heart Flashcards

1
Q

DVT CAUSE

A

inflammation
hypercoagulation
endothelial injury

genetic factor V leiden
prothrombin mutation

acquiredb- antiphospholioid antibody syn
cancer, hypertension, COPD,chronic kidney
long travel
hormone replacement
surgery
trauma
pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

most common cause of thromnoohilia

A

antiohospholioid antibody syn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

?

A

Increased pulmonary vascular resistance due to vascular obstruction or platelet secretion of vasoconstricting neurohumoral agents such as serotonin. Release of vasoactive mediators can produce ventilation-perfusion mismatching at sites remote from the embolus, thereby accounting for discordance between a small PE and a large alveolar-arterial O2 gradient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

effecet of pulmonary embolism on heart?

A

Pulmonary artery obstruction causes a rise in pulmonary
artery pressure and in pulmonary vascular resistance. When RV wall tension rises, RV dilation and dysfunction ensue, with release of the PART 10 Disorders of the Cardiovascular System cardiac biomarker, brain natriuretic peptide. The interventricular septum bulges into and compresses an intrinsically normal left ventricle (LV). Diastolic LV dysfunction reduces LV distensibility and impairs LV filling. Increased RV wall tension also compresses the right coronary artery, limits myocardial oxygen supply, and precipitates right coronary artery ischemia and RV microinfarction, with release of cardiac biomarkers such as troponin. Underfilling of the LV may lead to a fall in LV cardiac output and systemic arterial pressure, with consequent circulatory collapse and death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

clinical manifestations of DVT

A
calf pain 
tenderness 
erythema 
pitting edema 
collateral nonvaricose veins 
if PE 
dyspnea
hemopsis
syncopw 
hypotension 
cyanosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

chest xray finding of PE

A

Well-established abnormalities include focal oligemia (Westermark’s sign),
a peripheral wedged-shaped density above the diaphragm (Hampton’s hump), and an
enlarged right descending pulmonary artery (Palla’s sign).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

decide for imaging

A

for dvt and pe same

if low risk - then ddimer if normal no dvt / no pe
high imaging
if moderate or high - imaging

in imaging for DVT
venous ultrasound if diagnostic then stop
if non diagnostic then MR/CT/PHLEBOGRAPHY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

pe imaging test

A

PE IMAGING TEST

CHEST CT IF diagnostic stop
if non diagnostic
lung scan ( VQ MISMATCH)
IF DIAGNOSTIC stop
if not diagnostic
venous ultrasound if + then treat for PE
if - then do ECHO transesoppsgeal /MR/inavsive pulmonary angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

lower extremity occlusive ds classification

A

fontaine
e Fontaine classification uses four stages: Fontaine I is the stage when patients are asymptomatic; Fontaine II is when they have mild (IIa) or severe (IIb) claudication; Fontaine III is when they have ischemic rest pain; and Fontaine IV is when patients suffer tissue loss, such as ulceration or gangrene (Tab

rutherford
The Rutherford classification has four grades (0–III) and seven categories (0–6). Asymptomatic patients are classified
into category 0; claudicants are stratified into grade I and divided into three categories based on the severity of the symptoms; patients with rest pain belong to grade II and category 4; and patients with tissue loss are classified into grade III and categories 5 and 6 based on the significance of the tissue loss.2 These clinical classifications help to establish uniform standards in evaluating and reporting the results

TASC CLASSIFATION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

debakey classification

A

type 1 ascending + descending
type2 only ascending
type3a descending thoracic
3b descending thoracic + aortal

STANFORD

A Ascending
B Descending

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

clinical manifestations of peripferal artery ds

A

symptoms
intermittent claudication
rest pain

signs
decreased or absent pulse
muscle atrophy 
hairloss
thicked nails
smooth shiny skin 
decreased skin temp
pallor
cyanosis
ulcer gangrene 
edema if they keep leg in dependant position 
ischemic neuropathy leading to numbness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

wht is intermittent claudication

A

t. The most common symptom is intermittent claudication, which is defined as a pain, ache, cramp, numbness, or a sense of fatigue in the muscles; it occurs during exercise and is relieved by rest. The site of claudication is distal to the location of the occlusive lesion. For example, buttock, hip, thigh, and calf discomfort occurs in patients with aortoiliac disease, whereas calf claudication develops in patients with femoral-poplite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

why is ankle pressure higher thn arm

A

due to pulse wave amplification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

fibromuscular dysplasia

A

small veselsa
mostly renal , carotid involved
string of beads on angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

thromboangitis obliteratans

A

Thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger’s disease) is an inflammatory occlusive vascular disorder involving small and medium-size arteries and veins in the distal upper and lower extremites
men
cigratter smoking
TRIAD of claudication of the affected extremity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and migratory superficial vein thrombophlebitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

burger ds

A

thromboangitis obliteratans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

vesels effected in thromboangitis obliteratans

A

distal radial , ulnar tibial mostly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

causes of acute limb ischemia

A

emboli most common from heart, also from aorta
thrombus plaque rupture
dissection
trauma punctures and placement of catheters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

thoracic outlet compression sym

A

triad of claudication of the affected extremity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, and migratory superficial vein thrombophlebitis

painful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

clinical manifestations of av fistula

A

pulsatile mass
thrill briut continuously for systolic and diastole
increased temp
chronic av fistula leads to venous insufficiency
large av fistula lead to high output cardiac failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

nicoladoni branham sign

A

Compression of a large arteriovenous fistula may cause reflex slowing of the heart rate (Nicoladoni-Branham sign).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

raynauds phenomenon

A

Raynaud’s phenomenon is characterized by episodic digital ischemia, manifested clinically by the sequential development of digital blanching, cyanosis, and rubor of the fingers or toes after cold exposure and subsequent rewarming

primary cause all sec excluded due to stress / emotions
idiopathic
secondary causes
Collagen vascular diseases: scleroderma, systemic lupus erythematosus,
rheumatoid arthritis
, dermatomyositis, polymyositis, mixed connective tissue disease, Sjögren’s syndrome
Arterial occlusive diseases:
atherosclerosis of the extremities, thromboangiitis obliterans, acute arterial occlusion, t
thoracic outlet syndrome
Pulmonary hypertension
Neurologic disorders: intervertebral disk disease, syringomyelia, spinal cord tumors, stroke, poliomyelitis, carpal tunnel syndrome, complex regional pain syndrome
Blood dyscrasias: cold agglutinins, cryoglobulinemia, cryofibrinogenemia, myeloproliferative disorders, lymphoplasmacytic lymphoma
Trauma: vibration injury, hammer hand syndrome, electric shock, cold injury,
typing, piano playing
Drugs and toxins: ergot derivatives, methysergide, β-adrenergic receptor blockers, bleomycin, vinblastine, cisplatin, gemcita

