

Most common type of drueg eruptions

A

morbiliform eruptions

90
Q

Common culprit drugs for drug induced hypersensitivity syndrome

A

Anticonvulsants, sulfonamides, allopurinol, minocycline

91
Q

Color of tinea capitis and Microsporum canis under Wood’s lamp

A

Yellow fluorescence

92
Q
A