Helminthology B and Protozoology Flashcards by Milagros Andrea Alemania Mateo

Which is not true about Toxocara species of cats, dogs, and cattle
a.they can be transmitted through milk
b.they have mamillated egg shells
c.their eggs are larvated when laid
d.young animals are at risk

Their eggs are larvated when laid

Toxocara canis lay undeveloped eggs

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following worm species are acquired by ingestion of infected fish EXCEPT
a. Clonorchis sinensis
b.Diphyllobothrium latum
c.Fasciolopsis buski
d.Heterophyes heterophyes

Fasciolopsis buski

Aquired by ingestion of vegetation with metacercaria

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following helminth detection procedures applies to animals except:
a.larval culture
b.flotation technique
c.cellophane tape technique
d.sedimentation technique

Cellophane tape technique

The eggs of Enterobius vermicularis stick their eggs around the anus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Angular-shaped eggs are demonstrated in this species
a.Moniezia expansa
b.Moniezia benedini
c.Anoplocephala perfoliata
d.Toxascaris leonina

Anoplocephala perfoliata

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Habronema can be transmitted by houseflies either by deposition around the mouth area or on wounds. The latter leads to a condition called
a.Summer mange
b.Bursati
c.Cascado
d.psoriasis

Bursati

Synonymous with summer sores or granular dermatitis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following worm species are potentially zoonotic EXCEPT:
a.Opistorchis sinensis
b.Schistosoma japonicum
c.Fascioloides magna
d.Fasciola hepatica

Fascioloides magna

Fascioloides magna occurs in ruminants and is known to be patent in white-tailed deer

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The developmental stage that causes Swimmer’s itch in humans?
a. cercaria
b.adult
c.Miracidium
d.metacercaria

Cercaria

Cercaria of non-human schistosomes cause swimmer’s itch

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following requires two intermediate hosts to complete their life cycle except
a.Paramphistomum cervi
b.Spirometra mansonoides
c.Eurytrema panreaticum
d.Echinostoma revolutum

Paramphistomum cervi

Amphistomes require only one intermediate hold (snail)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following are called arrow headed worms due to their broad cervical alae EXCEPT
a.Toxocara canis
b.Toxascaris leonina
c.Toxocara cati
d.Parascaris equorum

Parascaris equorum

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following contributes to the transmission and spread of Schistosomosis in endemic areas EXCEPT
a.farm practices
b.poor sanitary practices
c.persistence of infection in reservoir hosts
d.arthropod vectors

Arthropod vectors

Schistosoma has no known vector

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The larval stage that precedes the redia
a.Sporocyst
b.Cercaria
c.Miracidium
d.metacercaria

Sporocyst

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

These flukes occur in the ceca and rectum of birds EXCEPT:
a.Notocotylus attenuatus
b.Cyclocoelium mutabile
c.Catatropis verrucosa
d.Postharmostomum gallinum

Cyclocoelium mutabile

Found in the body cavities and respiratory tract

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following animal species usually do not manifest acute Fasciolosis because they have high resistance to the disease except
a.Horse
b.Pig
c.Dog
d.sheep

Sheep

Highly susceptible to acute Fasciolosis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Esophageal sarcoma may develop in infections with
a.Gongylonema pulchrum
b.Spirocerca lupi
c.Troglotrema acutum
d.Mammonogamus laryngeus

Spirocerca lupi

The chronic infection leads to malignancy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Oviduct fluke of poultry is primarily transmitted through
a.ingestion of infected dragonfly naiads
b.bites from dragonflies
c.ingestion of infected frogs
d.ingestion of infected snails

Ingestion of infected dragonfly naiads

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Fasciolopsis buski naturally affects these hosts
a.Cattle and man
b.Dog and man
c.Pig and man
d.sheep and man

Pig and man

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The egg of this fluke could be easily identified as it bears a filament
a.Notocotylus
b.Paragonimus
c.Cycoloelium
d.Tracheophilus

Notocotylus

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The skull of wild carnivores may be perforated due to
a.Troglotrema salmincola
b.Plagiorchis macrorchis
c.Troglotrema acutum
d.Alaria alata

Troglotrema acutum

Acquired by eating frogs

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This fluke may be associated with heart failure in humans
a.Clonorchis sinensis
b.Heterophyes heterophyes
c.Echinostoma ilocanum
d.Philopthalmus problematicus

