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Nursing 110 > Health and Wellness 110 > Flashcards

Health and Wellness 110 Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the seven components of well-being?

A

environmental, occupational, intellectual, spiritual, physical, emotional, social.

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2
Q

What does HWII stand for?

A

Health, Wellness, Illness and Injury

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3
Q

What four types of situations can constitute a crisis on the family system?

A

chronic illness, major injuries, mental illness, pediatric illness

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4
Q

What are the three levels of prevention activities?

A

Primary (to prevent) secondary (to reduce impact of existing) tertiary: to lessen impact of ongoing illness or injury.

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5
Q

Screening tests to detect disease are which – primary, secondary or tertiary impacts?

A

Secondary: they don’t prevent the illness, but they do lesson the impact.

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6
Q

Chronic disease management programs are which: primary, secondary or tertiary?

A

Tertiary: lesson the impact of ongoing illness or injury.

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7
Q

The diagnosis or treatment of a disease is which kind of impact: primary, secondary or tertiary?

A

Secondary: Secondary prevention services include the diagnosis and treatment of disease.

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8
Q

TDAP, IPV, PVC, HIB, HepB, HepA, Rotovirus and influenza vaccines are vaccines for which age?

A

newborn infant.

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9
Q

What vaccines are given to newborns/infants:

A

TDAP (diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis), IPV (polio), pneumoccoccal (PVC), Haemophilius influenza type b (HIB), Hep B, Hep A, Rotovirus and influenza

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10
Q

When are vaccinations for measles, mumps, rubella and varicella given?

A

Toddler age. MMR not given prior to 12 months.

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11
Q

What vaccinations are recommended for toddlers?

A

mmr (measles, mumps, rubella), varicella, DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, acellular pertussis), IPV, varicella, Hep A, Hep B. Meningococcal if recommended. influenza.

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12
Q

What vaccinations are recommended for preschool age children?

A

DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis); IPV (Inactivated polio), HepA, HepB, pneumococcal, varicella, annual influenza

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13
Q

At what age can the HPV vaccine be given?

A

HPV vaccines can be given as early as 9 years of age.

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14
Q

HPV, MMR, meningococcal, Tdap and annual influenza would be most appropriate for:

A

School age children over 9 years old HPV allowable, but recommended for 11-12 years old. The other vaccines are appropriate as needed for school age and adolescents.

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15
Q

At what ages should one assess for depression in a pediatric practice?

A

The assessment of depression should occur annually ages 11-21.

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16
Q

What does the CRAFFT screening stand for? When is it used?

A

CRAFFT: car, relax, forget, friends, trouble – screens for drug and alcohol use. For adolescents.

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17
Q

What does CRAFFT stand for?

A

Car, Relax, Forget, Friends, Trouble

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18
Q

What developmental screening is appropriate for newborns/infants?

A

DDST-II: Denver Developmental Screening Test

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19
Q

What is the DDST-II? What age is it given?

A

Denver Developmental Screening Test; given to infants to has high as 6 years old.

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20
Q

A baby or toddler lives in an area well water. What supplement should he/she be given?

A

fluoride if water less than 0.6 per million if toddler; if less than .3 parts per million infant.

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21
Q

What child would benefit most from dental varnish?

A

Varnish can be given through 5 years of age.

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22
Q

What is PKU? When would a clinician screen for it?

A

PKU is phenylketonuria; it is an newborn screening given 24-72 hours after birth.

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23
Q

What are health beliefs?

A

Concepts about health that individuals believe to be true.

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24
Q

Why is the distinction between an external locus of control and internal locus of control important?

A

Those who have an external locus (who believe they cannot impact their health– that impacts out of their control) are less likely to work towards health-inducing behaviors.

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25
Q

What are the six stages of change

A
  1. precontemplation, 2. contemplation. 3. preparation, 4. action, 5. maintenance, 6. termination
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26
Q

Define activity tolerance?

A

Type and amount of exercise or daily living activities an individual can perform without experiencing adverse effects.

27
Q

What is functional strength?

A

body’s ability to perform work.

28
Q

What is the difference between isotonic and isometric exercise?

A

Isotonic exercise is dynamic and involves movement; isometric exercise are static and do not involve moving a joint.

29
Q

What is isokinetic exercise?

A

Isokinetic exercise is resistive exercise involving muscle contraction or tension against resistance. An example is weight lifting. They combine isometric and isotonic (dynamic) elements.

30
Q

Is swimming isotonic, isometric or isokinetic?

A

Swimming is isotonic.

31
Q

Quad sets and planks are what kind of exercise? Isotonic, isometric, isokinetic?

A

Planks and quad sets, intended to improve the core muscles, do not involve movement and are isometric.

32
Q

What defines aerobic exercise?

A

Aerobic exercise means that the amount of oxygen taken into the body is greater than that used to perform the activity. These exercises use large muscle groups that move repetitively.

