Hematology Flashcards

1
Q

At what temperature is PT best performed?

A

37°C

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2
Q

Identify what RBC anomaly:

Red cells that look like shooting targets with a central bullseye and a darker outer edge.

A

Codocytes/Target cells

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3
Q

Maturational sequence of thrombocyte:

A

Megakaryoblast - Promegakaryocyte - Megakaryocyte - Thrombocyte

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4
Q

Associated with abetalipopreteinemia

A

Acanthocytes

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5
Q

Thrombin is what factor

A

Factor IIa

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6
Q

Factor II

A

Prothrombin, Prethrombin, Thrombogen

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7
Q

Factor I

A

Fibrinogen, Thrombin substrate

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8
Q

Factor VII

A

Stable factor, Proconvertin, Autoprothrombin I, Serum Prothrombin Conversion Accelerator

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9
Q

Factor X

A

Stuart-prower factor, Autoprothrombin III

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10
Q

FDP is measured using

A

D-dimer

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11
Q

D-dimer test could be used to diagnose:

A

DIC, DVC, Pulmonary embolism

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12
Q

When should you remove the tourniquet?

A

Not more than 1 minute

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13
Q

The tourniquet should be ____ inches or ____ cm above the puncture site.

A

3-4 inches; 8-10 cm

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14
Q

In what organ does platelet sequestration occur?

A

spleen

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15
Q

___ of total population of platelets are sequestered in the spleen

A

1/3

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16
Q

Size of the spleen is ____ to the number of platelets, and ____ to platelet count.

A

directly proportional; inversely proportional

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17
Q

Red marrow exists in all of the following, except:

A

Distal ends of long bones

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18
Q

Red marrow to yellow marrow ratio

A

1:1; 50:50

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19
Q

Yellow marrow is composed of ____, _______, & _______

A

Adipocytes, mesenchymal, macrophages

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20
Q

What happens when the medtech uses a needle with a larger bore than required?

A

Hematoma formation

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21
Q

Common gauge of needle in Adults

A

g21

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22
Q

Major production of EPO occurs in:

A

Kidneys

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23
Q

Production of platelets:

A

Thrombopoiesis

could also be thrombocytopoiesis

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24
Q

A child accidentally ingested rat poison. which of the ff tests should be performed to test the effect of the poison on the child’s coagulation mechanism?

A

PT

Note: rat poison: coumadin: warfarin-like

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25
Q

How will you differentiate Leukemoid reaction from CML?

A

LAP (Leukocyte Alkaline Phosphatase) score

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26
Q

LAP score method of counting

A

Kaplow count

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27
Q

What is being described?

Count 100 neutrophils and rate 0-4 depending on its staining; differentiate as CML (Low activity) or Leukemoid reaction (High activity)

A

LAP score

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28
Q

Microscopic method for sickle cells

A

Sodium Metabisulfite

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29
Q

Positive reaction for sodium metabisulfite

A

sickling

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30
Q

Positive reaction for sodium dithonite

A

Turbidity: black lines

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31
Q

Both myeloid and monocytic cells are present to the extent of at least 20% of the total leukocytes:

A

M4

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32
Q

Normal value of APTT

A

25-35 seconds; < or = 32

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33
Q

A clot retraction test is

A

A reflection of the quantity and quality of platelets and other factors

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34
Q

Pelger-Huet Anomaly: Bilobed or Hyposegmented?

A

Both

If no both answer Bilobed

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35
Q

Identify the Plasmodium Species:

Gametocytes are crescent, banana or sausage shaped. The chromatin is in a single mass (macrogamete) or diffuse (microgamete).

A

P. falciparum

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36
Q

P. falciparum causes ____ malaria

A

severe

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37
Q

What Plasmodium species:

Causes relapsing fever; resides in the liver

A

vivax

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38
Q

What Plasmodium species:

Only affects young RBCs

A

P. vivax & P. ovale

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39
Q

What Plasmodium species:

Only affects old or mature RBCs

A

P. malariae

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40
Q

What Plasmodium species:

  • Affects all types of RBCs.
    Invades other organs
  • Invade other organs
  • cerebral malaria
  • black urine
A

P. falciparum

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41
Q

Test for PNH

A

Sucrose Hemolysis

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42
Q

Sugar water screening test indicates ___% lysis to be considered as PNH

A

5

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43
Q

Confirmatory tests for PNH

A

Sucrose hemolysis & Acid serum test

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44
Q

Other name for Acid serum test

A

Ham’s acidified test

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45
Q

Ham’s acidified Test

pH:
Temperature & time:
Sample:

A

pH: 6.5
Temperature & time : 37 for 1 hour
Sample: Whole blood difribinated

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46
Q

Gold standard for PNH

A

Flow cytometry (FLAER)

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47
Q

Test for Intrinsic and Common factors

A

APTT

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48
Q

Test for Extrinsic and common factors

A

PT

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49
Q

What factor deficiency?