Heterophyes heterophyes

Eggs could be transported to the heart via coronary arteries

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Eggs of Schistosoma japonicum can be demonstrated in the feces because
a.Adult worms may move to the intestine
b.Adult worms mature in the intestine
c.Eggs are carried to the intestine thru the mesenteric vessels
d.Eggs are carried to the intestine thru the portal vessels

Eggs are carried to the intestine thru the mesenteric vessels

Small blood vessels in the intestine with eggs rupture and empty into the lumen of the intestine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following are true about paratenic hosts EXCEPT
a.No further development takes place
b.No further multiplication takes place
c. It serves as a transport host
d.It can harbor the adult stage

It can harbor the adult stage

Paratenic hosts can only carry pre-adult stages

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Man can serve both as final and intermediate host for
a.Taenia asiatica
b.Taenia solium
c.Taenia saginata
d.Taenia multiceps

Taenia solium

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The following requires two intermediate hosts to complete its life cycle EXCEPT
a.Platynosomum fastosum
b.Fasciola gigantica
c.Spirometra erinacei
d.Echinostoma ilocanum

Fasciola gigantica

Requires snails only

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Macracanthorrnychus hirudinaceus, the thorny-headed worm of pigs that lodge in the small intestine lacks the following body systems except
a.Circulatory
b.Digestive
c.Respiratory
d.Nervous

Nervous

Other functions through the cuticle

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Anoplocephala perfoliata specifically lodges in the a. Jejunum b.Duodenum c. Ileocecal junction d.ileum

Ileocecal junction Other horse tapeworms are in the small intestine

Double-pored tapeworms refer to a.Dipylidium and Thysanosoma b.Moniezia and Dipylidium c.Thysanosoma and Moniezia d.Thysanosoma and Dipylidium

Moniezia and Dipylidium These have 2 genital pores, 2 sets of reproductive organs

Parthenogenetic females where they reproduce without males as fertilization is unnecessary is a feature of a.Trichinella b.Strongyloides c. Ascaris d.Heterakis

Strongyloides Females can reproduce without male inside the host

The adult stages of this worm species found in mammals are permanently in copula forming a Y shape? a.Syngamus trachea b. Mammomonogamus laryngeus c. Schistosoma japonicum d.Stephanurus dentatus

Mammomonogamus laryngeus

Infection with Diphyllobothrium latum may be prevented by a. drinking distilled water b. eating thoroughly-cooked fish c. eating thoroughly-cooked meat d. continuous deworming

Eating thoroughly-cooked fish

The rat-tailed appearance associated with Oxyuris equi is a sequela of the extreme pruritus due to a. oviposition of females b. vector bites c. allergy induced by feeding worms d.apolysis

Oviposition of females Continuous sticking of eggs by protruding the female’s tail is pruritic; tends to scratch the hind part leading to loss of hair on the tail part

Hairworm in the subcutaneous tissue of monkeys a.Anatrichosoma cutaneum b. Capillaria plica c. Capillaria bilobata d.Strongyloides stercoralis

Anatrichosoma cutaneum

Parasitic castration caused by Ligulosis in fish is caused by this stage of the worm a.Adult b.Procercoid c. Plerocercoid d. coracidium

Plerocercoid Ligula intestinalis adults are found in birds but plerocercoids are found in fish

This tapeworm of fishes have a characteristic inverted heart shape anterior a. Ligula intestinalis b.Bothriocephalus acheilognathi c. Capillaria intestinalis d.Diphyllobothrium latum

Bothriocephalus acheilognathi Asian tapeworm, is a freshwater fish parasite

Emerging cercaria of Fasciola from the snails may lodge in the a.snail b.fish c.vegetation d.leech

Vegetation

This fluke species is a serious burden in elephants a.Fascioloides magna b.Fasciola gigantica c. Fasciola jacksoni d.Fasciola hepatica

Fasciola jacksoni

The most pathogenic tapeworm of poultry a. Davainea proglottina b. Notocotylus attenuatus c. Prosthogonimus pellucidus d. Philopthalmus problematicus

Davainea proglottina Causes acute diarrhea

The snail host of Fasciola gigantica in the Philippines is a.Brotea aspirata b.Gyraulus tomentosa c. Oncomelania hupensis qudrasii d. Lymnaea auricularia rubiginosa

Lymnaea auricularia rubiginosa

The entire life cycle of Fasciola gigantica may take up to 20 weeks but the prepatent period takes a.2-4 wks b.5-8 wks c.9-11 wks d.15-17 wks

15-17 wks

Ants serve as carrier of the infective stage of a.Dicrocoelium dendriticum b.Alaria alata c.Eurytrema pancreaticum d.Homologaster paloniae

