Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MWU Patho > HEENT > Flashcards

HEENT Flashcards

1
Q

In the retina, the sensory receptors are called _____.

A

photoreceptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Like the cornea, the lens is (avascular/vascular).

A

avascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

(Sympathetic/Parasympathetic) fibers control pupillary dilation.

A

Sympathetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The _____ is the colored part of the eye that lies between the cornea and lens.

A

iris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

(Rods/Cones) are photoreceptors that have a high threshold for light and operate best in daylight.

A

Cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The lacrimal gland lies in the orbit above the (medial/lateral) end of the eye and produces lacrimal secretions, otherwise known as tears.

A

lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

_____ are photoreceptors that are sensitive to low levels of light and function in darkness.

A

Rods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

_____ are photoreceptors that participate in color vision.

A

Cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In dim light and distance vision the ____ muscle contract to dilate the pupil.

A

dilator pupillae/radial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Lacrimal fluid contains _____, an enzyme that destroys bacteria.

A

lysozyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

In bright light, the ______ muscles contract to constrict the pupil and limit the amount of light entering the eye.

A

sphincter pupillae/circular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The three functions of the _____ are to transmit light, support the posterior surface of the lends and contribute to the intraocular pressure.

A

vitreous humor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The _____ forms the bulk of the fibrous layer and functions to protect and shape the eyeball and provide an anchoring site for extrinsic eye muscles.

A

sclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The middle layer containing the iris and choroid is (fibrous/vascular).

A

vascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The _____ is a depression in the macula where light entering the eye is focused.

A

fovea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The retina involves the entire posterior eye except the blind spot which is the _____.

A

optic disc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

The _____ is the clear part of the fibrous layer and provides a window that lets light enter the eye.

A

cornea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In the retina, the visual acuity is highest at the _____.

A

macula-particularly the fovea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The outer fibrous layer of the eye includes the cornea, corneal epithelium, conjunctiva, and _____.

A

sclera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The _____ layer is a blood vessel-rich, dark brown membrane that contains the blood vessels that nourish all eye layers.

A

choroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The anterior chamber is filled with _____ humor.

A

aqueous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Sensory information received by the photoreceptors in the retina is transduced nd carried for processing via the axons of _____ cells.

A

retinal ganglion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The _____ is a thickened ring of tissue that encircles the lens consisting of smooth muscle bundles called ciliary muscles, which act to control the shape of the lens.

A

Ciliary body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The _____ layer of the retina functions to absorb stray light and prevent scattering between photoreceptors.

A

pigment cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The _____ is a biconvex, transparent, flexible structure that changes in shape to precisely focus light on the retina.

A

lens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The aqueous humor flows through the pupil into the anterior chamber and eventually drains into venous blood via the _____ at the corneoscleral junction.

A

scleral venous sinus, also called the Canal of Schlemm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

The two types of photoreceptors are ______.

A

rods and cones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Only a few cones synapse on a bipolar cell, which synapses on a single ganglion cell, accounting for (high/low) acuity.

A

high

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The ______ is a transparent mucous membrane that lines the eyelids and functions to produce a lubricating mucus that prevents the eye from drying out.

A

conjunctiva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The outer segments of both rods and cones contain the light-sensitive pigment, ______.

A

rhodopsin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The main pathway for vision is through the ______ nucleus of the thalamus, which then projects to the visual cortex.

A

dorsal lateral geniculate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Many rods synapse on a single bipolar cell, accounting for (high/low) acuity and high sensitivity.

A

low

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The posterior chamber is filled with ______ humor.

A

vitreous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The ______ is a round central opening in the iris where light enters the eye.