  • (+) bleeding
  • (N) other parameters
A

Factor XIII deficiency

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50
Q

Test for factor XIII deficiency

A

Duckert’s test

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51
Q

Red marrow to yellow marrow

A

retrogression

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52
Q

Sites of active marrow in adults

A

Ribs
Skull, sternum
Vertebrae
Proximal portion of long bones & Pelvis

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53
Q

Specific site for EPO production in adults

A

Renal cortex peritubular cells

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54
Q

Major site for EPO production in fetus

A

liver

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55
Q

Aside from the kidneys, EPO can also be made by the ___, ____, ____, _____

A

spleen, liver, bone marrow, lungs, & brain

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56
Q

Regulates EPO

A

PO2

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57
Q

Solution for PCV

A

Therapeutic phlebotomy

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58
Q

Difference between primary and secondary PCV

A

1° = dec to normal EPO
2° = Increased EPO

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59
Q

A single megakaryocyte could form ____ to ___ platelets

A

2000 to 4000 platelets

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60
Q

10 fold increase of platelets

A

Immune thrombocytopenic pupura

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61
Q

Average size human: 10^8 megakaryocytes producing 10^11 platelets per day and a total turnover rate of __ to __ days.

A

8 to 9

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62
Q

___ drug inhibits Vitamin K epoxide reductase complex

A

warfarin

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63
Q

Vitamin K dependent factors and prothrombin group

A

9, 10, 7, 2

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64
Q

Prothrombin group is not consumed during clot formation except factor __

A

Factor 2

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65
Q

Contact group.

  • Not consumed in clot formation
A

HK, PK, XII, XI

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66
Q

Fibrinogen group

A

1, 5, 8, 13

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67
Q

Sample for Sodium metabisulfite

A

Fresh blood

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68
Q

Reagents for Sodium metabisulfite test

A

0.2 g of SM in 10 mL of distilled water

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69
Q

FAB classification of AML > or = __% blasts

A

20%

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70
Q

Automated specimen and reagent volume:

APTT:
PT:

A

APTT: 0.2 mL plasma & 0.2 mLCaCl2
PT: 0.1 mL plasma & 0.2 thromboplastin reagent

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71
Q

Alder-reilly anomally

A

Abnormal granulation of metachromatic granules in WBC

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72
Q

Test for platelet quality

A

Bleeding time

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73
Q

If a pediatric preoperative patient has a family history of bleeding but has never had a bleeding episode herself, what test should be included in a coagulation profile in addition to the PT, APTT, and platelet count?

A

Bleeding time

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74
Q

If a blood smear is too long, the problem can be resolved by:

A

Increasing the angle of the pusher slide

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75
Q

Most common factor deficiency

A

Hemophilia A or factor 8 deficiency

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76
Q

Factor V

A

Labile factor, Accelerator Globulin (Ac globulin), Proaccelerin

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77
Q

In megaloblastic anemia, the typical erythrocytic indices are:

A

MCV inc, MCH inc, and MCHC normal

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78
Q

MCV of < 80 fL causes what anemias?

A

TAILS (Microcytic anemia)

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79
Q

What anticoagulant should be used in cases of platelet satellitism?

A

Citrate

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80
Q

Citrate to blood ratio

A

1:4

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81
Q

Correction factor for platelet satellitism

A

1.1

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82
Q

Example of closed wound

A

hematoma

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83
Q

Accumulation of blood in the tissue

A

Hematoma

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84
Q

Petechia: __ mm

A

1-3 mm

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85
Q

Purpura: __ mm

A

> or = 3 mm

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86
Q

Ecchymosis __cm

A

> or = 1 to 2 cm

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87
Q

What is abnormal in dysfribinogenemia?

a. PT
b. APTT
c. TT
d. Fibrinogen level

A

a, b, c

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88
Q

First step in cleanup when a blood specimen is spilled on a laboratory bench or floor area?

A

Absorb blood with disposable towels

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89
Q

As a blood cell matures, the N:C ratio:

A

decreases

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90
Q

Normal range for reticulocytes in adults:

A

0.5 to 1.5%

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91
Q

The average diameter of a normal erythrocyte:

A

7.2 um

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92
Q

Increased amounts of 2,3 DPG___ the O2 affinity of the Hb molecule.

A

Decreases

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93
Q

Variation in size

A

anisocytosis

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94
Q

variation in shape

A

poikilocytosis

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95
Q

Stages of neutrophilic granulocyte development

A

Myeloblast
promyelocyte
myelocyte
metamyelocyte
band & segmented neutrophil

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96
Q

On the basis of the ff data, calculate the absolute value of the segmented neutrophils. Total leukocyte count = 12X10^9; percentage of segmented neutrophils on the differential count = 80%. the absolute segmented neutrophil value is:

A

9.6x10^9L

Solution: 12x0.8

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97
Q

Niemann Pick Cells are what type of cells?

