Hema-Immuno [Case 4] HIV Flashcards
What type of HIV medication is Ritonavir?
A. Conversion and integration
B. Binding and fusion
C. Assembly, building, and maturation
D. Replication
C. Assembly, building, and maturation
Which type of HIV drug is Enfuvirtide?
A. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D. Integrase strand transfer inhibitor
E. Infusion inhibitor
E. Infusion inhibitor
Which type of HIV drug is Zidovudine?
A. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
B. Protease inhibitor
C. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
D. Integrase strand transfer inhibitor
C. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor
What is the most common glomerular disease in HIV?
A. Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
C. Membranous glomerulonephritis
D. Minimal change disease
E. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
Which stage of HIV may last for 10 years?
A. Stage 0
B. Stage 1
C. Stage 2
D. Stage 3
E. Stage 4
C. Stage 2
What is the best step after a positive fourth-generation HIV-1/2 immunoassay?
A. Initiation of ART
B. Viral culture
C. Viral RNA
D. Further serology testing
D. Further serology testing
Which medication is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor that is used more commonly to prevent vertical HIV transmission at birth?
A. Emtricitabine
B. Etravirine
C. Delavirdine
D. Nevirapine
D. Nevirapine
Which type of pneumonia is common in patients with active HIV infection?
A. Aspiration pneumonia
B. Interstitial pneumonia
C. Atypical pneumonia
D. Community-acquired pneumonia
D. Community-acquired pneumonia
Which test identifies if a patient’s HIV strain has CCR5 tropism?
A. Trofile assay
B. Western blot
C. Fluorescence in situ hybridization
D. G6PD assay
E. ELISA
A. Trofile assay
What is the main mechanism of action of HIV fusion inhibitors?
A. Binding host membrane glycoprotein 120
B. Binding host membrane glycoprotein 41
C. Binding HIV glycoprotein 120
D. Binding HIV glycoprotein 41
E. Binding both glycoprotein 41 and glycoprotein 120
D. Binding HIV glycoprotein 41
In an HIV patient, what organism can be treated with SMP-TMX?
A. Toxoplasmosis
B. P. aeruginosa
C. Enterococcus faecium
D. Enterococcus faecalis
A. Toxoplasmosis
Which medication is most likely to cause lactic acidosis in an HIV-patient?
A. Zidovudine
B. Efavirenz
C. Lamivudine
D. Atazanavir
E. Ritonavir
A. Zidovudine
Which of the following can be used if adverse reactions were encountered in using ART?
A. 3TC + TDF + EFV
B. 3TC + TDF + NVP
C. 3TC + TDF + Ritonavir
D. 3TC + TDF + Dolutegravir
E. Any of the options
C. 3TC + TDF + Ritonavir
A recently diagnosed patient with HIV comes to your clinic. Upon monitoring, you found out that his CD4+ T cell count is 200 cells/uL. What would be the next step?
A. Give TMP-SMX
B. Give Itraconazole
C. Give clarithromycin
D. Observe until the count reached to <150 cells/uL
E. Refer to an infectious specialist
A. Give TMP-SMX
PCP: <200 – TMP-SMX
Toxoplasma: <100 – TMP-SMX
MAC: <50 – Clarithromycin/Azithromycin
Histoplasmosis: <150 – Itraconazole
Which of the following is the most commonly used confirmatory test in HIV?
A. ELISA
B. Western blot
C. p24 antigen capture assay
D. NAT
E. Rapid HIV diagnostic algorithm
B. Western blot