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

where does raynauds phenomenon occur

A

fingers and toes only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

colour change in raynauds phenomenon

A

sequential?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

acrocyanosis

A

this condition, there is arterial vasoconstriction and secondary dilation of the capillaries and venules with resulting persistent cyanosis of the hands and, less frequently, the feet. Cyanosis may be intensified by exposure to a cold environment. Acrocyanosis may be categorized as primary or secondary to an underlying condition. In primary acrocyanosis, women are affected much more frequently than men, and the age of onset is usually <30 years. Generally, patients are asymptomatic but seek medical attention because of the discoloration. The prognosis is favorable, and pain, ulcers, and gangrene do not occur. Examination reveals normal pulses, peripheral cyanosis, and moist p

difference between raynauds phenomenon

no ulcer / gangrene
persistent not episodic
normal pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

liveido reticularis

A

In this condition, localized areas of the extremities develop a mottled or rete (netlike) appearance of reddish to blue discolora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

pernio

A

Pernio is a vasculitic disorder associated with exposure to cold; acute forms have been described. Raised erythematous lesions develop on the lower part of the legs and feet in cold weather (Fig. 302-3D). They are associated with pruritus and a burning sensation, and they may blister and ulc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

erythromelalgia

A

burning pain erythema of extremities
feet ?
by exposure to warm environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

frost bite

A

In this condition, tissue damage results from severe environmental cold exposure or from direct contact with a very cold object. Tissue injury results from both freezing and vasoconstriction. Frostbite usually affects the distal aspects of the extremities or exposed parts of the face, such as the ears, nose, chin, and cheeks

2 types deep and superficial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

varicose veins

A
dilated bulging torturous 
primary- superficial system 
secondary - deep and perforators 
 PRIMARY
obesity 
aging 
hormonal therapy
Obesity

SECONDARY
venous hypertension
dvt
incompetent perforators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

clinical manifestations of varicose veins

A
asymptomatic
rupture 
dull , ache 
throbbing sensation 
pressure sensation 
relived by leg elevation 
cramping 
burning 
pruritis
leg swelling 
skin changes - hyperpigmentation- eczema- lipodermatosclerosis( induration, hemosiderin,inflammation)
atrpohie blanche( white patch of scar)
phlebectasia corona( fan shaped pattern of intradermal veins)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

causes of lymohedema

A
Primary 
Sporadic (no identified cause) 
Genetic disorders 
   Milroy’s disease 
Meige’s disease 
Lymphedema-distichiasis syndrome 
Cholestasis-lymphedema 
Hypotrichosis-lymphedema-telangiectasi
a Turner’s syndrome 
Klinefelter’s syndrome
 Trisomy 13, 18, or 21 
Noonan’s syndrome 
Klippel-Trénaunay syndrome 
Parkes-Weber syndrome 
Hennekam’s syndrome 
Yellow nail syndrome 
Intestinal lymphangiectasia syndrome Lymphangiomyomatosis 
Neurofibromatosis type 1 
Secondary 
Infection Bacterial lymphangitis (Streptococcus pyogenes, Staphylococcus aureus) 
Lymphogranuloma venereum (Chlamydia trachomatis) Filariasis (Wucheria bancrofti, Brugia malayi, B. timori) Tuberculosis 
Neoplastic infiltration of lymph nodes
 Lymphoma 
Prostate
 Others 
Surgery or irradiation of axillary or inguinal lymph nodes for treatment of cancer 
Iatrogenic
 Lymphatic division (during peripheral bypass surgery, varicose vein   surgery, or harvesting of saphenous veins) Miscellaneous 
Contact dermatitis
 Rheumatoid arthritis 
Pregnancy
 Factitious
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

primary and secondary lymphedema

A

primary
agenesis , hypoplasia,
secondary
acquired ??

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

clinical manifestations of lymphedema

A
painless
thickening of skin 
peud orange 
woody  texture 
edema
stemmer sign
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

difference bw primary and secondary lymphededema

A

lymphoscintigraphy

lymangiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

who grp

A

WHO
GRP 1 PULMONARY ARTERY HYPERTENSION mean
pulmonary artery wedge pressur <15
trans pulmonary gradient elevated
pulmonary vascular resistance elevated
GRP2.PULMONARY HYPERTENSION WITH LEFT HEART DS
mean pulmonary artery wedge pressur increased
trans pulmonary gradient normal
pulmonary vascular resistance normal
GRP3 PULMONARY HYPERTENSION WITH LUNG DISEASE
GRP4 PULMONARY HYPERTENSION WITH CHRONIC THROMBOEMBOLIC EMBOLISM
GRP 5 PULMONARY HYPERTENSION WITH MULTI FACTORIAL CAUSES

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

characteristics of ischemic pain

A

•duration
not for seconds nor for days but for mins
•quality
dull sore
•location
diffuse 95% of time cannot be pointed by a finger
substernal 90%
•radiation neck or arm can be nonradiating
not associated with tenderness or does not change with change in posture
• increased by exertion and relieved by rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

response to therapy can be used for diagnosis of

A
  • naloxone and opiates
  • fluconazole and esophageal candidiasis
  • ?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

differnce of more than 20 mmhg in both arms is indiactive of

A

aortic dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

differnce of more than 20 mmhg in both arms is indiactive of

A

aortic dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

wide split S2 causes

A

RIGHT BUNDLE BRANCH BLOCK
pulmonary hypertension
pulmonary stenosis
rht ventricular hypertrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

paradoxical split s2

A

LBBB
Left ventricular hypertrophy
hypertension
aortic stenosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

fixed split s2 causes

A

atrial septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

cause of s4 gallop

A

contraction of atrial against a stiff or noncompliant ventricle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

pt presenting with history of long term hypertension wht is most likely physical finding

A

s4 gallop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

ck mb start increasing when

A

3-4 hrs peak by 12hrs
remain elevated for 3- 4 days
biomarker for reinfarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

treatment of choice in STEMI

A

PCI OR THROMBOLYTICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

how much elevation in ecg of stemi is significant

A

1 mm or more in 2 leads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

pt comes with 7th day post mi with chest pain

which is the initial test

A

initial test is ekg
next is cardiac biomarker

ckmb if elevated it is reinfarction as it decreases by 3- 4 th day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

preferred biomarker for myocardial infarction

A

troponins greater senstivity and specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

tropins are elevated in which condition

A

myocardial infarction
renal ds
polymyositis
dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Patients with a normal CK-MB level but elevated troponin level
signify ?