A

Macrophage

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98
Q

Low 2,3 DPG, H+, PCO2, T
Love O2

A

Shift to the Left

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99
Q

Rise in 2,3 DPG, H+, PCO2, T
Reject O2

A

Shift to the Right

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100
Q

Deficiency in B-glucocerobroside

A

Gaucher’s disease

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101
Q

Appearance of lysosomes are onion skin or crumpled paper

A

Gaucher’s disease

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102
Q

Gargoylism

A

Hunter’s syndrome

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103
Q

Foamy cells

A

Neimann-Pick disease

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104
Q

Beta-Hexosaminadase A deficiency

A

Tay-Sach’s diseas

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105
Q

A patient with a severe decrease in Factor X activity would demonstrate normal:

A

TT and BT

TT - fibrinogen
BT - Platelet function

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106
Q

Th function of thromboplastin in PT test is to provide _____ to the assay:

A

Phospholipoprotein

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107
Q

Which of the following parameters can be abnormal in classic vWD type 1?

A

BT (best answer)
PT (would be N° or Decreased)

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108
Q

Which parameters are calculated rather than directly measured?

a. HCT & RDW
b. RBC & WBC count
c. WBC count & HCT
d. Platelet count and PCV

A

A

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109
Q

What source of of error will have greatest effect on PCV (hematocrit)

a. Incorrect dilution of blood & diluent
b. Hemolysis of whole blood specimen
c. excessive anticoagulant will produce shrinkage of cells

A

C

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110
Q

Excess anticoagulant may cause ___ in HCT

A

False decrease

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111
Q

Insufficient centrifugation will cause ____ in HCT

A

False increase

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112
Q

Major application of flow cell cytometry:

a. determining cell size and granularity
b. sorting of cells and cellular identification using monoclonal Abs
c. treating cancer cells and identifying specific virus types
d. Counting leukocytes and platelets

A

B

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113
Q

Determines cell size and granularity

A

scatterplot

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114
Q

Passage of the cell in a single file in front of a LASER

A

Flow cell cytometry

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115
Q

In an erythrocyte histogram, the erythrocytes that are larger than normal will be the ___ of the normal distribution curve.

A

Right

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116
Q

Test most affected when there is excess anticoagulant:

a. RBC count
b. HGB
c. HCT
d. ESR

A

C

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117
Q

Poikilocyte with membrane folded over:

A

HGB C

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118
Q

Azurophilic granules are produced in what stage?

a. promyelocyte
b. myelocyte
c. metamyelocyte
d. band

A

A

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119
Q

Product of CLP

a. Megakaryocyte
b. T lymphocyte
c. HCT
d. granulocyte

A

T lymphocyte

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120
Q

Which of the ff morphologic changes occurs during normal blood cell maturation?

a. Inc. in cell diameter
b. development of cytoplasm basophilia
c. condensation of nuclear chromatin
d. appearance of nucleoli

A

C

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121
Q

An acquired platelet disorder:

a. Facto V deficiency
b. vWD
c. BSS
d. Uremia

A

D

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122
Q

Increased BUN and Crea
Normal PT and APTT
Increased BT

A

Uremia

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123
Q

Source of light in AccuVein

A

Near Infrared

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124
Q

Patient has normal PT, PTT, and TT

A

Factor XIII deficiency

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125
Q

Which organ is not hematopietic?

A

Kidneys

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126
Q

Hematopoietic organs include:

A

BM, Liver, & yolksac

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127
Q

RDW and MCV are quantitative description of red cells. if both of these are increased, ___ is possible.

a. megaloblastic anemia
b. acute aplastic anemia
c. Iron deficiency anemia
d. NOTA

A

A

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128
Q

Scatterplot cell population:

  • Forward plot:
A

cell size or diameter

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129
Q

Scatterplot cell population:

  • Side scatter:
A

cell granularity & cell complexity

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130
Q

Electronic impedance:

A

(+) resistance of electric charge = larger pulse of cell population

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131
Q

Fibrous tissue sources:

A

Fibroblast seen in connective tissues

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132
Q

APTT normal value for people under therapy:

A

1.5 - 2.5X

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133
Q

Snake bite

A

DIC

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134
Q

RBC size

A

6-8 um

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135
Q

Slide smear spread angle

A

< 30 - 45°

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136
Q

Macrocytes effect to ESR

A

Increased

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137
Q

Too much acids in slide preparation:

A

reddish cells

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138
Q

Coumadin

A

Vitamin K inhibitor

_ also affects protein C and protein S

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139
Q

What is deficient in Howell jolly bodies:

A

Bitamin B12 & Vitamin B9

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140
Q

Which of the ff is not STORED by the liver?

a. Vit A
b. Vit D
c. Vit C
d. Vit K

A

C
- vitamin C is excreted

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141
Q

ESR is increased. what is the cause of the increase with WBC as the basis?

A

Leukemia

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142
Q

Hyperfibrinogenemia _____ESR:

A

Increased

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143
Q

Which drug can cause AIHA:

A

Methyldopa

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144
Q

ESR is decreased. What is the cause of the decrease with WBC as the basis?

