Health supervision Flashcards

1
Q

microcephaly - definition

A

head size 2-3 standard deviations below mean age

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2
Q

congenital microcephaly - association

A

abnormal induction and migration of brain tissue

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3
Q

acquired microcephaly- association

A

cerebral insult in late third trimester, prenatal period, first year of life -
children usually born with normal head circumference

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4
Q

craniosynostosis definition

A

premature closure of one or more of the cranial sutures

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5
Q

craniosynostosis - etiology

A

80-90% are sporadic - 10-20% are familial or a part of a genetic syndrome

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6
Q

when should sutures close by?

A

90% closure by age 2 and complete by age 5

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7
Q

elongated skull - what is the first suture to close?

A

sagittal suture

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8
Q

most common form of craniosynostosis?

A

dolichocephaly/scapholocephaly

elongated skull from closure of the sagittal suture

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9
Q

brachycephaly - what is it?

A

coronal suture closure – shortened skull

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10
Q

most complicated craniosynostosis?

A

brachycephaly - associated with men and optic nerve atrophy

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11
Q

trigonocephaly

A

closure of the metopic suture

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12
Q

when is craniosynostosis usually noted by?

A

6 months of age

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13
Q

plagiocephaly- definition

A

asymmetry of the infant head shape usually not associated with premature suture closure

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14
Q

most common plagiocephaly?

A

postional plagiocephaly

flattening of the occiput and prominence of the ipsilateral frontal area

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15
Q

what is plagiocephaly associated with?

A

congenital muscular torticollis

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16
Q

macrocephaly - definition

A

head circumference >95%

17
Q

macrocephaly etiology - (6)

A
  1. familial
  2. overgrowth syndrome (sotos syndrome)
  3. metabolic storage disorder
  4. neurofibromatosis
  5. achondroplasia
  6. hydrocephalus
18
Q

which kids should not get live vaccinated?

A

compromised immunity -

– cancer, congenital or drug-induced immunodeficiency

19
Q

examples of live vaccines

A

OPV- polio
varicella
measles,mumps and rubella (MMR)

20
Q

non-live vaccines examples

A
TDaP - diptheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis,
Hepatitis A and B
HIB
influenza
pneumococcal and meningococcal vaccines
21
Q

HBV timing

A

3 times within the 1st year

22
Q

TDaP - type of vaccine, timing of vaccine

A

inactivated
2, 4, 6 months with boosters at 12-18, and 4-6yrs
dT should then be given at 12 and then every 10 yrs after that

23
Q

opv- what is it and how does it work?

A

oral polio vaccine
it is good - because oral and will come out in poop - and vaccinate those around
BUT it might cause a polio related disease

24
Q

when is IPV given?

A

2 and 4 months - booster at 6-18 months and 4-6 yrs

25
Q

HIB vaccine - when given?

A

2, 4, 6 months with booster at 12-15 months or 2, 4, 12 months

26
Q

MMR - timing

A

12-15 months

27
Q

varicella- timing

A

12-18 months

28
Q

Hepatitis A - timing

A

2yo

29
Q

what is the most common cause of otitis media in younger than 3 yo? (bacteria)

A

pneumococcus (Streptoccocus)

30
Q

pneumovax - advantages and disadvantage

A

will treat almost all causes of bacterial meningigitis and bacteremia during childhood
disadvantage - little immunogenicity in younger than 2yo

31
Q

when to use pneumovax?

A

high risk children with sickle cell, asplenic, immunodeficiency, chronic liver disease,

32
Q

what is part of the neonatal metabolic screen

A
congenital hypothyroid
PKU
galactosemia 
sickle cell anemia 
congenital adrenal hyperplasia
33
Q

RF for iron def. anemia

A
prematurity
low birth weight
early introduction of cow's milk 
insufficient dietary intake of iron
low socioeconomic status
34
Q

acute lead intoxication- what does it look like?

A

acute onset of anorexia, apathy, lethargy, anemia, irritability, vomiting

35
Q

chronic lead intoxication - what does it look like?

A

asymptomatic, neurologic sequela might occur, developmental delay, learning problems and MR

36
Q

balanitis- what is it? and what causes it?

A

inflammation of the glans of the penis-

candida or gram negative infection in infants and STI in adults