A

sustained minor myocardial damage, or microinfarction,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

patients with elevations of both CK-MB and troponins are ____

A

considered to have had acute myocardial infarction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

late biomarker for infarction

A

troponins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Differential Diagnosis of Conditions Causing Chest Pain

A

••NON CARDIOVASCULAR
Costochondritis
Pain exacerbated with inspiration; reproduced with chest wall palpitation
Hiatal hernia Reflux of food; relief with antacids
GERD Acid reflux; relief with antacids
Peptic ulcer Epigastric pain worse 3 h after eating Gallbladder disease Right upper quadrant abdominal pain and tenderness

••CARDIOVASCULAR Disorders
Differentiating Features Myocardial infarction Pain more severe, usually >20 min in duration
Aortic stenosis Typical systolic ejection murmur
Myocarditis Pain is usually vague and mild if present Pericarditis Pain is sharper, pain worse with lying down and relieved by sitting up
Dissecting aortic aneurysm Pain is sharp, tearing, often occurs in back
Mitral valve prolapse Transient pain, midsystolic click murmur, and young female with no risk factors

••PULMONARY DISORDERS Differentiating Features
Pulmonary embolus-infarction Tachypnea, dyspnea, cough, pleuritic pain, hemoptysis
Pulmonary hypertension Signs of right ventricle (RV) failure Pneumothorax Sudden onset of pain and dyspnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

test of choice for pulmonary embolism in pregnant women

A

VQ scanning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

a guy comes with pleuritic chest pain which improves on leaning forward there is ST segment depression without q waves is given naproxen but does not improve wht next treatment

A

give steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

most specific sign for pericarditis iS

A

PR SEGMENT DEPRESSION

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q
which of following improves most with excesise  
triglycerides
HDL
LDL
total cholesterol
A

HDL
life style modification like wt loss
excersise quit smoking dec HDL MOST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

how to diagnose stable angina

A

history of chest pain increased on excertion relieved on taking rest
ekg - ve
stress test +ve
by excersise or those who cannot excersise dobutamine
exercise treadmill test (exercise stress test) is the most useful test for evaluating the cause of chronic chest pain when there is concern about IHD (stable angina).
Exercise stress testing provides a controlled environment for observing the effects of increases in the myocardial demand for oxygen.

In order to do an appropriate analysis, a target heart rate must be reached
. • Target heart rate is 85% of predicted maximum heart rate: 85% × (220 – patient’s age)

positive stress test means
An exercise stress test is considered positive for myocardial ischemia when large (>2 mm) ST-segment depressions or hypotension (a drop of >10 mm Hg in systolic pressure) occur either alone or in combination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

criteria for positive stress test

A

An exercise stress test is considered positive for
myocardial ischemia when large (>2 mm) ST-segment depressions or
hypotension (a drop of >10 mm Hg in systolic pressure) occur either alone or in combination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

contraindications for stress test

A
Exercise stress testing is contraindicated when it may place the patient at increased risk of  cardiac instability,  as in the following settings:
 •  Aortic dissection
 •  Acute myocardial infarction
 •  Unstable angina 
•  Severe CHF
 •  Uncontrolled sustained ventricular arrhythmias •  Symptomatic supraventricular arrhythmia
 •  Significant aortic stenosis
 •  Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy 
•  Severe uncontrolled hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

stress test for those who cannot excersise or those whose ekg cannot be read ( LBBB , on digoxin, pacemaker , lvh )

A

▪dipyradomole thallium uptake
shows decreased thallium uptake
▪dobutamine echo
decreased wall motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

difficulty reading ekg

A

lbbb
on digoxin
lvh

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

ekg changes by digoxin

A

downsloping st segment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

stess + ve wht next

A

stress test +ve 》angiography
↙️ ↘️
3 vsel ds or left main a 1/2 vessel
and 2 vsel in diabetic ⬇️
⬇️ ⬇️
CABG ANGIOPLASTY ie balloon
dilation and stenting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

if both st depression or st elevation present on mi which to consider?

A

st elevation as it is worst thing
st depression means ischemia
st elevation means infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

ventricular tachycardia treatment

A

wide complex tachycardia qrs greater than 120 msec

if pt is stable➡️amiodarine / lidocaine
if pt is not stable ➡️shock therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

worst risk factor for cad

A

diabetes mellitus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

most common risk factor for cornonary artery ds

A

hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

presentations of coronary artery disease

A
CAD can have the following clinical presentations: •Asymptomatic 
•Stable angina pectoris
• unstable angina pectoris 
 •MI—eitherNSTEMIor STEMI 
•Suddencardiacdeath
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

types of stress test

A

Types of Stress Tests test
•Exercise ECG Exercise – STsegment depression
•dobutamine echocardiogram— Wall motion abnormalities
• Exercise or dipyridamole perfusion study (thallium/ technetium) — Decreased uptake of the nuclear isotope during exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

when a stress test is comsidered +ve

A
A  stress   test   is   generally considered   positive   if   the patient   develops   any  of  the following   duringexercise:
• ST   segment   depression,
 •chest   pain,   
•  hypotension,  or
• significant   arrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

most accurate method of determining specific cardiac diagnoais

A

coronary angiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

indiactions for cardiac catherisation

A

Aftera positive stress test.
•Acute MI with intent of performing angiogram and PCI. •patient with angina in any of the following situations:When noninvasive tests are non diagnostic,
•angina that occurs despite medical therapy, angina that occurs soon afterMI ,and any angina that is a diagnostic dilemma.
•If patient is severely symptomatic and urgent diagnosis and management are necessary.
•For evaluation of valvular disease ,and to determine the need for surgical intervention.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

management of stable angina

A

▪Mild disease (normal EF, mild angina, single-vessel disease) •Nitrates (for symptoms and as prophylaxis)and a β-blocker are appropriate
•Consider calcium channel blockers if symptoms continue despite nitrates and β-blockers

▪. Moderate disease (normal EF, moderate angina, two-vessel disease) •If the above regimen does not contro l symptoms,consider coronary angiography to assess suitability for revascularization (either PCI or CABG)

▪. Severe disease (decreased EF, severe angina, and three-vessel/left main or left anterior descending disease)
Coronary angiography and consider for CABG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

treatment of unstable angina

A
goal is to prevent the expansion of clot 
▪medical treatment 
     aspirin 
    clopidogeral 
   bblocker 
    nitrates
    low molecular wht heparin
    oxygen
    gp2b3a inhibitors 

▪ cardiac catherisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

ecg changes in mi and there inference

A

ST segment elevation – transmural ischemia

ST SEGMENT DEPRESSION— subendocardial injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

duration of time within which thromobolytics can be given

A

12 hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

categories of infarcts

A

•ST segment elevation infarct:
Transmural (involves entire thickness of wall); tends to be larger
•Non-ST segment elevation infarct:
Subendocardial (involves inner one-third to one-half of the wall); tends to be smaller, and presentation is similar to USA—cardiac enzymes differentiate the two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

gold standard for myocardial injury

A

cardiac enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

rise , peak and fall of cardiac enzymes

A

start of increase peak remain elevated l

TROPONINS 3-5 hrs 24-48hrs 5-14days
CKMB 4-8hrs 24hrs 2- 3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

indication of thrombolytic therapy

A

Indications
•st segment elevation in two contiguous ECG leads in patients with pain on set within 6hours
•who have been refractory to nitroglycerin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

within wht time thrombolytic can be given

A

12 hrs of onset of pain upto 24 hrs

best if given within 6hrs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

treatment of heart block as a complication of mi

A

1st and 2nd degree ( type 1) does not require treatment
2nd degree ( type2 ) and third degree
↙️ ↘️
if ant wall mi if inf wall mi
⬇️ ⬇️
•emergent •iv atropine initially
placement of if conduction not restored then
pacemaker pacemaker
• bad prognosis • gud prognosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

dresslar syndrome

A

postmyocardial infarction syndrome”

a. Immunologically based syndrome consisting of fever, malaise, pericarditis, leukocytosis, and pleuritis, occurring weeks to months after an MI
b. Aspirin is the most effective therapy. Ibuprofen is a second option