A

Leukocytosis

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145
Q

Precursor of Kallikrein

A

Prekallikrein, Fletcher factor

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146
Q

Aplastic anemia antibiotic:

A

Chloramphenicol

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147
Q

Normal newborn hemoglobin:

A

16.5 g/dL

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148
Q

Normal Hemoglobin in adults:

A

12-15 g/dL

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149
Q

Hemoglobin value as basis for blood bank transfusion:

A

< 7g/dL

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150
Q

Hemglobin value as basis for blood bank transfusion in patients with heart failure:

A

< 10 g /dL

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151
Q

Monocyte cytoplasm color with wright stain

A

Bluish gray

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152
Q

A small hemorrhagic spot but larger than petechiae characterized by a rounded or irregular blue or purplish patch; also known as bruise and is found in skin and mucus membrane.

A

Echymosis

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153
Q

Lymphocyte cytoplasm color in Wright stain

A

pale blue

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154
Q

RBCs color in Wright stain

A

Salmon Pink

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155
Q

Acute leukemia type of anemia

A

Normocytic, normochromic

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156
Q

> 11x10^9 WBCs

A

Leukocytosis

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157
Q

Tertiary granules appear during what stages?

A

Metamyelocyte/Band

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158
Q

It is referred to as gamma heavy chain disease

A

Franklin’s disease, Frank anemia

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159
Q

Serine proteases

A

2, 7, 9, 10, 11, 12, PK

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160
Q

Cofactors

A

3, 5, 8, HMWK

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161
Q

Intrinsic factors

A

8, 9, 11, 12

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162
Q

Extrinsic factors

A

3, 7

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163
Q

Intrinsic factors

A

8, 9, 11, 12, PK, HMWK

164
Q

Common pathway factors

A

1, 2, 5, 10

165
Q

Fresh plasma

A

No 3 & 4

166
Q

Aged plasma

A

No 5 & 8

167
Q

Aged serum

A

No 1, 2, 5, 8, &13

168
Q

Adsorbed plasma

A

No 2, 7, 9, & 10

169
Q

Factor 5 deficiency

A

Parahemophilia

170
Q

Giant Platelet syndrome

A

BSS

171
Q

Drabkin’s reagent wavelength

A

540 nm

172
Q

Carboxyhemoglobin wavelength and color

A

576 nm
cherry red color

173
Q

Sulfhemoglobin wavelength and color

A

618 nm
Mauve lavender

174
Q

Methemoglobin wavelength and color

A

630 nm
chocolate brown

175
Q

Capillary tube length and bore:

A

7 to 7.5 cm (70 to 75 mm) long, 1 mm bore (1.2 mm)

176
Q

Wintrobe tube

A

11.5 cm lng, 3 mm bore

177
Q

Westergren tube

A

30 cm long, 2.5 mm bore

178
Q

The maintenance of high intracellular potassium level is governed by the ____.

A

sodium-Potassium pump

179
Q

Cyclooxygenase is inhibited by:

A

Aspirin, specifically NSAID

180
Q

Last stage in RBC series capable of mitosis:

A

Rubricyte, 3rd stage

181
Q

Last stage in WBC series capable of mitosis:

A

Myelocyte

182
Q

Last nucleated stage (RBCs)

A

Metarubricyte, Orthochromatophilic erythrocyte

183
Q

What is the solid tumor counterpart of stem cell leukemia?

A

Undifferentiated lymphoma

184
Q

Erythrocyte morphology abnormality: marked

A

4+

185
Q

BD transfer needle

A

18

186
Q

An RES component that removes RBC inclusions without lysing it.

A

Spleen

187
Q

M3 usually manifests this coag problem

A

DIC

188
Q

pediatric needle gauge

A

23

189
Q

Autosplenectomy is common in

A

sickle cell anemia

190
Q

Computation:
corrected Reticulocyte count:

A

(% retic count x HCT)/45

191
Q

Computation:
corrected WBC count:

A

(uncorrected WBC count x 100)/(100+NRBCs per 100 WBCs)

192
Q

Function of eosinophil storage vesicles

A

carry protein from secondary granules to be release to the ECF

193
Q

Clotting factor with “Fitzgerald factor” as another name

A

HMWK

194
Q

Result of fibrinogen deficiency in clot test/coagulation studies

A

Increased PT, APTT
Normal TT
Decreased Fibrinogen

195
Q

Fibrin clot electromechanical method

A

Fibrometers

196
Q

Carboxyhgb and Methgb

A

Incapable for O2 transport

197
Q

Helmet cells with horn-like projections

A

Keratocytes

198
Q

Calculate the MCHC

A

(Hgbx100)/HCT

unit %

199
Q

Characteristic RBC in Primary myelofibrosis

A

Dacrayocytes

200
Q

What is the primary inhibitor of fibrinolytic system?

A

A2-antiplasmin

201
Q

SCD anemia

A

normocytic, normochromic

202
Q

What is the major leukocyte in aplastic anemia? BM?

A

Lymhocytes

203
Q

Result of facto X deficiency in clote test/coagulation studies?