33
Q

When a nurse works with a patient to exercise in bed by pushing or pulling against an object, using a trapeze to lift out of the bed, lifting the buttocks off the bed and pushing with the body to a sitting position, is he/she helping with isotonic or isometric exercise?

A

The book identifies these as isotonic as they involve active movement on the part of the patient.

34
Q

What does the talk test measure?

A

Test of level of aerobic exercise keeping individuals at 60% maximum heartrate or higher: talk (not sing) during exercise, though breathing labored

35
Q

What is anaerobic exercise?

A

Anaerobic exercise, used by weight lifters and endurance athletes, forces the body to use anaerobic pathways to create energy, as oxygen cannot be drawn from the bloodstream efficiently.

36
Q

What is hypertrophy?

A

Enlargement of muscles through exercise.

37
Q

What are osteoblasts?

A

bone building cells

38
Q

What is the ideal duration of exercise for an infant?

A

outside 2-3 times a day as tolerated

39
Q

What is the ideal duration of exercise for toddlers?

A

60-90 minutes outdoor play daily

40
Q

What is the ideal duration of exercise for preschoolers?

A

60-90 minutes of outdoor play daily.

41
Q

What is the ideal duration of exercise for children 6-17?

A

60 minutes of physical activity daily, most aerobic. Some vigorous intensity, some muscle and bone strengthening 3 days a week.

42
Q

What is the ideal duration of exercise for adults?

A

150 minutes of moderate intensity aerobic activity each week OR 75 minutes vigorous intensity activities OR a mix. 2 days a week of muscle strengthening also recommended.

43
Q

What is the ideal duration of exercise for older adults (over 65)?

A

150 minutes of moderate intensity aerobic activity each week OR 75 minutes vigorous intensity activities OR a mix. 2 days a week of muscle strengthening also recommended. SAME AS ADULT

44
Q

Pregnant or postpartum women

A

140 minutes of moderate intensity aerobic activity each week; vigorous activity if already engaged. Discuss with healthcare provider.

45
Q

When do teeth appear?

A

5-8 months after birth.

46
Q

20 deciduous (temporary) teeth should appear by what age?

A

At age 2, 20 temporary or deciduous teeth should appear.

47
Q

At what age do children begin losing their deciduous teeth?

A

Ages 6-7 children begin to lose their deciduous teeth. They are replaced by 33 permanent teeth.

48
Q

What is pyorrhea?

A

advanced periodontal disease.

49
Q

what is xerostomia?

A

Xerostomia is severe drying of the mouth.

50
Q

What is halitosis?

A

Halitosis is bad breath.`

51
Q

What is baby bottle syndrome?`

A

Baby bottle syndrome is when carbohydrates in solutions demineralize tooth enamel and cause decay.`

52
Q

What is burning mouth syndrome?

A

Estrogen deficiency due to menopause causes unpleasant tingling sensations in the mouth; changes in taste perception.

53
Q

What is Cheilosis?

A

Bacteria, fungal infections or nutritional deficiencies that cause cracking in the lips.

54
Q

What is glossitis

A

An allergic response that causes inflammation in the tongue; the tongue can turn smooth/change color; need for oral hygiene

55
Q

What are granulomas?

A

Granulomas are benign tumor-like growths on gums; refer to dentist.

56
Q

What is stomatitis?

A

inflammation of the oral mucous membrane caused by trauma, allergy, vitamin deficiency or infection

57
Q

What are sordes?

A

Crusts on teeth and lips associated with debilitating diseases with protracted low fever

58
Q

What is parotitis?

A

swelling of one or both of the parotid glands or other salivary glands; mumps

59
Q

What is hairy leukoplakia?

A

Early sign of HIV: fuzzy white patches on tongue. Nurses should refer patients for clinical testing.

60
Q

What are granulomas?

A

Granulomas are benign tumor-like growth on the gums associated with the hormones of pregancy.

61
Q

What are the four stages of NREM sleep?

A

NREM has four stages:

N1 is the stage of light sleep and lasts only a few minutes; eyes move very slowly, and muscle activity slows.
N2 is the stage of light sleep during which body processes continue to slow down, eye movements stop, brain waves become slower, and bursts of rapid brain waves sometimes occur.
N3 is a stage of deep sleep; extremely slow brain waves appear, punctuated in smaller, faster waves.
N4 is also a stage of deep sleep during which delta waves predominate.

62
Q

How much of sleep is NREM sleep?

A

80%

63
Q

What are the characteristics of N3 and N4 stages of NREM sleep?

A

In both stages N3 and N4, the eyes do not move and muscle activity ceases. It is difficult to arouse people in deep sleep.

64
Q

What are the properties of REM sleep?

A

REM is characterized by high activity of the body and brain:

Distinctive eye movements occur.
Breathing becomes more rapid, irregular, and shallow.
Voluntary muscle tone is dramatically decreased.
Heart rate increases and blood pressure rises.
Men develop penile erections.

Nursing 110 (8 decks)

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