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

most common non cardiac cause of chest pain

A

gastrointestinal

88
Q

causes of high output cardiac failure

A
Causesinclude: •
•Chronic anemia
 •Pregnancy
 •Hyperthyroidism
 •AV fistulas 
•Wet beri beri(caused by thiamine [vitaminB1  ]deficiency) •Paget disease of  bone
 •MR 
•Aortic  insufficiency
89
Q

most common cause of diasystolic function

A

hypertension

90
Q

causes of diasystolic failure

A

HTN leading to myocardial hypertrophy—most common cause of diastolic dysfunction
•Valvular diseases such as aortic stenosis(AS) ,mitralstenosis ,and aortic regurgitation •Restrictive cardiomyopathy (e.g.,amyloidosis,sarcoidosis,hemochromatosis)

91
Q

NYHA CLASSIFICATION

A

NYHAclassI:
Symptoms only occur with vigorous activities ,such as playing a sport.Patients are nearly asymptomatic.
•NYHAclassII
:Symptoms occur with prolonged o r moderate exertion ,such as climbing a flight of stairs or carrying heavy packages. Slight limitation of activities
. •NYHAclassIII:
Symptoms occur with usual activities of daily living ,such as walking across the room or getting dressed.Markedly limiting.
•NYHAclassIV:
Symptoms occur at rest. Incapacitating.

92
Q

symptoms of chf

A
dyspnea
orthopnea
PND
nocturnal cough 
confusion memory impaired 
diaphoresis
93
Q

signs of left sided heart failure

A

displaced pmi
S3 follows S2
heard best at apex with bell

S4
precedes S1
heard best at left sternal border with bell
Crackles
dullness on percussion due to pulmonary edema

94
Q

signs of rht sided heart failure

A
peripheral edema pitting
nocturia
inc jvp
hepatomegaly 
ascitis 
rht ventricular heave
95
Q

relationship of digoxin and potassium

A

inverse relationship

more pottasium less digoxin
less pottasium more digoxin

thus bblocker }
ace inhibitor } 》》》 prevent digoxin toxicity by inc
arb} pottasium
spironolactone}

96
Q

signs and treatment of digoxin toxicity

A
Toxic Effects of  Digitalis 
•  Nausea and vomiting
 •  Gynecomastia 
•  Blurred vision
 •  Yellow halo around objects
 •  Arrhythmias—commonly paroxysmal atrial tachycardia (PAT) with block,  PVCs (premature ventricular contractions),  and bradycardia

treatment

Treatment for Intoxication
• Stop drug
• Lidocaine and phenytoin (for arrhythmia)
• Digibind only for acute overdose

97
Q

drug interaction of digoxin

A

▪Quinidine
Increase
Mechanism Decreases renal clearance of digoxin
▪ Verapamil, diltiazam
increases digoxin level
Decreases renal clearance of digoxin
▪Cholestyramine, colestipol
decreases digoxin level
Binds digoxin in GI tract; interferes with enterohepatic circulation
▪ Spironolactone
increases
Inhibits tubular secretion of digoxin
▪Thiazides, furosemide
increases
Diuretic-induced hypokalemia and/or bumetanide hypomagnesemia potentiates digitalis action

98
Q

treatment of diasystolic heart failure

A

avoid digoxin and ace inhibitors

use
diuretics if fluid overload
bblocker

99
Q

drugs tht increase survival in chf patients ie decrease mortality

A
bblocker 
    lesser the ejection fraction more the mortality benefit 
vasodilators 
     isosorbide 
      hydralazine
spironolactone 
intracardiac defibrillator
100
Q

treatment for systolic heart failure

A

diuretics
symptomatic relief
does not lower mortality
spironolactone
for advanced stage 3/4 heart failure
eplerenone an alternative does not cause gynaecomastia
ace inhibitor
venous and arterial dilator ⬇️preload and afterload
diuretics +ace should be initial treatment for most chf pt
prolong survival
angiotensin receptor blocker
bblocker
⬇️ mortality in post mi heart failure
should be give to stable pts with mild to moderate chf class1,2,3
all blocker are not equal benefit seen by
metoprolol,bisoprolol,carvedilol

digitalis
for pts with ejection fraction <40%, severe CHF ,severe atrial fibrillation

hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate

101
Q

priciples of treatment of heart failure

A

mild CHF (NyHa Classes i to ii)
•Mild restriction of sodium intake (no-added-salt diet of 4g sodium) and physical activity.
•Start a loop diuretic if volume overload or pulmonary congestion is present
. •Use an ACE inhibitor as a first-line agent.

mild to moderate CHF (NyHa Classes ii to iii)
•Start a diuretic (loop diuretic) and an ACE inhibitor. •
Add a b blocker if moderate disease (classIIorIII) is present and the response to standard treatment is suboptimal.

moderate to severe CHF (NyHa Classes iii to iv)
•Add digoxin(to loop diuretic and ACE inhibitor).
•Note that digoxin may be added at any time for the relief of symptoms in patients with systolic dysfunction. (It doesnot improve mortality.)
•In patient with class IV symptoms who are still symptomatic despite the above, adding spironolactone can be helpful.

102
Q

which medications are contraindicated in chf

A

Metformin—may cause potentially lethal lactic acidosis •Thiazolidinediones—causes fluid retention
•NSAIDs may increase risk of CHF exacerbation

103
Q

symptoms of mitral stenosis

A

Dyspnea
• Orthopnea
• Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
• Fatigue
• Wasting
• Hemoptysis (due to rupture of pulmonary vessels)
• Systemic embolism (due to stagnation of blood in an enlarged left atrium)
• Hoarseness (due to impingement of an enlarged left atrium on the recurrent laryngeal nerve)
• Right-sided heart failure–Hepatomegaly–Ascites–Peripheral edema

104
Q

signs of mitral stenosis

A

Physical Signs
• Atrial fibrillation (irregular cardiac rhythm)
• Loud S1
• Opening snap following S2
• Diastolic rumble (low-pitched apical murmur)
• Sternal lift (due to right ventricular enlargement)

105
Q

signs if enlarged left atrium

A

straightening of left heart border
double bouble behind the ventricle
pushed up left main br bronchus

106
Q

surgical treatment for mitral and aortic

A

ballooning of mitral valve

replacement od aortic valve

107
Q

best initial test for valvular heart ds

A

echocardiography

108
Q

most accurate test for valvular heart ds

A

cardiac catherisation

109
Q

criteria for operation in mitral regurgitation

A

EJECTION FRACTION

110
Q

presentations of mitral valve prolapse

A

pain
palpitations
panic attacks
syncope

111
Q

ausculatatory finding of mitral valve prolapse

A

mid to late systolic click

112
Q

effect of valsalva and squatting

A

valsalva and standing ⬇️ blood to heart
leg raising and squaatimg ⬆️blood to heart

all left sided murmer ⬇️with dec in blood and ⬆️with inc in blood except mitral valve prolapse and hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