A

Increased PT, APTT,
Normal TT

204
Q

Embryonic hemoglobins

A

Gower I
Gower II
Portland I

205
Q

Miller disk is utilized for

A

reticulocytes

206
Q

nRBCs are counted in

A

WBC chambers

207
Q

smallest platelets

A

Wiskot-Aldrich syndrome

208
Q

Blood cell disorder with a low platelet count and cytoplasmic inclusions with granules that look like dohle bodies

A

May Hegglin Anomaly

209
Q

CML negative for philadelphia chromosome

A

Poor prognosis

210
Q

Better prognosis

A

AML

211
Q

TRAP (Tartrate Resistant Acid Phosphatase) hallmark

A

Hairy Cell Leukemia

212
Q

Not affected by falsely elevated HCT

A

MCH

213
Q

A cell seen normally in the peripheral blood and is considered as the youngest type regularly seen in smears

A

band cells

214
Q

Nucleated RBCs seen in smears is

A

accelerated RBC production

215
Q

A black line is used for this Hgb S

A

Sodium dithionate test

216
Q

Cell count

A

(Cell count x DF)/(Area x depth)

217
Q

Preferred anticoagulant for ESR

A

EDTA/ Na citrate (Black)

218
Q

Not stained by Sudan Black B

A

Lymphocytes

219
Q

G6PD deficiency is characterized by

A

Bite cells/Heinz bodies

220
Q

The only unmeasured hemoglobin in Cyanmeth.

A

Sulfhemoglobin

221
Q

Primary or nonspecific granules truly appear on this stage:

A

Promyelocyte

222
Q

vasoconstriction is under:

A

Primary hemostasis

223
Q

Length of slide covered in PBS

A

2/3; 3/4

224
Q

Shift to the left includes:

A

Immature cells

225
Q

It shows a problem in platelet adhesion due to mutations to platelet GP IB or GP IX

A

BSS

226
Q

PPE required in strict isolation

A

Gown, mask, gloves

227
Q

Smudge cells, soccer-ball, clover leaf (reider cells)

A

CLL

228
Q

Smudge cells in ISBB could be due to

A

too much force when spreading
- add albumin

229
Q

Rule of 3

A

Only applicable for normocytic normochromic results

230
Q

Rule of 3 formula

A

RBC x 3 = HGB +/- 0.5
HGB x 3 = HCT +/- 3

231
Q

WBC with bilobed nucleus and large granules that does not obstruct the nucleus.

A

Pelger-Huet

232
Q

Target INR/recommended INR range for treatment of deep venous thrombosis.

A

2-3, warfarin therapy

233
Q

INR of people with mechanical heart valve

A

2.5-3.5

234
Q

A cutaneous T cell lymphoma characterized by peripheral lymphadenopathy, exfoliative erythroderma.

A

Sezary syndrome

235
Q

First RBC stage that becomes vividly pink (cytoplasm)

A

Polychromatophilic or Rubricyte

236
Q

_____ is characterized by macrophages with starry sky pattern under low power seen with numerous apoptotic debris

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

237
Q

Condition with thin flattened and concave fingernails; seen in IDA

A

Koilonychial

symptom: Pica

238
Q

Factor deficiency in Ashkenazi jews

A

Rosenthal syndrome, factor XI deficiency

239
Q

Pattern in Rosenthal:
Type of bleeding:
Factor deficiencies that may show such pattern:

A

Pattern in Rosenthal: Increased APTT, Normal PT and TT
Type of bleeding: mild bleeding
Factor deficiencies that may show such pattern: 7 & 9

240
Q

Hemoglobinopathy versus thalassemia:

A

Hemo: qualitative problem
Thal: quantitative problem

241
Q

Platelet phospholipids (APAS) are inhibited by:

A

Lupus AC

242
Q

Megaloblastic anemia description

A

Macrocytic chromic

243
Q

CALLA marker

A

CD10

244
Q

Tube for microhematocrit

A

7 cm, 1 mm/ 1-2 mm

245
Q

Found in infections, poisoning, burns, and chemotherapy and are decribed as RER with RNA with localized cytoplasmic maturation.

A

Dohle bodies

246
Q

Aka stress platelets

A

Reticulated platelets

> 12-14 platelets

247
Q

what parameter can’t differentiate IDa from ACD?

A

TSAT decreased

248
Q

Provides a cytoskeleton to maintain platelet shape and a contractile system

A

Sol-gel zone

249
Q

Sol-gel zone maintains platelet shape through____

A

microtubules, actomyosin

250
Q

Flow cytometry includes:

a. electronics
b. fluidics
c. optics
d. computer

A

a, b, c, & d

251
Q

Not a normal embryonic hemoglobin

A

Portland 2

252
Q

WBC correction is necessary because

A

False increase

253
Q

A thin, flat cell with hemoglobin at periphery and increased central pallor showing a characteristic hypochromic cell

A

Ellipytocyte, pencil, cigar-shaped

254
Q

Patient’s battery of Test

Lipid Profile
Liver Profile
CBC
PT & APTT

What is the correct order of draw?

A

Light blue
Red
Lavender

255
Q

Nodular lymphocyte-predominant hodgkin cell

A

Popcorn cell

256
Q

Adult population neutrophil differential count range.

A

40-70%

257
Q

A second x chromosome seen in females

A

Barr bodies/ drumstick bodies

258
Q

Lab findings in Anemia of chronic disease

A

Decreased TIBC, serum iron, and TSAT

259
Q

If RBCs are excessively lysed, a ___ is possible.