Dicrocoelium dendriticum

The type of life cycle in flukes found in fishes and other amphibians a.Transitory b.Direct c. Indirect d.euryxenous

Direct Fish flukes are monogeneans

Flukes multiply exponentially and this could be attributed to their ability for a.paedogenesis b.oogenesis c.parthenogenesis d.gametogony

Paedogenesis one fluke egg can give rise to billions of new individuals

The following flukes may be acquired by ingestion of miracidium-contaminated vegetation EXCEPT a.Fasciola hepatica b.Fasciolopsis buski c. Fascioloides magna d.Platynosomum fastomum

Platynosomum fastomum Lizard (Obligatory host) acquires it from ingestion of metacercaria in isopod then Cats ingests excysted metacercaria from them. Isopods (2nd IH) ingest mature daughter sporocyts with cercariae, then 3rd IH, then to cats

This blood fluke particularly affects the hemorrhoidal veins and urinary tract a.Schistosoma mansoni b.Schistosoma bovis c.Schistosoma hematobium d.Schistosoma indicum

Schistosoma hematobium

The clinical importance of Troglotrema salmincola lies on the fact that it carries a a. virus b.bacteria c.protozoa d.fungi

Bacteria Bacteria: Rickettsia helminthoeca

This worm has a free-living and parasitic life cycle, hence can reproduce off the host under optimum environment a.Strongylus edentatus b.Strongyloides papillosus c.Alaria alata d.Hymenolepis nana

Strongyloides papillosus

The following parasites can be acquired by the young from milk of the dam EXCEPT a.Toxocara vitulorum b.Strongyloides ransomi c.Gnathostoma doloresi d.Ancylostoma caninum

Gnathostoma doloresi

Flukes that are characterized having spines in the mouth or head are referred to as a.amphistomes b.distomes c.echinostomes d.schistosomes

Echinostomes

The following pair follows a snail-arthropod tandem in their life cycle EXCEPT a.Dicrocoelium dendriticum b.Echinostoma ilocanum c.Eurytrema pancreaticum d.Platynosomum fastomum

Echinostoma ilocanum Is snail

The fungus Pilobolus that lives in animal dung along with the larvae of this lungworm species increases the chance of the infective larvae to reach the susceptible host a.Metastronglys apri b.Protostonglylus rufescens c.Dictyocaulus viviparus d.Paragonimus westermani

Dictyocaulus viviparus With their far-shooting ability (up to 3 meters from the dung), Pilobolus sporangia transports lungworms to the grasses.

What do you call a reproductive process in which the nucleus divides into two following a cytoplasmic division, producing two daughter protozoa from a parent protozoon? a.Binary fission b.Schizogony c.Endopolyogeny d.Sporogony

Binary fission

This worm species has raised cuticular plaques arranged in longitudinal rows on the anterior end. a.Spirocerca lupi b.Gnathostoma doloresi c.Ascarops stronglyina d.Gongylonema pulchrum

Gongylonema pulchrum

Which of the following parasite species undergo endopolyogeny? a. Toxoplasma gondii b. Sarcocystis neurona c. Trypanosoma evansi d. Plasmodium knowlesi

Sarcocystis neurona Endopolyogeny: form of internal budding resembling schizogony, except that daughter cells (endozoites) form new organelle sets within their own plasma membranes anywhere in the cytoplasm of the parent cell (as opposed to at the periphery, as in schizogony)

How does Toxoplasma gondii reproduce asexually? a.Binary fission b.Endopolyogeny c.Endodyogeny d.Schizogony

Endodyogeny Simplified form of endopolyogeny w/c 2 daughter cells are formed

Which of the following parasite species multiply asexually by schizogony? a. Plasmodium knowlesi b. Plasmodium bubalis c. Plasmodium gallinaceum d. All of the above

All of the above Schizogony: nucleus divides several times before cytoplasm does.