113
Q

most common cause of aortic steosis

A

age related calcificatiom

114
Q

symptoms of mitral stenosis

A

symptoms
Exertional dyspnea,
orthopnea,
PND
b. Palpitations,
chest pain
Hemoptysis—as the elevated LA pressure ruptures anastomoses of small bronchial veins
d. Thromboembolism—often associated with AFib
e. If RVF occurs, ascites and edema may develop

115
Q

signs of mitral stenosis

A

Mitral stenosis murmur. •
The opening snap is followed by a low-pitched diastolic rumble and presystolic accentuation.
This murmur increases in length as the disease worsens. •Heard best with bell lof stethoscope in left lateral decubitus position.
b. S2 is followed by an opening snap. The distance between S2 and the opening snap can give an indication as to the severity of the stenosis. The closer the opening snap follows S2, the worse is the stenosis.
c. Murmur is followed by a loud S1. A loud S1 may be the most prominent physical finding
. d. With long-standing disease, will find signs of RVF (e.g., right ventricular heave, JVD, hepatomegaly, ascites) and/or pulmonary HTN (loud P2)

116
Q

echocardiography finding of mitral valve strnosis

A
Echocardiogram—
most important test in confirming diagnosis 
a.  Left atrial enlargement 
b.  Thick, calcified mitral valve 
c.  Narrow, “fish mouth”-shaped orifice 
d.  Signs of RVF if advanced disease
117
Q

symptoms of aortic stenosis

A

Angina(35%)—average survival,3years
•Syncope(15%)—average survival,2years
•Heartfailure(50%)—average survival,1.5years similiar to metastatic ds

118
Q

signs of aortic stenosis

A

Signs
a. Murmur
•Harsh crescendo–decrescendo systolic murmur •Heard in second right intercostal space
•Radiates to carotid arteries
b. Soft S2. S2 may also be single since the aortic component may be delayed and merge into P2
c. S4
d. Parvus et tardus—diminished and delayed carotid upstrokes
e. Sustained PM
I f. Precordial thrill

119
Q

cresendo decresendo murmer heard in

A

aortic stenosis

120
Q

pulsus parvus et tardus is present in

A

aortic stenosis
diminished and delayed carotid upstroke
pulse is weak ( parvus ) and late (tardus)

121
Q

causes of aortic regurgitation

A
  1. Acute
    a. Infective endocarditis
    b. Trauma
    c. Aortic dissection
    d. Iatrogenic as during a failed replacement surgery
    1. Chronic
      a. Primary valvular:
      Rheumatic fever, bicuspid aortic valve, Marfan syndrome, Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, ankylosing spondylitis, SLE
      b. Aortic root disease: Syphilitic aortitis, osteogenesis imperfecta, aortic dissection, Behçet syndrome, Reiter syndrome, systemic HTN
122
Q

examination finding of aortic regurgitation

A

Physical examination

a. Widened pulse pressure—markedly increased systolic BP, with decreased diastolic BP.
b. Diasystolic decrescendo murmur best heard at left sternal border.
c. Corrigan pulse (water-hammer pulse)—rapidly increasing pulse that collapses suddenly as arterial pressure decreases rapidly in late systole and diastole; can be palpated at wrist or femoral arteries.
d. Austin Flint murmur—low-pitched diastolic rumble due to competing flow anterograde from the LA and retrograde from the aorta. It is similar to the murmur appreciated in mitral stenosis.
e. Displaced PMI (down and to the left) and S3 may also be present.
f. Murmur intensity increases with sustained handgrip. Handgrip increases systemic vascular resistance (SVR), which causes an increased “backflow” through the incompetent aortic valve.

123
Q

watterhammer pulse seen in

A
Corrigan pulse  (water-hammer pulse)—
rapidly increasing pulse that collapses suddenly as arterial pressure decreases rapidly in late systole and diastole; can be palpated at wrist or femoral arteries.
124
Q

austin flint murmer seen in

A

Austin Flint murmur—low-pitched diastolic rumble due to competing flow anterograde from the LA and retrograde from the aorta. It is similar to the murmur appreciated in mitral stenosis.
Classically, it is described as being the result ofmitral valveleaftlet displacementandturbulent mixing ofantegrademitralflow and retrogradeaorticflow:[7]

Displacement:Thebloodjets from the aortic regurgitation strike the anterior leaflet of themitral valve, which often results in premature closure of the mitral leaflets. This can be mistaken for mitral stenosis.

Turbulence of the two columns of blood:Blood fromleft atriumto left ventricle and blood from aorta toleft ventricle.

increases digixin

125
Q

ebstein anomaly

A

congential malformation of tricuspid valve in which there is downward displacement of valve into rht ventricle
seen with lithium

126
Q

most common cause of TR

A

left ventricular failure

127
Q

demusset sign

A

aortic regurgitation

head bobbing rhythmical jerking of head

128
Q

muller sign

A

uvula bobs

129
Q

muller sign

A

uvula bobs

present in aortic stenosis

130
Q

duroziez sign

A

pistol shot sound heard over femoral arteries

present in aortic stenosis

131
Q

signs and symptoms of tricuspid regurgitation

A
ususally asymptomatic 
signs of rht heart failure 
pulsatile liver 
prominent v waves and rapid y desecnt 
blowing holosystolic murmer 
rht ventricular pulsation along left lower sternal border
132
Q

mitral valve prolapse cause

A

MVP is defined as the presence of excessive or redundant mitral leaflet tissue due to myxomatous degeneration of mitral valve leaflets and/or chordae tendineae.

133
Q

causes of TR

A

TR is usually secondary to RV dilation
. Any cause of RV dilation can result in enlargement of the tricuspid orifice.
•Left ventricular failure is the most common cause. •Right ventricular infarction. •Inferior wall MI. •Corpulmonale,secondary to pulmonary HTN
. b. Tricuspid endocarditis—seen in IV drug users.
c. May be secondary to rheumatic heart disease; usually accompanied by mitral and aortic valve disease.
d. Epstein anomaly—congenital malformation of tricuspid valve in which there is downward displacement of the valve into the RV.
e. Other causes include carcinoid syndrome, SLE, and myxomatous valve

134
Q

murmer of TR

A

holosystolic murmer at left lower sternal border

135
Q

most common cause of MR IN developed countries

A

mitral valve prolapse

136
Q

ausculatatory finding of mitral valve prolapse

A

mid to late systolic click

mid to late systolic murmer

137
Q

effect of maneurs on mvp

A

Standing and the Valsalva maneuver increase murmur and click because these maneuvers reduce LV chamber size, allowing the click and murmur to occur earlier in systole. e.

Squatting decreases murmur and click because it increases LV chamber size, thus delaying the onset of the click and murmur.