A

Negative instrumental error

260
Q

Needle length in routine phlebotomy

A

1-1.5 inches

261
Q

Coarse azurophilic MPS granules are seen in all leukocytes and more commonly in myelocytic series.

A

Alder-Rey anomaly

262
Q

A cell that is enucleated 1/ central pallor

A

discocytes

263
Q

This method is a key way of initial classification and a reliable assessment or measure of effective RBC production.

A

RPI

264
Q

What is the usual marker for hematopoietic stem cells?

A

CD34

265
Q

Normal variants of hemoglobin

A

A1, A2, F

266
Q

A patient with PCV will have a ____ RP and APTT

A

Falsely increased

267
Q

Macrohematocrit: Centrifuge at 2000 to 2300 g for ___ minutes

Microhematocrit: centrifuge at 10,000 to 15,000 g for __ minutes

A

Macrohematocrit: Centrifuge at 2000 to 2300 g for 30 minutes

Microhematocrit: centrifuge at 10,000 to 15,000 g for 5 minutes

268
Q

NK cell CD markers

A

CD16/CD56

269
Q

A normal (wedge) blood smear should demonstrate approximately _____ cells (platelets) per 100x field.

A

7 to 21

270
Q

Platelet estimate formula:

A

(Ave. no of platelets X total RBC count)/200 RBCs per field

271
Q

Platelet estimate reporting:

0 to 49,000/uL:
50,000 to 99,000/uL:
100,000 to 149,000/uL:
150,000 to 199,000/uL:
200,000 to 400,000/uL:
401,000 to 599,000/uL:
600,000 to 800,000/uL:
Above 800,000/uL:

A

0 to 49,000/uL: Marked decrease
50,000 to 99,000/uL: Moderate decrease
100,000 to 149,000/uL: slight decrease
150,000 to 199,000/uL: Low normal
200,000 to 400,000/uL: Normal
401,000 to 599,000/uL: slight increase
600,000 to 800,000/uL: Moderate Increase
Above 800,000/uL: Marked increase

272
Q

Sezary cells are present in ____, _____, & ____.

A

Skin, lymphnodes, Peripheral blood

273
Q

ALP is part o the neutrophil’s _____

A

Secretory granules

274
Q

Next test for normocytic anemia:

a. Indices
b. Hemoglobin
c. absolute reticulocyte count

A

a, b, c

275
Q

60% leukocytes is normal in ______.

A

Children (6M - 2 yrs old)

276
Q

A surgical connection between two structures, it usually means a connection that is created between tubular structures, such as blood vessels or loops of intestines.

A

Anastomosis

277
Q

Fibrinolysis screening test

A

Euglobin clot lysis

278
Q

Duration of myelocyte to metamyelocyte

A

4.3 days

279
Q

Disease of connective tissue and coagulation factor deficiency

A

vWF disease

280
Q

Source of energy for platelets

A

Glucose

281
Q

This reagent converts methemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin

A

Potassium cyanide

282
Q

Normal template bleeding time range

A

6-10 minutes

283
Q

Expected ESR in Poikilocytosis

A

decreased

284
Q

Most common complication of venipuncture; leakage of small amount of blood.

A

bruising

285
Q

Histologic presence is definitive of hodgkin’s

A

Reed-Sterberg

286
Q

Hematocrit layers

First:
Second:
Third:
Bottom:

A

First: Fatty Layer
Second: Plasma
Third: Buffy coat
Bottom: Packed cells
Sealing clay

287
Q

Nucleated RBCs and schistocytes are seen in:

A

Microangiopathic Hemolytic Leukemia

288
Q

Parameters for MCV computation

A

HCT and RBC count

289
Q

what factor is transglutaminase

A

factor XIII

290
Q

MCV and RDW are from:
MPV and PDW are from:

A

MCV and RDW are from: RBC histogram
MPV and PDW are from: platelet histogram

291
Q

Increased EDTA will lead to __ ESR and __ HCT.

A

Increased EDTA will lead to DECREASED ESR and DECREASED HCT.

292
Q

Fibrinogen level in hemophilia A, B, & C

A

Normal

293
Q

why use only 1 inch needle?

A

Better control, Less frightening, Less intimidating

294
Q

A patient with BJ proteins and multiple myeloma show this characteristic in a peripheral smear:

A

Myelocyte

295
Q

Specific or secondary granules appear on this stage:

A

Myelocyte

296
Q

Erythropoietin actions:

A
  1. stop apoptosis
  2. Early cell release
  3. Reduce maturation
297
Q

COAG-A-MATE, electra and Ortho-Koagulab are

A

Photo optical mid

298
Q

The platelet glycocalyx is known as ____.

A

outer surface of platelets

298
Q

Factor XI deficiency

A

Rosenthal syndrome

299
Q

False elevation in ESR could be due to

A

Increased in temperature

300
Q

In Sulfhemoglobinemia, blood is colored

A

Mauve lavender

301
Q

The very first cell produced he developing embryo

A

RBC on the1th day of gestation

302
Q

Corrections for WBC

A

A: >5, Neonates: >10

303
Q

What is extramedullary hematopoiesis?