A

pupil

35
Q

A 60 yr old man presents to his primary care physician with painless worsening of vision. Over the past five months, his vision has become more blurry. He has also experienced difficulty driving at night, since light from incoming cars causes an unbearable glare. Medical history is notable for type II diabetes and HTN. The patient does not use glasses or contacts. visual acuity is 20/30 in the right eye and 20/100 in the left eye. A fundoscopic examination reveals a reduced red reflex in the left eye. No conjunctival erythema is present, and pupillary response is intact bilaterally. Which of the following best describes the etiology of this patient’s clinical condition?
Abnormal curvature of the cornea
Malignant proliferation of retinal cells
inflammation of the uvea
Opacification of the lens
Optic disc atrophy

A

Opacification of the lens

36
Q

A 73yr old woman comes to her primary care physician to evaluate the progressive bilateral vision loss. The patients states that she has had a difficulty reading and driving, which has gotten worse over the past six weeks. She states that door frames and window blinds appear “curved”. She has a past medical history of hypertension and a 40 pack year smoking history. Vitals are WNL. A dilated eye examination reveals subretinal fluid with a gray-green discoloration. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s ocular condition?
Separation of the retinal tissue from the retinal pigment epithelium
Elevated intraocular pressure
Choroidal neovascularization
Embolic occlusion of retinal artery
Retinal vein compression

A

Choroidal neovascularization

37
Q

A 50 yr old woman comes to the clinic due to insomnia and anxiety over the past few months. The patient’s last menstrual period was 1 yr ago, but she denies hot flashes or vaginal dryness. The patient notes that her hair has become fine lately, and she has been losing weight without intention. On physical exam, a nontender, diffuse goiter is noted. Lab tests show low TSH and high free T3 and T4 serum levels. The physician suspects that the patient’s condition is due to the most common cause of hyperthyroidism. Which of the following is the most specific finding for this condition?
Elevated creatine kinase levels
Onycholysis
Myxedema
Exophthalmos
Atrial fibrillation

A

Exophthalmos

38
Q

A 41yr old man presents to the primary care clinic b/c of left eye pain and dryness that has progressed throughout the day. His eye felt irritated when he awoke this morning, but he has not noticed that the left side of his mouth is drooping compared to the right and his left brow does not furrow as much as the right. His hearing is intact bilaterally, and he has no ear pain or tinnitus. He has had no recent travel, immunizations, or new medications and resides in Arizona. He has been under significant stress at work. Temp is 37, P is 65, Resp 20, and BP is 118/80. There is no conjunctival erythema or discharge. Pupils are equally reactive and round. There is decreased tear production. He is unable to fully close his left eye. There is flattening of the left nasolabial fold. The left pinna, external ear canal, and tympanic membrane appear normal. Which of the following additional historical or physical examination findings would be expected given the most likely diagnosis?
Erythema migrans rash
tingling in both feet and areflexia
hearing loss
left arm numbness and weakness
lack of additional neurologic deficit.

A

Lack of additional neurologic deficits

39
Q

A 71yr old man presents to urgent care for evaluation of left sided facial droop for the past few hours. He was eating dinner with his partner when she noticed he was drooling slightly on the left side and his speech was slurred. They observed that the right side of his face was drooping compared to the left. There is no history of recent falls. Past medical history is significant for HTN, T2DM and hypercholesterolemia, which are all well controlled with medication. Temp is 37, P is 80, Resp 20 and BP is 148/92. Weight is 104kg and Ht is 5’10”. Physical examination shows an asymmetric smile with mild drooling and dysarthria. The patient is sensitive to tuning fork stimulation on the right side. Point of care glucose is 150. which of the following is the best next step in management?
Non-contrast CT of the head
MRI of head w/o contrast
examination of the skin and external auditory canal on the left side
assessment of frontalis and orbicularis oculi function bilaterally
oral corticosteroids

A

Assessment of frontalis and orbicularis oculi function bilaterally

40
Q

A 37yr old man presents to the emergency department for right arm numbness and slurred speech. Since awakening 6 hrs ago, he has not been able to feel his right upper arm when he touches it. He also noticed that he has been slurring his speech and drooling, with there is liquid leaking out of the right side of his mouth when he drinks. The patient has been using IV drugs on and off for the last ten yrs. Temp is 39, P 110, Resp 20, BP 120/80. Physical examination shows flattening of the right nasolabial fold and an asymmetric smile. He raises both eyebrows equally well and has a normal eye exam bilaterally. There is subjective sensory loss throughout the right upper extremity and pronator drift of the right arm. An electrocardiogram shows sinus tachycardia. Which of the following should be performed next to confirm the most likely diagnosis?
Brain MRI w/ and w/o gadolinium contrast
Aerobic blood culture
Cerebrospinal fluid gram stain and culture
Electromyogram and nerve conduction study
CT of the head w/o iodinated contrast

A

Brain MRI w/ and w/o gadolinium contrast

41
Q

Closed-angle glaucoma can be precipitated by ______ of the pupil in a person with pre-existing anatomically narrow anterior chamber angle.