Term for asexually dividing parasite undergoing schizogony that produces daughters (merozoites)

Schizont

Term for the daughters formed from asexually dividing parasite undergoing schizogony (schizonts)

Merozoites

Which of the following is a sexual reproduction process of protozoa? a.Sporogony b.Budding c. Binary fission d.Syngamy

Syngamy A complete fusion of the two sex cells forming zygotes

Sexual reproduction (3) CSS

Conjugation Syngamy Syzygy

Syngamy is a sexual reproduction, what are examples of syngamy? (AHIA)

Autogamy Hologamy Isogamy Anisogamy

Which of the following is a sequence that best describes the stages involved in the sporulation process of Eimeria? a. Non-sporulated oocysts > sporulated oocysts > sporocysts > sporozoites b.Sporulated oocysts > sporocysts > sporozoites > non-sporulated oocysts c.Merozoites > microgamete > macrogamete > sporulated oocysts d.Gametes > zygotes > oocysts > sporozoites

Non-sporulated oocysts > sporulated oocysts > sporocysts > sporozoites

Which of the following is a sequence that best describes the stages involved in the asexual reproduction of Plasmodium? a.Ring stages > merozoites > trophozoites > schizonts > merozoites b.Merozoites > ring stages > trophozoites > schizonts > merozoites c.Trophozoites > schizonts > merozoites > ring stages > schizonts d. Sporulated oocysts > sporocysts > sporozoites > non-sporulated oocysts

Merozoites > ring stages > trophozoites > schizonts > merozoites

Knowing the reproduction of apicomplexans, which parasite stage will you target in designing a drug to stop their transmission to the invertebrate host ? a.Schizonts b.Gametocytes c.Sporozoites d.Trophozoites

Gametocytes Gametocytes: (1)only stages transmissible to the invertebrate host, (2)the precursors of male (microgamete) and female (macrogamete) gametes of malaria parasites are formed in the vertebrate host through the developmental switch from asexual replication in RBCs.

Concerning the sporulation of Eimeria, what will happen next if you feed newly excreted oocysts to a new host? a.Sporozoites will invade the host enterocytes b.Sporocysts will continue to develop inside the stomach c.A new infection will not be established d.The new host will die

A new infection will not be established The infective stage of Eimeria is sporulated oocysts.

The following apicomplexan parasite has four sporozoites that are not enclosed in a sporocyst. a. Eimeria b. Cryptosporidium c. Cystisospora d. Tyzzeria

Cryptosporidium

A veterinarian suspects that a trypanosome from cattle is undergoing asexual reproduction upon examination of the Giemsa-stained blood smear. Is the observation correct? a. No, because trypomastigotes are found in enterocytes b. No, because trypanosomes do not infect cattle c. Yes, because trypomastigotes found in the blood can undergo binary fission d. Yes, because epimastigotes found in the blood can undergo binary fission

Yes, because trypomastigotes found in the blood can undergo binary fission

A veterinarian diagnose trypanosomiasis in a buffalo based on early trophozoite stages inside the erythrocytes upon examination of the Giemsa-stained blood smear. Is the observation correct? a.No, it is likely caused by an apicomplexan parasite b.No. it is likely caused by a coccidian parasite c.Yes, buffalo can be infected with Trypanosoma evansi d.Yes, trypanosomes are intra-erythrocytic parasites

No, it is likely caused by an apicomplexan parasite Trypomastigotes of Trypanosoma evansi are extra-cellular parasites (i.e., found outside RBCs and WBCs in a Giemsa-stained blood smear). Blood smear from a buffalo with parasite’s early trophozoite stages inside the RBCs is likely associated with Plasmodium bubalis.

How will you prevent equine trypanosomiasis in Leyte, Philippines? a.By preventing tabanids from feeding on horses b.By preventing tsetse fly from feeding on horses c.By administering albendazole to horses d.By administering praziquantel to horses

By preventing tabanids from feeding on horses

Which of the following is likely a vector of Trypanosoma melophagum? a. Melophagus ovinus b. Glossina palpalis c. Tabanus philippinensis d. Xenopsylla cheopis

Melophagus ovinus Trypanosoma melophagium is a parasite of sheep transmitted by sheep keds, the sheep-restricted ectoparasite Melophagus ovinus (Diptera: Hippoboscidae)

What is the causative agent of surra in domestic animals? a. Trypanosoma brucei evansi b. Trypanosoma congolense. c. Trypanosoma vivax d. Trypanosoma equiperdum.

Trypanosoma brucei evansi

Trypanosoma that causes sleeping sickness (2)

T. brucei gambiense T. brucei rhodesiense

Trypanosoma that causes Nagana (3)

T. brucei brucei T. congolense T. vivax

Trypanosoma that causes Surra

T. brucei evansi

Trypanosoma that causes Mal de caderas

T. equinum

Trypanosoma that causes Dourine

T. brucei equiperdum

Trypanosoma that causes Chagas

T. cruzi

Which trypanosome has the most distribution worldwide? a. Trypanosoma brucei evansi b. Trypanosoma congolense. c. Trypanosoma vivax d. Trypanosoma equiperdum.