A

Blood production outside the BM

304
Q

These are needle-shaped or round inclusions in the cytoplasm of myoblasts and promyelocyte; described to be composed of condensed primary granules.

A

Auer rods

305
Q

5th month gestation major hematopoietic site

A

liver

306
Q

This is a neutrophilic protein seen in secondary granules with a function of binding iron.

A

Lactoferrin

307
Q

Also known as the labile factor

A

Factor 5, Proacelerin

308
Q

Recommendation for counting band cells

A

Segmenters

309
Q

Factor VII and XI are activated by _____.

A

Cold temeprature

310
Q

Flower cells are seen in _____.

A

Adult T Cell Leukemia

311
Q

In smear preparation, a drop of blood must be __cm from the edge of the slide.

A

1 cm

312
Q

IDA anemia

A

Microcytic, hypochromic

313
Q

Clot retraction is possible due to_____.

A

thrombasthenin

314
Q

What age group has the predominance of red bone marrow in the bones?

A

early childhood

315
Q

This is characterized by mutations to platelet GP IIB or IIIA resulting into a defect of fibrinogen-dependent platelet aggregation.

A

Glanzmann thrombasthenia

316
Q

RPI formula:

A

((retics % X (HCT/0.45))/maturation time)

317
Q

In adults, these 2 sites are the best sites for bone marrow collection.

A

Sternum or Posterior Iliac crest

318
Q

Initial sickle cell hemolysis in OFT begins at __NaCl concentration

A

0.30%

319
Q

Factor for platelet estimate in patients with normal RBC count

A

20,000

320
Q

When blood escapes on the small skin and MM areas, It is referred to as ____.

A

Purpura

321
Q

Hemolytic anemia, Acute blood loss, aplastic anemia

A

Normocytic, normochromic

322
Q

Factor III

A

Tissue factor, Thrombokinase, Tissue thromboplastin

323
Q

Factor IV

A

Calcium, Mineral factor

324
Q

Factor VIII

A

AHF-A, AHG, Platelet cofactor I

325
Q

Factor IX

A

Christmas factor, AHF-B, Plasma thromboplastin component, platelet cofactor II

326
Q

Factor XI

A

AHF-C, Plasma thromboplastin antecedent

327
Q

Factor XII

A

Hageman factor, Glass factor, Contact factor

328
Q

Factor XIII

A

Fibrin stabilizing factor
Fibrinoligase
Fibrinase
Laki-Lorand factor
Plasma transglutaminase/Transamidase

329
Q

Pre-Kalikrein

A

Fletcher factor

330
Q

High Molecular Weight Kininogen

A

Contact Activation factor
Reid factor
Williams factor
Flajeauc factor
Fitzgerald factor

331
Q

Preferred adult site for BM collection?

A

Illiac crest

332
Q

Flame cells

A

IgA myeloma

333
Q

The mechanism about oxygenation status that communicates or relays information to erythropietin producing sites is found in the _______.

A

Kidneys

334
Q

Grease or dirt in the slide may lead to _____ in smears.

A

Holes

335
Q

Complete hemolysis in SCA is seen in _____% NaCl.

A

0.20%

Normal: 0.3%
HS: 0.45%

336
Q

Cause of menorrhagia (excessive menstrual bleeding)

A

vWF

337
Q

Side light scatter

A

cell granularity

338
Q

Forward light scatter

A

cell size

339
Q

The bleeding time measures:

a. Ability of platelets to stick together
b. Antibodies against platelets
C. Platelet adhesion and aggregation
d. Quality and quantity of platelets

A

C

340
Q

If globin synthesis is insufficient in a patient, iron acummulates in the cell at _____ aggregates.

A

Ferritin

341
Q

Proper way if mixing anticoagulant

A

gentle inversion

342
Q

Used in measuring platelet aggregation

A

ADP
collagen
thrombin
ristocitin

343
Q

All are correct about SOP except

A

It should follow the CMP

344
Q

Which of the ff flow cytometry methods is the most appropriate in diagnosing and classifying chronic lymphocytic leukemia.

A

Immunophenotyping

345
Q

Flow cytometry principle that diagnose and… CLL15-20

A

Immunophenotyping

346
Q

Which describes a combined scatter, it measures

A

cell size and granularity

347
Q

A typical therapeutic range of APTT in seconds

A

15-20

348
Q

The rbc stains more red than its usual color, neutrophil is barely visible, eosinophil is bright orange

A

the stain is too acidic

349
Q

What is the meaning of calibration

A

Value is compared to a known physical value

350
Q

Which of the ff cells can further differentiate in the tissues?

A

Monocytes

351
Q

Which is abnormal in Von Willebrand’s disease type 1

A

Bleeding time

352
Q

Specific fragment release upon degradation of cross-linking fibrin

A

D-dimer

353
Q

What is thrombin

A

Factor IIa

354
Q

Which is deficient if the liver failed to produce the factors 2, 7, 9, 10

A

Vitamin K

355
Q

What is the average size of an RBC?