138
Q
effect of valsalva 
standing 
leg raising 
squatting
 hand grip
A

valsalva squatting Handgrip(inc
standing leg raising afterload)

MR MS ⬇️ ⬆️
AR,AS ⬇️ ⬆️ ,⬆️AR

all left sided murmer decreased with decreased blood
and increased with increase blood

except
HOCM ⬆️
MVP ⬆️

139
Q

most common cause of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

ischemia

140
Q

most common cause of cardiac transplantation

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

141
Q

clinical manifestations of cardiac tamponade

A
  • Pulsus paradoxus, characterized by a decrease in systolic blood pressure >10 mm Hg with normal inspiration, frequently is present. The paradoxical pulse often can be noted by marked weakening or disappearance of a peripheral pulse during inspiration. Paradoxical pulse is not diagnostic of cardial tamponade and can occur in chronic lung disease, acute asthma, severe CHF, and in some cases of hypovolemic shock.
  • Neck vein distension with clear lung
  • Shock (hypotension)
  • Decreased heart sounds
  • Beck’s triad is associated with acute tamponade; it includes low blood pressure, distended neck veins, and decreased heart sounds
142
Q

cause of distended neck veins

A

cardiac tamponade
pulmonary edema

differenciated by clear lung fields on chest xray of cardiac tamponade

143
Q

ekg finding of cardiac tamponade

A

electric alternans small and big compkexes alternatively

144
Q

echocardiography finding of pericardial effusion

A

dancing heart

145
Q

chest xray of pericardial effusion

A

water bottle sign

146
Q

ekg finding of pericarditis

A

EKG may be diagnostic and reveals a diffuse ST-segment elevation with upright T waves at the onset of chest pain. PR segment depression is VERY SPECIFIC

147
Q

diffrential of ekg of pericarditis and MI

A

The diffuseness of the ST-segment elevation, absence of reciprocal leads, and absence of the development of Q waves distinguish the characteristic pattern of acute pericarditis from the pattern seen in acute MI.

148
Q

treatment of pericarditis

A

NSAIDS

CORTICOSTEROID if not responding to NSAIDS

149
Q

causes of restrictive cardiomyopathy

A
amylodossis 
sarcodosis 
hemochromatosis 
cancer 
fibrosis
150
Q

drugs to be avoided with HOCM

A

Digitalis
• Diuretics
• Vasodilators
• Exercise

151
Q

effects of various maneures on heart

A

Effect of Various Maneuvers on Systolic Murmurs
Valsalva Handgrip Squatting Amyl Nitrite Leg Raising
phenylpherine
AS ⬇️ ⬇️ ⬆️ ⬆️ ⬆️
HOCM⬆️ ⬇️ ⬇️ ⬆️ ⬇️
VSD ⬇️ ⬆️ ↔️ ⬇️ ⬆️
MR ⬇️ ⬆️ ⬆️ ⬇️ ⬆️

152
Q

causes of dilated cardiomyopathy

A

Idiopathic: most common
•CAD
Alcoholic
• Peripartum
• Postmyocarditis due to infectious agents (viral, parasitic, mycobacterial, Rickettsiae)
• Toxins (cobalt, lead, arsenic)
• Doxorubicin hydrochloride, cyclophosphamide, vincristine• Metabolic: chronic hypophosphatemia, hypokalemia, hypocalcemia, uremia

153
Q

signs of HOCM

A

Signs

a. Sustained PMI
b. Loud S4
c. Systolic ejection murmur

•Decreases with squatting, lying down,or straight leg raise(due to decreased outflow obstruction)
•Intensity increases with Valsalva and standing(decreases LV size and thus increases the outflow obstruction) •Decreases with sustained handgrip(increased systemic resistance leads to decreased gradient across aortic valve) •Best heard at left lowersternal border(LLSB)
d. Rapidly increasing carotid pulse with two upstrokes (bisferious pulse)

154
Q

bisferious pulse

A

HOCM

Rapidly increasing carotid pulse with two upstrokes (bisferious pulse)

155
Q

treatment of HOCM

A

Symptomatic patients a.

β-Blockers should be the initial drug used in symptomatic patients; they reduce symptoms by improving diastolic filling (as HR decreases, duration in diastole increases), and also reduce myocardial contractility and thus oxygen consumption

b. Calcium channel blockers verapamil •Can be used if patientis not responding to β-blocker. •Reduce symptoms by similar mechanism as β-blockers.
c. Diuretics can be used if fluid retention occurs.
d. If AFib is present, treat accordingly (see Atrial Fibrillation). e. Surgery
•Myomectomy

156
Q

symptoms of acute pericarditis

A

Chest pain (most common finding)
a. Often severe and pleuritic (can differentiate from pain of MI because of association with breathing)
. b. Often localized to the retrosternal and left precordial regions and radiates to the trapezius ridge and neck.
c. Pain is positional: It is aggravated by lying supine, coughing, swallowing, and deep inspiration. Pain is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward.
d. Pain is not always present, depending on the cause (e.g., usually absent in rheumatoid pericarditis).

  1. Fever and leukocytosis may be present
  2. Patient may give symptoms of preceding viral illness such as a nonproductive cough or diarrhea
157
Q

in which case pain is absent in pericarditis

A

rheumatoid percarditis

158
Q

examination finding of pericarditis

A

Pericardial friction rub
a. Not always present, but it is very specific for pericarditis
b. Caused by friction between visceral and parietal pericardial surfaces
c. Scratching, high-pitched sound with up to three components.
: •Atrial systole(presystolic)
•Ventricular systole(loudest and most frequently heard)
•Early diastole

159
Q

difference between diasystolic dysfunction of constrictive pericarditis and cardiac tamponade

A
in constrictive pericarditis 
      Early diastole:Rapid filling 
       Late diastole:Halted filling 
in cardiac tamponade 
   impeded filling throughout diastole
160
Q

signs of constrictive pericarditis

A

JVD—most prominent physical finding; central venous pressure (CVP) is elevated and displays prominent x and y descents

b. Kussmaul sign—JVD (venous pressure) fails to decrease during inspiration
c. Pericardial knock—corresponding to the abrupt cessation of ventricular filling
d. Ascites
e. Dependent edema

161
Q

square root sign

A

in constrictive pericarditis
Ventricular pressure tracing shows a rapid y descent, which has been described as a dip and plateau or a
“square root sign.”