Trypanosoma brucei evansi

What is the vector of Trypanosoma equiperdum? a.Sheep ked b.Tsetse fly c.Tabanids d. None

None T. equiperdum causes Dourine, transmitted by sexual contact

How Plasmodium vivax and Trypanosoma vivax are alike? a.They both infect the red blood cells b.They have a common invertebrate host c.They have the same treatment protocol d.They can both be diagnosed using a blood sample

They can both be diagnosed using a blood sample

Which of the following protozoan parasite you cannot not find an undulating membrane when examined under a light microscope a. Leishmania infantum b. Trypanosoma evansi c. Trypanosoma cruzi d. Tritrichomonas blagburni

Leishmania infantum Trypanosomes and trichomonads feature an undulating membrane, a fin-like extension typically associated with the flagellum. The presence of an undulating membrane improves the parasite's motility in viscous fluids, such as blood.

A veterinarian wants to culture Leishmania isolated from clinical cases. What would be the best method? a.Use a MacConkey agar medium. b.Use a Nicolle–Novy–MacNeal (NNN) medium c.Use a Lysogeny Broth (LB) broth d.It’s not possible to culture trypanosomes in vitro

Use a Nicolle–Novy–MacNeal (NNN) medium Novy–MacNeal–Nicolle medium (NNN) is a culture medium used for growing Leishmania. It is composed of a simple blood agar slope with the addition of 0.6% sodium chloride (NaCl). Additionally, NNN can be utilized for the growth of Trypanosoma cruzi.

The causative agent of kala-azar. a. Eimeria tenella b. Leishmania donovani c. Trypanosoma cruzi d. Plasmodium falciparum

Leishmania donovani

Which of the following is the vector of Leishmania donovani? a. Glossina b. Culicoides c. Phlebotomus d. Anopheles

Phlebotomus Leishmania spp. parasites are transmitted by the bites of sand flies in the genera Phlebotomus (Old World) and Lutzomyia (New World)

The causative agent of cattle fever or red water fever? a. Sarcocystis cruzi b. Theileria annulata c. Babesia bigemina d. Theileria parva

Babesia bigemina

The first cell infected by Theileria parva in its vertebrate host. a. Hepatocytes b. Lymphoblasts c. Erythrocytes d. Neutrophils

Lymphoblast

The invertebrate host of Leucocytozoon caulleryi. a. Culicoides b. Simulium c. Ixodes d. Culex

Culicoides

What is the definitive host of Haemoproteus columbae? a. Columba livia b. Pseudolynchia canariensis c. Culicoides robertsi d. Gallus gallus

Pseudolynchia canariensis

What is the definitive host of Babesia vogeli? a. Canis lupus familiaris b. Rhipicephalus sanguineus c. Culicoides robertsi d. Culex pipiens

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

What is the definitive host of Babesia vogeli? a. Canis lupus familiaris b. Rhipicephalus sanguineus c. Culicoides robertsi d. Culex pipiens

Rhipicephalus sanguineus

Large Babesia in dogs (3) CVR

Babesia canis Babesia vogeli Babesia rossi

Small Babesia in dogs (3) GVC

Babesia gibsoni Babesia vulpes Babesia conradae

What is the infective stage of Plasmodium relictum to its vertebrate host? a. Gametocytes b. Sporozoites c.Trophozoites d. Schizonts

Sporozoites

Concerning RBCs infected with Theleiria equi, which of the following distinct structures or formations can be seen in a blood smear and may aid in the diagnostic process? a.Maltese cross b.Ring formed merozoite c.Banana shaped gametocyte d.Spindle shaped gametocyte

Maltese cross

What would happen if a Hepatozoon canis-infected ticks feed on a puppy? a. Hepatozoon canis will not cause infection because infected ticks need to be ingested for sporozoites to liberate. b. Hepatozoon canis will not cause infection because ticks are not their invertebrate host. c. Hepatozoon canis will cause infection because bites of infected ticks will transfer the sporozoites to the puppy. d. Hepatozoon canis will cause infection because bites of ticks will transfer the gametocytes to the puppy.

Hepatozoon canis will not cause infection because ticks are not their invertebrate host.