A

7.2 um

356
Q

TPO will induce megakaryocytes to

A

Differentiate and mature

357
Q

What coagulation factors are affected in coumarin therapy?

A

2, 7, 9, 10

358
Q

Which condition causes increased total leukocyte count?

a. TB
b. asthma
c. urticaria
d. Inflammation

A

D

359
Q

Which of the ff is used to stain glycogen, polysaccharides, and glycoproteins

A

PAS

360
Q

Lazy leukocyte syndrome

A

Neutrophil

361
Q

Neimann pick disease

A

Monocytic-macrophage series

362
Q

stain for reticulocytes

A

New Methylene blue

363
Q

Hypochromic, macrocytes in blood film

A

IDA

364
Q

Acceptable limits of a control value must fall

A

within +2 SD of the mean

365
Q

Which characteristic is inaccurate with respect to the anticoagulant K3 EDTA?

a. Removes ionized Ca2+ from fresh whole blood by the process of chelation

b. Is used for most routine coagulation studies

c. Is the most commonly used anticoagulant in hematology

d. Is conventionally placed in lavender-stoppered evacuated tubes

A

B

366
Q

What is the immature erythrocyte found in the bone marrow with the ff characteristics: 12 to 17 mm in diameter, N:C of 4:1, nucleoli not usually apparent, and basophilic cytoplasm?

A

Prorubricyte (Basophilic normoblast)

367
Q

If an alkaline (pH 8.6) electrophoresis is performed, hemoglobin E has the same mobility as hemoglobin.

A

C

368
Q

If you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or shape using a scale of 0 to 4+ and many erythrocytes deviate from the normal per microscopic field, the typical score would be

A

3+

369
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria exhibits sensitivity of one population of red blood cells to

A

complement

370
Q

Which antibody test has replaced the LE cell preparation of red blood cells to

A

ANA test

371
Q

An acute leukemia can be described as being

A

of short duration with many immature leukocyte forms in the peripheral blood

372
Q

The abbreviation LASER stands for

A

Light Amplified by Stimulated Emission Radiation

373
Q

The delta check method of quality control

A

compares the patient’s leukocyte and platelet counts with his or her previous results.

374
Q

In the photo-optical method, the change in light transmission versus the___ is used to determine the activity of coagulation factors or stages.

A

time

375
Q

If you are grading changes in erythrocytic size or shape using scale of 0 to 4+ and many erythrocytes deviate from normal per microscopic field, the typical score would be

A

3+

376
Q

The final common pathway of the intrinsic-extrinsic pathway is

A

Factor X actiavtion

377
Q

What is the appropriate procedure and characteristic for Westergren method?

A

The procedure measures the rate of erythrocyte settling

378
Q

Two SDs from the mean in normal distribution curve would include

A

95% of all values

379
Q

The bevel of the needle should be held ___ in the performance of a venipuncture.

A

Upward

380
Q

A blue top tube is drawn for coagulation studies, the sample is a short draw result may be:

A

Falsely prolonged

381
Q

Pappenheimer bodies

A

Iron deposits

382
Q

Hereditary pyropikilocytosis (HP) is a red cwll membrane defect characterized by

A

Increased oval macrocytes

383
Q

Absolute leukocyte count

A

(Total leukocytebcount x % lymphocyte count)/100

384
Q

What clotting factors are inhibited by protein S

A

Va, VIIIa

385
Q

Platelet aggregation will occur with the end production of

A

Thromboxane A2

386
Q

Mouth like cells

A

stomatocytes

387
Q

Hematopiloietic stem cells produce all lineages of blood cells in sufficient quantities over the lifetime of an individual because they

A

Have the ability of self renewal by asymmetric division

388
Q

Automated analyzers can detect all of the ff except:

A. RBC fragments
B. Large platelets
C. Cold agglutinins
D. Platelet clumps

A

C

389
Q

EDTA induced pseudothrombocytopenia

A

platelets adhere to WBCs

390
Q

Thrombin time 18seconds, APTT 60 secs, PT 38 secs

A

Factor X deficiency

391
Q

First automated hematology analyzer

A

Coulter

392
Q

Where does TCA cycle occur

A

mitochondria

393
Q

Hyperemia

A

blushing

394
Q

True about semi-quantitative WBC analyzers

A

Can replace/substitue WBC count

395
Q

Philadelphia chromosomes

A

Trans 9,22

396
Q

How do platelets shed

A

Proplatelet process

397
Q

Cause of stomatocytes

A

RH deficiency

398
Q

Most predominant population of WBCs

A

Neutrophil

399
Q

Endpoint of mechanical clot detection system

A

Fibrin attachment

400
Q

Acanthocyte, stomatocyte, and codocyte pictures and clinical manifestations

A

abetalipoproteinemiaa

401
Q

Schistocytes

A

fragmented cell

402
Q

What is the first step to antithrombin assay

A

neutralize plasma ATIII

403
Q

Substance release after platelet aggregation

A

thromboxane A2

404
Q

40 year old woman.

PT 20 secs
APTT 50 secs
TT 18 secs

A

Factor 10 deficiency