162
Q

complications of acute pericarditis

A

pericardial effusion

cardiac tamponade

163
Q

procedure of choice to diagnose pericardial effusion

A

Echocardiogram

a. Imaging procedure of choice: Confirms the presence or absence of a significant effusion
b. Most sensitive and specific method of determining whether pericardial fluid is present; can show as little as 20 mL of fluid
c. Should be performed in all patients with acute pericarditis to rule out an effusion

  1. CXR
    a. CXR shows enlargement of cardiac silhouette when >250 mL of fluid has accumulated
    b. Cardiac silhouette may have prototypical “water bottle” appearance
    c. An enlarged heart without pulmonary vascular congestion suggests pericardial effusion
  2. ECG
    electrical alrernans
164
Q

clinical signs of cardiac tamponade

A

elevated juglar venous pressure most common finding
PROMINENT X DECENT AND ABSENT Y DECENT
decreased pulse pressure
pulsus paradoxus
ecg - electrical alternans not diagnostic of tamponade also in effusion

165
Q

diagnostic of cardiac tamponade

A

•echocardiography most sensitive and non invasive test
•cxr enlargement of cardiac silhouette when >250ml collected
•ecg
electrical alternans not diagnostic of cardiac tamponade
•cardiac catherisation
inc rht heart pressure
ABSENT Y DESCENT

166
Q

treatment of cardiac tamponade

A
  1. Nonhemorrhagic tamponade

a. If patient is hemodynamically stable
•Monitor closely with echocardiogram, CXR, ECG
•If patient has known renal failure ,dialysis is more helpfu lthan pericardiocentesis
b. If patient is not hemodynamically stable •Pericardiocentesis is indicated
•If no improvement is noted, fluid challenge may improve symptoms

  1. Hemorrhagic tamponade secondary to trauma
 a. If the bleeding is unlikely to stop on its own, emergent surgery is indicated to repair the injury 
 b. Pericardiocentesis is only a temporizing measure and is not definitive treatment. Surgery should  not  be delayed to perform pericardiocentesis
167
Q

test to differentiate dyspnea of heart failure from COPD

A

brain natriuretic peptide
released from the ventricles in response to ventricular volume expansion and pressure overload.
•BNP levels>150pg/mL correlate strongly with the presence of decompensated CHF.

168
Q

most common cause of CHF

A

hypertension

169
Q

premature atrial complexes

A

early beat arises within atria firing onits own

ECG look for early P waves that differ in morphology from the normal sinus P wave (because these P waves originate within the atria and not the sinus node).

QRS complex is normal because conduction below the atria is normal. There is usually a pause before the next sinus P wave.

TREATMENT
if asymptomatic no treatment
if symptomatic bblockers

170
Q

premature ventricular complexes

A

This early beat fires on its own from a focus in the ventricle and then spreads to the other ventricle
. 2. PVCs can occur in patients with or without structural heart disease

ECG
Since conduction is not through normal conduction pathways, but rather through ventricular muscle, it is slower than normal, causing a wide QRS. 4. Wide, bizarre QRS complexes followed by a compensatory pause are seen; a P wave is not usually seen because it is “buried” within the wide QRS complex
PVCs •
•Couplet:Two successive PVCs
•Bigeminy :Sinus beat followed by a PVC
•Trigeminy:Two sinus beats followed by a PVC

171
Q

wht is cardioversion

A

Delivery of a shock that is in synchrony with the QRS complex
:Purpose is to terminate certain dysrhythmias such as PSVT or VT; an electric
shock during Twave can cause Vfib, so the shock is timed not to hit the Twave.
•Indications:
AFib
,atrialflutter,
VT with a pulse,
SVT

172
Q

wht is defibrillation

A
Delivery of a shock that is NOT  in synchrony with the QRScomplex
 :Purpose is to convert a dysrhythmia
normal sinus rhythm
Indications
\:VFib
,VT without a pulse.
173
Q

atrial fibrillation

A

Multiple foci in the atria fire continuously in a chaotic pattern, causing a totally irregular, rapid ventricular rate. Instead of intermittently contracting, the atria quiver continuously. 2. Atrial rate is over 400 bpm, but most impulses are blocked at the AV node so ventricular rate ranges between 75 and175.

174
Q

clinical manifestations of atrial fibrillation

A

Fatigue and exertional dyspnea

  1. Palpitations, dizziness, angina, or syncope may be seen
  2. An irregularly irregular pulse
  3. Blood stasis (secondary to ineffective contraction) leads to formation of intramural thrombi, which can embolize to the brain.

ECG FINDING
Irregularly irregular rhythm (irregular RR intervals and excessively rapid series of tiny, erratic spikes on ECG with a wavy baseline and no identifiable P waves)

175
Q

treatment of acute atrial fibrillation

A
  1. Acute AFib in a hemodynamically unstable patient:

Immediate electrical cardioversion to sinus rhythm

2 Acute AFib in a hemodynamically stable patient
a. Rate control
•Determine the pulse in a patien twith AFib
.If it is too rapid,it must be treated.
Target rate is 60 to 100 bpm.
•β-Blockers are preferred. Calcium channel blockers alternative.If left ventricular systolic dysfunction is present,consider digoxin o ramiodarone (useful for rhythm control).

  b.  Cardioversion to sinus rhythm (after rate control is achieved)
      •Candidates for cardioversion include those who are hemodynamically unstable, those with worsening symptoms, and those who are having their first ever case of AFib.
 •Electrical cardioversion is preferred over pharmacologic cardioversion. Attempts should be made to control ventricular rate before attempting DC cardioversion. 
 •Use pharmacologic cardioversion only if electrical cardioversion fails or is not feasible: Parenteral ibutilide, procainamide, flecainide, sotalol, or amiodarone 

C.ANTICOAGULANT
anticoagulate 3wks before and 4 wks after cardioversion
inr of 2-3 is goal
to avoid waiting for 3wks for cardioversion do trans esophageal echocardiography and see if thrombus present ornt ↙️ ↘️
present absent
⬇️ ⬇️
anticoagulate for do cardioversion
3wks and give anticoagulant after it

176
Q

treatment of chronic atrial fibrillation

A

rate control + anticoagulant
with bblocker if low risk of embolism then aspirin
or ccb rest all warfarin

177
Q

atrial flutter

A

atrial rate around 300 beats /min

diagnosis
ECG
ECG provides a saw-tooth baseline, with a QRS complex appearing after every second or third “tooth” (P wave).
Saw-tooth flutter waves are best seen in the inferior leads (II, III, aVF).

178
Q

saw tooth waves seen in

A

atrial flutter

179
Q

multi focal tachycardia

A

Usually occurs in patients with severe pulmonary disease (e.g.,COPD)
. •ECG finding

:Variable
P-wave morphology and variable PR and RR intervals
. At least 3 DIFFERENT P-wave morphologies are required to make an accurate diagnosis
. •The diagnosis of wandering atrial pacemaker is identical except that the heart rate is between 60 and 100 bpm (i.e., not tachycardic).

180
Q

most common arrhythmia due to digoxin toxicity

A

paroxymal supraventricular tachycardia

181
Q

treatment of PSVT

A

•manuvers tht stimualte vegus delay av conduction and block reentrant pathway
acute treatment
a pharmacological
IV ADENOSINE DOC works by dec sinoatrial and av nodal activity
IV verapamil or IV BBLOCKER
DC cardioversion

182
Q

adenosine is DOC FOR

A

PSVT

183
Q

pathology in WPW

A

An accessory conduction pathway from atria to ventricles through the bundle of Kent causes premature ventricular excitation because it lacks the delay seen in the AV node.