A

dilation

42
Q

______ is a direct muscarinic agonist used to treat open angle glaucoma and xerostomia as it stimulates sweating, tearing, and salivation.

A

Pilocarpine

43
Q

______ medications treat glaucoma by increasing the uveoscleral outflow of aqueous humor.

A

Prostaglandin analog (e.g. latanoprost and bimatoprost)

44
Q

The most common and severe complication of glaucoma is ______.

A

blindness

45
Q

Timolol is a non-selective beta adrenergic blocker used for (closed/open) angle glaucoma as it decreases the secretion of aqueous humor.

A

open

46
Q

Acute angle-closure is a form of (open/closed) angle glaucoma and is an ophthalmological emergency.

A

closed

47
Q

(Open/Closed) angle glaucoma has a more silent progression, and may lead to a delay in diagnosis.

A

Open

48
Q

Chronic glaucoma is characterized by decreased vision starting from the (peripheral/central) visual field.

A

peripheral

49
Q

In glaucoma, intraocular pressure can be measured with ______.

A

tonometry

50
Q

______ is defined as an elevation of intraocular pressure with atrophy of the retina and cupping of the optic disk with progressive peripheral visual field loss.

A

Glaucoma

51
Q

(Open/Closed) angle glaucoma accounts for 90% of all cases of glaucoma.

A

Open

52
Q

Acute (open/closed) angle glaucoma is a potential ocular complication of atropine when used in the elderly due to mydriasis as a side effect.

A

closed

53
Q

The most common cause of (primary/secondary) open angle glaucoma is genetic abnormalities of the trabecular meshwork.

A

Primary

54
Q

A patient presents to a walk in clinic with nasal congestion. On inspection, there is a large build up of mucus obstructing the openings just beneath the middle conchae at the middle meatus. Which sinuses will be unable to drain into the nasal cavity?
Maxillary sinus and sphenoid sinus
Frontal sinus and posterior ethmoid air cells
Sphenoid sinus and posterior ethmoid air cells
Frontal sinus and maxillary sinus

A

Frontal sinus and maxillary sinus

55
Q

A patient comes into the emergency room with a nose bleed. The emergency room physician looks into the nose with a camera and notes that the artery responsible passes through the sphenopalatine foramen. What artery does the injured artery branch from?

A

Maxillary artery

56
Q

Erythema or exudates of the tonsils or pharynx, fever, tender anterior cervical nodes, and absence of conjunctivitis, cough and rhinorrhea, are findings suggestive of an upper respiratory tract infection caused by ______.

A

Group A Streptococci

57
Q

Upper respiratory tract infections are usually self-limited (bacterial/viral) infections.

A

viral

58
Q

_____, also known as IgA vasculitis, commonly manifests following an upper respiratory tract infection.

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

59
Q

Infection in the nose, nasal sinuses, pharynx, or larynx above the vocal cords is referred to as ______ infections.

A

upper respiratory tract

60
Q

Cephalexin is effective against gram-_______ respiratory infections.

A

positive

61
Q

The common cold, pertussis, sinusitis, and pharyngitis are types of _______ infections.

A

upper respiratory tract

62
Q

_______ is the drug of choice for respiratory infections due to methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.