What is the main site of infection of Eimeria gilruthi? a. Rumen b. Abomasum c. Small intestine d. Large intestine

Abomasum

The following are pathogenic Eimeria species in goats, except: a. E. arloingi b. E. christenseni c. E. ovinoidalis d. E. zuernii

E. zuernii Affects cattles, along with E. bovis, E. auburnensis

The following are pathogenic Eimeria species in pigs, except: a. E. debliecki b. E. neodebliecki c. E. scabra d. E. crandallis

E. crandallis Affects sheeps, along with E. ovinoidalis

Which species of Eimeria may exhibit mamilliation and granulation of the oocyst surface under the microscope? a. E. auburnensis b. E. zurnii c. E. ellipsoidalis d. E. cylindrica

E. auburnensis

Which of the following stages of Eimeria bovis cause the most pathogenic direct effect by destructing the epithelial cells? a. Gamonts b. Schizonts c. Trophozoites. d. Merozoites.

Gamonts

Considering the life cycles of Besnoitia besnoiti, which method best suits its diagnosis in the definitive host? a. Blood smear b.Buffy coat smear c. Histopathology of the skin d. Fecal flotation using zinc sulfate

Fecal flotation using zinc sulfate

If you plan to infect a cat with Toxoplasma gondii experimentally, what will you not likely do to avoid a missed infection? a. Feed the naïve cat with purified tachyzoites from the infected rodent. b. Feed the naïve cat fresh feces containing oocysts from the infected cat. c. Feed the naïve cat with cysts containing bradyzoites from the infected rodent. d. Feed the naïve cat with non-fresh feces with sporulated oocysts from the infected cat

Feed the naïve cat fresh feces containing oocysts from the infected cat.

Accumulations of clotted blood, tissue debris, and oocysts in the ceca of chicken indicate: a. Eimeria acervulina b. Eimeria hagani c. Eimeria maxima d. Eimeria tenella

Eimeria tenella

What is the causative agent of hepatic coccidiosis in rabbits? a. Eimeria magna b. Eimeria media c. Eimeria stiedae d. Eimeria vejdovsyi

Eimeria stiedae

Which of the following is a possible causative agent of mouth canker in raptors? a. Trichomonas gallinae b. Tritrichomonas eberthi c. Tritrichomonas foetus d. Tetratrichomonas gallinarum

Trichomonas gallinae

Which of the following causes abortion in cattle? a. Tritrichomonas foetus b. Tritrichomonas eberthi c. Trichomonas gallinae d. Tetratrichomonas gallinarum

Tritrichomonas foetus

Which of the following could cause diarrhea in kittens? a. Tritrichomonas blagburni b. Tritrichomonas eberthi c. Trichomonas gallinae d. Tetratrichomonas gallinarum

Tritrichomonas blagburni

Which of the following organs are directly affected by turkey histomoniasis? a. Head and ceca b. Ceca and liver c. Ceca and spleen d. Liver and spleen

Ceca and liver

Which of the following lesions are associated with Tetratrichomonas gallinarum in turkeys? a. Inflammation of the mouth. b. Inflammation of the genital tracts. c. Inflammation of the proventriculus. d. Inflammation of the intestine and liver.

Inflammation of the intestine and liver.

Considering the life cycle of Histomonas meleagridis, which method best fits its diagnosis when presented with a cecal sample? a. Examining the tissue for sporulated oocysts. b. Examining the tissue for the parasite’s flagellated form. c. Examining the tissue for the parasite’s transitional amoeboid form. d. Examining the tissue for the parasite’s non-flagellated tissue form.

Examining the tissue for the parasite’s flagellated form.

Which of the following is a parasite with a large adhesive disc on the trophozoite’s ventral surface a. Eimeria tenella b. Giardia canis c. Entamoeba histolytica d. Histomonas meleagridis

Giardia canis

What is the typical clinical presentation of giardiasis in cattle? a. Chronic diarrhea. b. Acute hepatitis. c. Infertility. d. Abortion.

Chronic diarrhea.

The host and site of infection of the parasite Giardia psittaci. a. Parakeet and intestine. b. Chicken and intestine. c. Rodent and intestine. d. Cat and intestine.

Parakeet and intestine.

Which of the following best describes the location/localization of Naegleria fowleri? a. Human nose and brain. b. Human intestine and liver. c. Human nose and liver. d. Human eyes and brain.

Human nose and brain.

A parasitic ciliate that causes White Spot Disease in fish. a. Chilodonella cyprini b. Ichthyophthirius multifilis c. Piscinoodinium pillulare d. Pleistophora hyphessobryconis

Ichthyophthirius multifilis

Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Helminthology B and Protozoology Flashcards

Brainscape's Knowledge Genome^TM