184
Q

ECG FINDING and treatment of WPW

A

ECG
Narrow complex tachycardia, a short PR interval, and
a DELTA WAVE (upward deflection seen before the QRS complex)

TREATMENT
•Radiofrequency catheter ablation of one arm of the reentrant loop (i.e., of the accessory pathway) is an effective treatment. Medical options include procainamide or quinidine.

  1. Avoid drugs active on the AV node (e.g., digoxin, verapamil, β-blockers) because they may accelerate conduction through the accessory pathway
185
Q

rheumatic hear ds cause

A

complication of streptococcus pharyngitis

most common abnornality is mitral stenosis

186
Q

diagnostis of acute rheumatic fever

A

MAJOR CRITERIA MINOR CRITERIA
migratiory polyarthiritis fever
subcutaneous nodules inc ESR
cardiac involvement history of strep pharyngitis
chorea h/o of rhematic fever
erythema marginatum polyarthralgia

187
Q

classification of infective endocarditis

A

Acute endocarditis
•Most vcommonly caused by S. aureus (virulent) •Occur s on anormal heartvalve
•If untreated ,fatal in less than 6weeks

b. Subacute endocarditis
•Caused by less virulent organisms,such as Streptococcus viridans and Enterococcus
•Occurs on damaged heartvalves •If untreated,takes much longer than 6weeks to cause death

188
Q

most common organism causing of native valve endocarditis

A

strep viridans

189
Q

most common cause of prosthetic valve endocarditis

A

early onset staphylococcus

late onset streptococcus

190
Q

most commnon cause of endocarditis in iv drug use

A

STAPH aureus

191
Q

janeway lesion

A

in infective endocarditis

Janeway lesions are painless erythematous lesions on palms and soles.

192
Q

osler nodes

A

Osler nodes are painful, raised lesions of fingers,toes,or feet.

193
Q

roth spots

A

Roth spots are oval,retinal hemorrhages with a clear ,pale center.

194
Q

dukes criteria

A

MAJOR
•sustained bacteremia by a organism known to cause endocarditis
•endocardial involvement documented by either echocardiogram (vegetation, abscess,valve perforation,prosthetic dehiscence)orclearly established new valvular regurgitation

MINOR
•Predisposing condition(abnormalvalveorabnormalrisk ofbacteremia)
•Fever
•vascular phenomena:septic arteria o r pulmonary emboli, mycotic aneurysms,intracranialhemorrhage,Janeway lesionsa
•immune phenomena
:Glomerulonephritis
,Oslernodes
,b Rothspots,
crheumatoidfacto
r •Positive blood cultures not meeting major criteria
•Positive echocardiogram not meeting major criteria

195
Q

marantic endocarditis

A

non bacterial thrombotic endocarditis

due to some metastatic ds sterile deposits of fibrin and platelets on valve leaflet

196
Q

libman sac endocarditis

A

endoacarditits involving aortic valve in SLE

197
Q

ventricular septal defect signs

A

Signs a
. Harsh, blowing holosystolic murmur with thrill
•At fourth left intercostal space
•Murmur decreases with Valsalva and handgrip •The smaller the defect,the louder the holosystolic murmur
b. Sternal lift (RV enlargement)
c. As PVR increases, the pulmonary component of S2 increases in intensity

198
Q

defect in coarctation of aorta

A

Narrowing/constriction of aorta, usually at origin of left subclavian artery near ligamentum arteriosum, which leads to obstruction between the proximal and distal aorta, and thus to increased left ventricular afterload.

199
Q

clinical features of coarctation of aorta

A

HTN in upper extremities with hypotension in lower extremities
2. Well-developed upper body with underdeveloped lower half
Midsystolic murmur heard best over the back
4. Symptoms include headache, cold extremities, claudication with exercise, and leg fatigue
5. Delayed femoral pulses when compared to radial pulses 6. Prevalence of coarctation of the aorta is increased in patients with Turner syn

200
Q

murmer of coarctation of aorta

A

midsystolic murmer best heard over back
CXR
a. Notching of the ribs
b. “Figure 3” appearance due to indentation of the aorta at site of coarctation, with dilation before and after the stenosis

201
Q

figure of 3 appearence on chest xray in

A

Figure 3” appearance due to indentation of the aorta at site of coarctation, with dilation before and after the stenosis

202
Q

signs of PDA

A

Loud P2 (sign of pulmonary HTN)

  1. LVH: Secondary to left-to-right shunt
  2. Right ventricular hypertrophy: Secondary to pulmonary HTN
  3. Continuous “machinery murmur” at left second intercostal space (both systolic and diastolic components) 7.Wide pulse pressure and bounding peripheral pulses
  4. Lower-extremity clubbing: Toes more likely than fingers to be cyanotic (differential cyanosis)
203
Q

machinery murmer heard in

A

PDA continous murmer best heard at left 2nd intercoastal space

204
Q

TRIAD OF TETROLOGY OF FALLOT

A
Characterized by a triad of cardiac abnormalities: 
Ventricular septal defect, 
right ventricular hypertrophy,
 pulmonary artery stenosis, and
 overriding aorta.
205
Q

clinical features of tetrology of fallots

A

Patients experience Tet spells—
they will squat after exertion such as exercise or crying spell in an infant.
This maneuver increases SVR, which helps shunt blood from the RV to the lungs instead of the aorta
. Oxygen, morphine, and β-blockers may also be needed if the patient continues to be cyanotic.
4. Murmur is typically crescendo–decrescendo in nature and heard best at the left upper sternal border.

206
Q

murmer of tetrology of fallots

A

Murmur is typically crescendo–decrescendo in nature and heard best at the left upper sternal border

207
Q

most common artery of occlusion

A

femoral artery

208
Q

clinical features of acute arterial occlusion

A
6ps 
pallor
pain 
parasesthis 
polar(cold)
pulselessnes 
paralysis
209
Q

treatment of acute arterial occlusion

A

anticoagulate with IV heparin
thrombolytics
emergent surgical embolectomy
fogarty balloon cathetetomy—the catheter is inserted,theballoon is inflated,and the catheter is pulled out—the balloon brings the embolus with it.

210
Q

wht is mycotic aneurysm

A

Ananeurysm resulting from damage to the aortic wall secondary to infection
•Blood cultures are positive in most cases
•Treatment:IV antibiotics andsurgical excision

211
Q

leutic heart

A

due to complication of syphlic aortits
e. Aneurysm of the aortic arch with retrograde extension extends backward to cause aortic regurgitation and stenosis of aortic branches, most commonly the coronary arteries. •Treatment
:IVpenicillin and surgical repair.

212
Q

most common primary cardiac neoplasm

A

atrial myxoma

213
Q

diastolic plop

A

Prototypically present with fatigue,fever,syncope,palpitations,malaise,and a low pitched diastolic murmur that changes character with changing body positions
( diastolic plop).

214
Q

homans sign

A

calf pain on ankle dorsiflexion

215
Q

phlegmasia cerulea dolens

A

painful blue swollwn legs indicating major venous obstruction
impaired sensory and motor function