A

Vancomycin

63
Q

A 34 yr old man presents to his primary care physician for evaluation of sinus pressure. The patient has had a stuffy nose with purulent discharge for the past two weeks. In addition, he has been experiencing headaches and ear fullness. His symptoms began improving around 11-12 days after onset but then took a turn for the worse. Past medical history is notable for Type 2 DM, for which he takes metformin daily. Temp 38.9, P 101, R 19, BP 132/71. Physical exam demonstrates tenderness to palpation over the bilateral maxillary sinuses. Which of the following organisms is the most likely cause of this patient’s clinical presentation?
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Moraxella catarrhalis
Streptococcus pyogenes
Enterococcus faecalis

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

64
Q

A 21 yr old man presents to the university health center for evaluation of sore throat. The patient has been experiencing worsening sore throat, fatigue, and swollen lymph nodes over the past 10-days. In addition, he has been experiencing a mild cough. His symptoms have not been relieved with over the counter Tylenol or with the amoxicillin prescribed by his primary care physician, which resulted in the development of an erythematous, maculopapular rash. Past medical history is noncontributory, and he does not take any medications. T 37.6, P 91, R 16, BP 135/71. Physical examination demonstrates tender submandibular and posterior cervical lymphadenopathy. Oropharyngeal examination reveals bilateral tonsillar swelling with exudate. Which of the following clinical features can best help differentiate this patient’s disease process from other causes of pharyngitis?
Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy
Anterior cervical lymphadenopathy
Presence of cough
Tonsillar exudate
Fatigue

A

Posterior cervical lymphadenopathy

65
Q

A 50 yr old woman is admitted to the emergency room for facial pain, weakness, and malaise. She also has a throbbing headache. Past medical history significant for Type 2 DM and HIV. Home medications include zidovudine, lamivudine, lopinavir, ritonavir, and metformin. However, she admits to poor compliance with the medications. The patient’s CD4 count is 121 and viral load is 50,000. physical examination shows exquisite tenderness to palpation over the right maxillary sinus. Additionally, there is a black eschar over her nares and palate. Which of the following symptoms would suggest a sever complication of the patients condition?
Blood-tinged nasal discharge
Reduced ability to detect odors
Impaired extraocular eye movements
Retro-orbital pain
Altered mental status

A

Impaired extraocular eye movements

66
Q

When pressure decreases in the environment, the eardrum (bulges/retracts) to help balance the pressure between the middle ear and the outer ear.

A

bulges

67
Q

The eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the ______.

A

nasopharynx

68
Q

______ can be surgically placed to equilibrate the pressure between the middle and out ear.

A

Tympanostomy tubes

69
Q

A eustachian tube that stays open instead of acting like a valve can lead to infection of the _______.

A

middle ear

70
Q

Eustachian tube dysfunction causes a problem with equalizing the pressure across the ______.

A

tympanic membrane

71
Q

A patient presents with a painful, tender red “spot” on the right eyelid at a hair follicle. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Hordeolum (stye)

72
Q

The condition in which the upper eyelid droops is called __________.

A

Ptosis

73
Q

A patient presents with watery discharge from the right eye, accompanied by redness of the sclera and lining of the eyelids. The patient reports it feels “gritty” and “burns.” He has had an upper respiratory infection. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A

Viral conjunctivitis

74
Q

The condition in which there is sudden onset of redness of one eye accompanied by the sensitivity to light, a change in vision, and pain in the eye is most likely to be ________.

A

acute uveitis

75
Q

The goal for treatment of patients with glaucoma is________ .

A

lowering intraocular pressure

76
Q

Failure to identify and adequately treat glaucoma most likely leads to ________.

A

blindness

77
Q

The nurse practitioner should suspect glaucoma when the patient reports which of the following:
Seeing halos around lights
Difficulty recognizing faces
Straight lines appear wavy
Visual hallucinations

A

Seeing halos around lights

78
Q

Which lymph node drains the eye?

A

preauricular

79
Q

The organism most likely to cause otitis externa is _________.

A

Pseudomonas

80
Q

The hallmark symptom for otitis externa is _______.

A

pain with movement of the pinna

81
Q

What finding would the nurse practitioner expect to observe when examining a patient with acute otitis media?

A

A red bulging tympanic membrane

82
Q

An involuntary abnormal movement of one or both eyes is called ___________.

A

Nystagmus

83
Q
A

MWU Patho (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions